Weapons Flashcards

0
Q

What is the process for deriving weapons grade U-235

A

U-238(uranium ore) – yellowcake — converted to uranium hexafuoridengas and mechanically separated until ~90% U-235 – weapons grade U-235 isotope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What changes has happened in the US stockpile and nuke yield per weapon

A

Yield has gone up and stockpile has gone down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the process for deriving weapons grade Pu-239

A

U-238 – bombarded wit neutrons in a nuclear reactor producing Pu-239 contaminated with ever-increasing amounts of Pu-240 and Pu-241 – weapons grade Pu-239 isotope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe fission

A

The splitting of heavy nuclei

U-235 and Pu-239 fission isotope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe fusion

A

Joining of light nuclei

Deuterium and tritium isotope of hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

*How is detonation achieved with fission

A
  • the gun assembly or implosion method brings u-235 or pu-239 fissile material to supercriticality
  • neutrons are injected into the supercriticality material
  • u-235 or pu-239 undergoes a fission chain reaction
  • bomb case ruptures, nuclear detonation occurs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

*How is detonation achieved in fusion

A
  • primary fission event creates heat and pressure within the bomb case
  • heat and pressure compresses fusion secondary causing deuterium and tritium isotopes to fuse
  • deuterium and tritium fusion releases flood of neutrons causing subsequent fission

Easiest to achieve with low numbers of protons such as the isotopes of hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the thermal effects on people

A

Flash blindness

Flash burns of second degree out to 15 miles, third degree burns out to 8 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

*What are the properties of burst, in an air burst

A

Blast 50%
Thermal 35%
Initial radiation 5%
Residual radiation 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are thermal effects on structures

A

Threshold ignition of light flammable out to 10 mi

Extensive fire damage out to 8.5 mi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the effects of blast effects on people

A

Collapse lungs, rupture ear drums and smash into objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the blast effect on structures

A

concrete structures out to 5 mi, wood frame collapse out to 8 mi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

*What are the different enhanced effects of air burst, burst, and subsurface

A
  • Air burst enhances blast and thermal effects
  • Ground burst enhances nuclear radiation effects
  • subsurface burst enhances ground shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

*Describe the B61 Nuclear bomb

A

the only nuke for fighters and bomber variants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

*Describe the B83 nuclear bomb

A

a bomber weapon only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

*Describe the W80 warhead

A

Warhead for the AGM-86B Air Launched Cruise Missile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define Aspect Angle (AA)

A

Measurement from target’s tail at (0 degrees AA) and goes to attacker. Will not be more than 180 degrees from the target’s tail.
The heading of the attacker is irrelevant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

*Describe W-78 and W-87 warheads

A

Both for the ICBM Minuteman III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define Heading Crossing Angle (HCA)

A

Angular difference between target’s and attacker’s noses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define Line of Sight as it applies to Air-to-Air Missiles

A

Measured from the attack’s nose to target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the background effects of (Benign: cool background) on IR acquisition

A

No competition with target IR signal
Envelope determined by seeker sensitivity

Seen with: Blue sky, night, dark clouds, choppy water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the effects of background on (adverse: hot background) for IR acquisition

A

Competing IR sources with target signal
IR envelope determined by seeker discrimination capability and Signal to Noise ratio

Seen with: hot desert, sunlit clouds, sun, sun reflection on smooth water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define atmospheric attenuation

A

Any atmospheric condition that partially absorbs or totally blocks IR energy such as mostiure, dust, smoke, clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List and describe types of detector materials

A
Lead Sulfide (PbS)
Lead Selenide (PbSe)
Indium Antimonide (InSb)

PbS has a small area of coverage uncooled from 2 - 3
PbSe has the smallest area of coverage uncooled from 3 - 3.5
InSb has the largest area of coverage cooled from 3.5 - 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

*What is the primary purpose of a detector in an IR guided missile

A

Converts MODULATED IR energy to an electrical signal

Detectors are important because

  • wavelength = AA at which missile can be fired
  • sensitivity = lock-on range
  • missile inherits detector’s weaknesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is it important to cool the detector of an IR missile

What are the methods of cooling

A

Improves detector sensitivity, and lowers required threshold relative to background IR radiation.

