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WEAPONS Flashcards

0
Q

How many magazines are onboard?

A

17

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1
Q

What all is CG responsible for? (5)

A 
5in
CIWS
Small Arms and Crew Served Weapons
Force Protection Gear
Torpedo Tubes
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2
Q

Where is Deep Mag?

A

Trunk by sonar 1

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3
Q

Where is Powder 1?

A

Inside deep mag

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4
Q

Where is Powder 2?

A

Inside deep mag

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5
Q

Where is White Phosphorus?

A

Inside deep mag

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6
Q

Where is Loader Drum Room?

A

FWD AFFF

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7
Q

Where is FWD VLS?

A

By female CPO berthing

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8
Q

Where is AFT VLS?

A

By AFT CIWS

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9
Q

Where is FWD CIWS?

A

By unrep station 4

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10
Q

Where is AFT CIWS?

A

Boat Deck

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11
Q

Where is DLS 1?

A

STB side chaff decks

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12
Q

Where is DLS 2?

A

PRT side chaff decks

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13
Q

Where is the torpedo mag?

A

Inside port helo hanger

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14
Q

Where is Fixed Ammo Rocket Mag 1?

A

AFT near entrance to port helo hanger

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15
Q

Where is Fixed Ammo Rocket Mag 2?

A

FWD of Bosn 2

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16
Q

Where is Pyro 1?

A

By the barber shop

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17
Q

Where is pyro 2?

A

In STBD helo hanger

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18
Q

Where is Small Arms Mag?

A

By barber shop

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19
Q

How many RSLs are there?

A

14

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20
Q

Where is STBD MLM located?

A

Starboard break

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21
Q

Where is the grenade locker located?

A

By the AFT missile deck

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22
Q

Where is Mid 50 located?

A

STBD mid OOD station

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23
Q

Where is the pyro locker located?

A

By the AFT missile deck

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24
Q

Where is abandon ship located?

A

Boat deck

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25
Q

Where is the PORT 25mm located?

A

O3 Level Port Array decks

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26
Q

Where is the STBD 25mm located?

A

O3 level STBD Array Decks

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27
Q

Whee is the M8 locker located?

A

O3 Level by the bridge

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28
Q

Where is the O3 MLM locker located?

A

O3 level against the FWD stacks

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29
Q

What are some magazine safety steps? (5)

A 
No cell phones
No food or drinks
No radios
No spark producing items 
Minimum of 40psi in firemain
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30
Q

What 3 components makes up the MK 34 MOD 2?

A

MK 45 MOD 4
MK160 MOD 9 GCS
MK 46 MOD 1 OSS

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31
Q

Where is the 5in Gun located?

A

The folksule

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32
Q

What can the 5in be used for?

A

Surface, air, and shore

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33
Q

What is the rate of fire for the 5in?

A

12-20 rounds per minute

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34
Q

What’s the hot gun condition for the 5in?

A

50 or more rounds within 4 hours

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35
Q

What is the barrel length of the 5in gun?

A

310in

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36
Q

What is the max range of the 5in? (Surface and Air)

A

Surface: 13NM
Air: 9NM

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37
Q

What are the 3 ammunition powders?

A

Standard charge
Reduced charge
Clearing charge

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38
Q

What are the types of projectiles for the 5in? (7)

A 
High Explosive Multi Function Fuse
High Explosive Controlled Variable Timing 
High Explosive Variable Timing 
High Explosive Point Detonation
High Explosive Point Detonation Delayed
High Explosive Infa Red
Illumination Rounds
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39
Q

Where is EP1 Panel located?

A

Loader Drum Room

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40
Q

What does the EP1 panel do?

A

Acts as a power supply for the mount

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41
Q

Where is EP2 Panel located?

A

Loader Drum Room

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42
Q

What does the EP2 Panel do?

A

Controls loading order, movement, fires the gun, and monitors misfires and malfunctions

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43
Q

Where is the EP3 Panel located?

