Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the pubertal development scale called?

A

tanner stages

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2
Q

can a parent authorise treatment if a competent young person has denied treatment and the treatment is in their best interest?

A

no, you would need to seek legal advice

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3
Q

name the framework used to for topics of discussion with young people

A
HEEADSSS
home
education/employment
eating
activity
drugs
sex
suicidality
safety
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4
Q

what particular things should you ask in drug history that are usually forgotten?

A

inhalers
creams
contraception

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5
Q

can breastfeeding prevent pneumonia?

A

yes

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6
Q

treatment for diarrhoea?

A

rehydration eg by oral solution

zinc supplements

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7
Q

how do oral rehydration solutions work?

A

creates osmotic pull for water so it is instantly absorbed in the jejeunum

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8
Q

how can HIV present in a baby?

A

recurrent bacterial infections or thrush
lymphadenopathy
persistent fever
recurrent childhood illnesses

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9
Q

when would HIV be classed as an epidemic?

A

prevalent in >1% of pregnant women

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10
Q

diagnostic tests for HIV in a child <18 months?

A

viral PCR

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11
Q

diagnostic test for HIV in a child >18 months?

A

serological rapid antibody test

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12
Q

treatment for HIV in children?

A

two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + 1 non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
prophylactic co-trimoxazole

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13
Q

TB investigations?

A

acid fast bacilli
ifny release assay
CXR

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14
Q

TB treatment in children?

A
RIPE
rifampicin
isoniazide
pyrazinamid
ethambutol
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15
Q

what vaccine prevents TB?

A

BCG

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16
Q

malaria presentation?

A

fever
pallor
non specific malaise

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17
Q

malaria investigations?

A

blood film for microscopy

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18
Q

malaria treatment?

A

artemisinin based combo therapy for 3 days

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19
Q

inheritable disorders that can cause obesity?

A

downs syndrome
prader willi syndrome
duchennes muscular dystrophy
fragile X

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20
Q

recommended screen time for children

A

<2hrs per day

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21
Q

recommended physical activity for under 5s who can walk?

A

> 3hrs per day

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22
Q

recommended physical activity for >5s?

A

1hr per day

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23
Q

when would orlistat be introduced to young people with obesity?

A

if they are severely obese with comorbidities and are attending a specialist clinic

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24
Q

what is the 1 2 3 approach to obesity?

A

1hr of physical activity
2hrs max screen time
3 balanced meals

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25
Q

name the 4 categories of milestone in child development?

A

gross motor skills
fine motor and vision
language and hearing
social and play

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26
Q

what motor/vision exercise should a baby be able to do by 6 weeks?

A

follow a torch

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27
Q

when should a baby’s head stop lagging?

A

3 months

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28
Q

when should a baby be able to drink from a cup?

A

1 yr

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29
Q

when should a baby be able to run?

A

18 months

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30
Q

when should a child be able to respond to and know their name?

A

1yr

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31
Q

when should a child start making sounds eg ahgaga

A

9 months

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32
Q

when should a child stand?

A

12 months

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33
Q

when should a child crawl?

A

9 months

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34
Q

after how many months would not walking be a red flag?

A

18 months

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35
Q

how many months of supported sitting would be a red flag?

A

12 months

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36
Q

when would not speaking be a red flag?

A

18 months

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37
Q

what investigation should be done into a child with a red flag for walking?

A

CK

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38
Q

define global developmental delay?

A

significant delay in 2 categories of development

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39
Q

give examples of motor delays?

A

cerebral palsy

duchenne muscular dystrophy

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40
Q

give an example of developmental deviation disorder?

A

autism

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41
Q

how would you investigate developmental delay?

A
chromosomes
FRAZ
oligoarray CGH
CK
neonatal PKU
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42
Q

what kind of jaundice is most common in babies?

A

breast milk jaundice

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43
Q

when is jaundice termed as “prolonged” in term infants?

A

2 weeks

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44
Q

when is jaundice termed as “prolonged” in preterm infants?

A

21 days

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45
Q

most common presentations in the newborn?

A

jaundice
vomiting
failure to thrive
sepsis

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46
Q

causes of vomiting in a newborn?

A

reflux
pyloric stenosis
duodenal atresia

47
Q

5 most common respiratory problems in children?

A
bronchiolitis
croup
viral URTI
asthma
acute tonsillitis
48
Q

what bug is the cause of acute epiglottitis?

A

influenza B

49
Q

how could you detect nausea in a child from the history?

A

if they aren’t eating

50
Q

normal resp rate for a child <1?

A

30-40

51
Q

normal resp rate for a child aged 1-2?

A

25-35

52
Q

nomal resp rate for a 2-5yr old?

A

25-30

53
Q

normal resp rate for a 5-12 year old?

A

20-25

54
Q

normal resp rate for over 12s?

A

<20

55
Q

intussusception presentation?

A

PR bleeding, jelly like stool, abdo pain

56
Q

colic presentation?

A

abdo pain

drawing legs up after feed

57
Q

most common surgical causes of abdo pain in infants?