A

Deep Mag

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44
Q

What does the EP3 panel do?

A

Tells what types of rounds to load

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45
Q

Where is the EP4 Panel located?

A

Gun housing on forecastle

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46
Q

What does the EP4 Panel do?

A

Elevation readout

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47
Q

Where is the EP5 panel located?

A

Gun housing on forecastle

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48
Q

What does the EP5 panel do?

A

Train Readout

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49
Q

What is safeties?

A

Prevents firing on ourselves

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50
Q

What is the MK 160?

A

Creates fire control solution for the 5in gun

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51
Q

What are the 4 components of the MK 160?

A

2 MK 119 Gun Computer System Cabinets
Velocimeter
Gun Mount Control Panel

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52
Q

What does OSS stand for?

A

Optical Sight System

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53
Q

What is the component of OSS?

A

Control and Display Console

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54
Q

What makes up OSS?

A

2 cameras on a pedestal assembly

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55
Q

What’s the coverage of OSS?

A

360 degrees

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56
Q

What are the 2 modes of OSS?

A

Daylight and Thermal

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57
Q

Where is the Gun Computer System Cabinets located?

A

CSER1

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58
Q

Where is the Velocimeter located?

A

STBD side of the 5in

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59
Q

What is a MK 46 rextorp?

A

Inert torpedo

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60
Q

What is a MK 46 extorp?

A

Exercise torpedo without a warhead

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61
Q

What is a MK 46 torpedo?

A

War shot

Analog

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62
Q

What is a MK 54 rextorp?

A

Inert torpedo

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63
Q

What is a MK 54 extorp?

A

Exercise torpedo without a warhead

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64
Q

What is a MK 54 torpedo?

A

War shot

Digital

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65
Q

What’s the purpose of air slugs?

A

Tests the torpedo tubes

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66
Q

What does CIWS stand for?

A

Close In Weapons System

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67
Q

Where is CIWS located?

A

Aft Missile Deck

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68
Q

What is the purpose of CIWS?

A

Ain’t ship, missile, and surface.

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69
Q

What inputs does CIWS receive from the ship?

A

440VAC, Ship’s Gyro, and Firemain

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70
Q

What is CIWS?

A

20mm 6 barrel gatling gun

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71
Q

What is the rate of fire for CIWS? (Surface and Air)

A

Surface: 3000 RPM
Air: 4500 RPM

72
Q

What is the max drum capacity for CIWS?

A

1550 rounds

73
Q

What’s the max effective range of CIWS?

A

2000yds

74
Q

What is considered hot gun for CIWS?

A

300 rounds in 5mins

75
Q

What is the engagement criteria for CIWS?

A

Must be inbound, traveling 125kts, and not within firing cutouts

76
Q

What is a firing cutout?

A

Prevent CIWS from shooting into the ship

77
Q

What ammunition does CIWS use?

A

25mm tungsten steel armoire piercing bullets

78
Q

How many volts is supplied by the firing pin for CIWS?

A

300 volts

79
Q

What must be set when handling CIWS ammunition ?

A

HERO Condition 5

80
Q

What are the 3 modes of operation for CIWS?

A

Battery off
Standby
Air ready

81
Q

Describe Battery Off mode for CIWS?

A

Environmentalists on but power to enclosures are off

82
Q

Describe Standby mode for CIWS?

A

Power applied to electronic enclosures, transmitter warm up time

83
Q

Describe Air Ready mode for CIWS?

A

Track and search is on, movement is possible

84
Q

What are the 3 sub modes of Air Ready for CIWS?

A

AAW Manual
AAW Auto
Surface mode

85
Q

What are the 6 safety features of CIWS?

A 
Fire Integrity Switch
Hold Fire
Mount Safety Switch
Mount Safety plug
Mount motion Inhibit Switch
Clearing Sector Holdback tool
86
Q

What is the range of the CIWS search antenna?

A

5nm

87
Q

What is the range of the CIWS track antenna?

A

3nm

88
Q

What is the first hit range of CIWS?

A

1nm

89
Q

What is The Local Control Station primarily used for?

A

Maintenance and Tests

90
Q

Where is LCS located?

A

Aft CIWS

91
Q

What does RCS stand for?

A

Remote Control Station

92
Q

What is RCS used for?

A

To fire CIWS

93
Q

Where is RCS located?

A

CIC

94
Q

What does PAC Fire stand for?

A

Pre Aim Calibration Fire

95
Q

What does PAC Fire do?

A

Zeros out system, leads rounds to target

96
Q

What are the 11 50cal mounts?

A

501-511

97
Q

What the max effective range of the 50 cal?

A

2000yds

98
Q

What is the max range of the 50 cal?

A

7400 yards

99
Q

What’s the rate of fire for the 50cal?

A

450-600

100
Q

What is the hot gun condition for the 50cal?

A

200 rounds in less than 2mins

101
Q

What is hot gun?

A

Barrel hot enough for cook off

102
Q

What is cook off?

A

Round goes off due to heat

103
Q

What is hang fire?

A

Delay in firing

104
Q

What is misfire?

A

Round fails to fire after 10secs

105
Q

What is a run away gun?

A

Gun fires on its own

106
Q

What is the weapons cycle of operation?

A 
Feeding
Chambering
Locking
Firing
Unlocking
Extracting
Ejecting
Coking
107
Q

What are the 4 safety rules?

A

Treat every weapon as loaded
Only point the gun at something you intend to shoot
Keep finger off trigger til ready to fire
Keep weapon on safe til ready to fire

108
Q

What are warning shots?

A

25-50 yards from vessel being warned

109
Q

What is cover?

A

Protected from enemy fire

110
Q

What’s concealment?

A

Hidden from threat but not protected

111
Q

What are the condition codes?

A

Condition 1-4

112
Q

What is condition 1?

A

Ammunition in position to be fired, safety on.

113
Q

What is condition 2?

A

Not Applicable

114
Q

What is condition 3?

A

Ammo in position to be chambered, chamber is empty, action closed, safety on

115
Q

What is condition 4?

A

All ammo is removed, chamber empty, action closed, safety on

116
Q

What does load mean?

A

Take weapon from condition 4 to condition 3

117
Q

What is make ready?

A

Condition 3 to condition 1

118
Q

What does load and make ready mean?

A

Condition 4 to condition 1

119
Q

What does fire mean?

A

Engage target

120
Q

What does cease fire mean?

A

Stop firing at target

121
Q

What does unload mean?

A

Condition1/3 to condition4

122
Q

What does unload, show clear mean?

A

With a supervisor check the weapon

123
Q

What does NVPZ stand for?

A

Naval Vessel Protection Zones

124
Q

What is the assessment zone?

A

Outermost defense zone

125
Q

What is the warning zone?

A

Zone where unauthorized access is challenged

126
Q

What is the threat zone?

A

Innermost layer, no craft should enter this zone

127
Q

What is deadly force?

A

Force that a person uses knowing, or that a person knows or should know, would create a substantial risk of causing death or bodily harm.

128
Q

What are the 3 sides of the deadly force triangle?

A

Capability
Opportunity
Intent

129
Q

What are the 5 FPCON levels?

A

Normal

A-D

130
Q

What is FPCON Normal?

A

General global threat of terrorism exist

131
Q

What is FPCON Alpha?

A

Increased general threat of global terrorist activity against personnel or facilities exists

132
Q

What is FPCON Bravo?

A

Increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists

133
Q

What is FPCON Charlie?

A

When incident occurs on intel indicates attack is likely

134
Q

What is FPCON Delta?

A

Where terrorist activity has occurred or when it is imminent

135
Q

What are 8 reasons for deadly force?