A

intussusception
volvulus
incarcerated hernia

58
Q

who typically gets osgood schlatters?

A

adolescent active boys

59
Q

what MSK problem would a limp in a child suggest?

A

DDH
perthes
transient synovitis

60
Q

what would joint pain in a child indicate?

A
reactive arthritis
perthes
sufe
osgood schlatters
growing pains 
bone tumour
61
Q

treatment for impetigo - mild and severe?

A

mild - topical

severe - IV antibiotics

62
Q

what virus caused slap cheek?

A

parvovirus b19

63
Q

scarlet fever presentation?

A

red cheeks
tonsillitis
fever
strawberry tongue

64
Q

most common cause of limp in a child?

A

transient synovitis

65
Q

how can you examine a child for dehydration?

A

check fontanelle to see if it is sunken

66
Q

what kind of cry is considered a red flag?

A

weak
high pitched
continuous

67
Q

what urine output would be considered a red flag?

A

none in 18h

68
Q

what cap refill would be considered an amber flag?

A

> 3 secs

69
Q

what does gower’s sign indicate?

A

weakness of the pelvic girdle

70
Q

what kind of inheritance is neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

autosomal dominant

71
Q

how do you treat hydrocephalus in cerebral palsy?

A

drain via ventriculoperitoneal shunt

72
Q

what type of hearing loss results from a blockage of the ear?

A

conductive

73
Q

what type of hearing loss is glue ear?

A

conductive

74
Q

how do you treat glue ear?

A

use a grommet

75
Q

what weeks of pregnancy are most likely for the baby to get spastic diaplegic cerebral palsy?

A

24-32 weeks

76
Q

what kind of gait do cerebral palsy patients have?

A

intoeing

77
Q

name the components of the autism triad

A

flexibility of thinking
social interaction
communication

78
Q

what category of development to children with albinism struggle with and why?

A

fine motor due to vision problems

79
Q

when should children lose the atonic neck reflex?

A

6 months

80
Q

in what condition do children retain the atonic neck reflex >6 months?

A

cerebral palsy

81
Q

name 2 methods of passive immunity

A

mother to baby
blood donation
injection of human Ig or anti-toxin

82
Q

how long do mum’s antibodies last in baby?

A

1 yr

83
Q

what is a toxin?

A

a part of a virus/organism

84
Q

is an anti-toxin or vaccine faster acting?

A

anti-toxin

85
Q
which of these is NOT a live attenuated virus vaccine?
flu
rotavirus
MMR
typhoid
varicella
A

typhoid (inactivated)

86
Q

name 4 contraindications to vaccination?

A

previous anaphylactic reaction to vaccine
immunosuppression/pregancy (live)
egg allergy for yellow fever/flu
acute illness

87
Q

characteristic presentation of diphtheria?

A

white membrane inside mouth and/or nose

88
Q

bacteria responsible for diphtheria?

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

89
Q

in what age groups is meningococcal disease most active?

A

<5

15-24

90
Q

when does human brain development begin?

A

week 3 of pregnancy

91
Q

how does PKU affect the brain?

A

phenylalanine produced by mother is a precursor to neurotransmitters in the child’s brain

92
Q

what timeframe is the embryonic period to and from?

A

conception to week 9

93
Q

what timeframe is fetal development from and to?

A

week 9-40

94
Q

what is the stage after fetal development called?

A

post natal development

95
Q

what are the 2 starting layers of the embryo called?

A

epiblast and hypoblast

96
Q

what do the epiblast and hypoblast eventually become?

A

epiblast becomes baby

hypoblast becomes placenta and cord

97
Q

what does the primitive node do?

A

conducts how the embryo behaves and moves

98
Q

what does the ectoderm eventually form?

A

skin
nails
hair
neural tissue

99
Q

what does the mesoderm eventually fom?

A

muscle
bone
cartilage
vascular system

100
Q

what does the endoderm eventually form?

A

gut

respiratory system

101
Q

what is the first neural structure to form in development?

A

neural tube

102
Q

what lines the inner (ventricular) zone of the neural tube?

A

neural progenitors

103
Q

what does the bottom of the neural tube form?

A

spinal cord

104
Q

name 2 cells made in the ventricular zone of the neural tube?

A

progenitor cells

neurons

105
Q

which cells migrate from the ventricular zone?

A

neurons

106
Q

do cells closer or further away from the neural tube migrate further?

A

closer

107
Q

what do dendrites do?

A

gather info and transmit to neurons

108
Q

what do axons do?

A

transmit signals from neurons

109
Q

does brain development continue into adolescence?

A

yes

110
Q

is there an increase of white or grey matter in adolescence?

A

white

111
Q

what part of the brain is the first to evolve in adolescence?

A

sensorimotor cortex

112
Q

X drives anatomical reorganisation of the brain in adolescence

A

X = the limbic system

113
Q

what is holoprosencephaly?

A

failure of brain vesicles to form

114
Q

what impact does malnutrition have on the brain?

A

damages brain growth, volume and myelination