A 
Self defense
Defense of others
National security 
Dangerous assets 
Serious offenses 
Protection of health and public safety
Arrests or apprehension
Escapes
136
Q

6 steps of deadly force continuum?

A 
Presence
Verbal
Soft control
Hard control
Non deadly weapons
Deadly force
137
Q

Who is the antiterrorism officer?

A

Mr. Mason

138
Q

Reasons for security alert?

A 
Intruder
Unattended bag
Unauthorized use of 1MC
Another ship going on security alert
Unlocked RSL or armory
Unauthorized access to secure space
Loss of power
Loss of Firemain
Small boat attack
Swimmer
Pier intruder
Riot
Suspicious people
139
Q

What does ATTWO stand for?

A

Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer

140
Q

What does the ATTWO do?

A

In charge of ship defense

141
Q

What are the 3 security alert teams?

A

SRF
BRF
RF

142
Q

What does SRF stand for?

A

Ships Reaction Force

143
Q

What does BRF stand for?

A

Backup Reaction Force

144
Q

What does RF stand for?

A

Reserve Force

145
Q

How long for SRF?

A

10mins

146
Q

How long for BRF?

A

10mins

147
Q

How long for RF?

A

10mins

148
Q

What is a Random Antiterrorism Measure?

A

Deters, detects, and disrupts terrorist attacks

149
Q

What are the 4 terrorists threat levels?

A

Low
Moderate
Significant
High

150
Q

What is the LOW terrorist threat level?

A

No group or group activity detected

151
Q

What is the MODERATE terrorist threat level?

A

Group present but not threatening to US

152
Q

What is the SIGNIFICANT terrorist threat level?

A

Anti US group present and operating environment is neutral

153
Q

What is the HIGH terrorist threat level?

A

Anti US group present, environment favors the terrorists

154
Q

What are the 2 types of terrorist organizations?

A

Hierarchical and Networked

155
Q

What is Ethnocentric?

A

Race or ethnicity main concern

156
Q

What is Nationalistic?

A

Nation-state is main concern

157
Q

What is Revolutionary?

A

Overthrow established order to replace it

158
Q

What is Separatists?

A

Separation is main concern

159
Q

What are Tactical Level Cellular Organization?

A

Building blocks for terrorist group

160
Q

What are common terrorist tactics?

A 
Assassination
Arson
Bombing
Kidnapping
Hijacking 
Seizure
Raids
Sabotage
161
Q

What’s the terrorist attack planning cycle?

A 
Broad target selection
Initial intel and surveillance 
Specific target selection
Pre attack surveillance and planning
Attack rehearsal 
Actions on objective
Escape and exploitation
Post attack surveillance and documentation
162
Q

Where is FWD/Port 50?

A

Forecastle port side up against super structure

163
Q

Where is FWD/STBD 50?

A

Forcastle starboard side against superstructure

164
Q

Where is the Aft Missile Deck 50?

A

Port side of aft missile deck

165
Q

Where’s the Flight Deck/Port 50?

A

Flight deck near port door

166
Q

Where is Flight/Starboard 50?

A

Flight deck near starboard door

167
Q

What’re the 3 weapons issue points?

A

Armory
SFIR
SAF/BAF

168
Q

Where is the Armory?

A

Next to EM workshop

169
Q

Where is SFIR?

A

Sonar 1 pway

170
Q

Where is SAF/BAF?

A

Aft navy cash machine

171
Q

What is the 5in called?

A

Mount 51

172
Q

What is the 5in?

A

Light weight gun

173
Q

Where are the M240s?

A

Each side of bridge wing

174
Q

What’s the max effective range of M240s?

A

Point: 800m
Area: 1800m

175
Q

What’s the max range?

A

3725m

176
Q

What’s the rate of fire for M240s?

A

650-950

177
Q

What’s hot gun for M240s?

A

200 rounds in 2mins

ESWS Flashcards (15 decks)

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