Methods of cooling are Electrical, cyrogenic gas (Argon, Helium, Nitrogen).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Discuss how Amplitude Modulation (AM) Reticles work

A

Measures the amount of IR energy passing through each individual transparent spoke of the reticle.

So when target is centered in reticle all amounts of energy will be equal, but when off centered the sectors with high energy indicate the target is in that direction/sectors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

*State the primary purpose of the reticle in an IR guided missile

A

Modulate IR energy via opaque and clear tracking windows and varies output of the electrical signal sent to the GCS based upon where the IR energy hits the retical

…modulates IR energy so a detector can convert it into an electrical signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Discuss Frequency Modulation (FM) Reticle

A

Measures how much TIME IR energy spends on each individual transparent spoke of the reticle.

So the sectors with less energy indicate the target is in that direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Discuss spin scan and list their disadvantages

A

Spinning reticle/ one detector to filter out clutter

disadvantage:

  • null area in center of reticle
  • Undulating flight path
  • Vulnerable to IR jammers
  • Simple AM processor
  • Flares in FOV longer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Discuss conical scan and their advantages

A

Spinning mirror, fixed reticle one detector

Advantages:

  • More precise tracking of target
  • Seeker continuously ‘sees’ target
  • More resistant to IR jammers
  • Flares fall out of FOV quicker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Discuss Imaging Array in IR missiles

A

Focal Plane Array: thousands of detector elements

-Creates an IR picture: increased sensitivity; greater lock-on range. High resolution; robust IRCCM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List three steps of involved in IR guided missile IRCCM

A
  1. Detect
    - sharp rise in IR energy (heat/intensity)
    - sudden change in kinematics (flare falls away)
  2. Confirm
    - check increase in intensity in another IR band
  3. Counter
    - response: memmor, AGC protect, step to another techique, ability to discern two separate IR sources in the FOV.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Discuss different IRCCM techniques

A
  • small FOV: with a wide FOV missile will see flare and acft, will small FOV will only see acft.
  • Bias ahead: missile will lead acft slightly to limit ability to see flare fall away.
  • Push-pull: “pull” towards the target, “push” away from flare.
  • Sector attenuation: trailing sector is filtered out, to ignore flare.
34
Q

What are advantages of semi-active radar guidance for A-A missiles

A
  • Resistant to EA designed to deny range information
  • Can be guided almost immediately after launch - decreases min range
  • can compute its own course corrections
  • accurate a longer ranges
35
Q

*Discuss semi-active guidance for A-A guidance missiles

A

Aircraft radar tracks the target while the missile homes in on the reflected radar energy.
-Missile has a radar receiver but no transmitter

36
Q

What are disadvantages of semi-active radar guidance for A-A missiles

A
  • Requires reference Doppler be sent to the missile before launch
  • Must maintain lock onto the target doppler
  • Chaff and beam maneuvers may cause radar or missile to break lock
  • Shooter must maintain target lock throughout the missile TOF
  • Missile that requires seeker lock-on before launch limits max range
37
Q

What are advantages of Active guidance for A-A missiles

A
  • Accurate a long range; independent of TTR once missile goes active
  • Difficult to jam
  • launch and leave capability
  • allows multitargeting
38
Q

*Discuss active guidance for A-A missiles

A

Missile has its own transmit-and receive radar.
Missile contains a radar transceiver and the electronics necessary to find and track it target autonomously.
-Active only during terminal phase of flight; midcourse phase usually employs semiactive or command guidance

39
Q

What are disadvantages of Active guidance for A-A missiles

A
  • complex

- jamming against TTR may be effective prior to missile radar acquiring target

40
Q

Discuss the type of fin layouts, and what they are better for

A

Tail control: more effective at high AOA than canard control when missile is slow

Canard control: most efficient at low AOA when missile is fast

41
Q

What are the three types of missile flight profiles for pursuit course

A

Lag - missile points behind the target
Pure - missile points at the target
Lead/pro nav - missile points ahead of the

42
Q

What are the two types of A-A warheads

A

Continuous rod = expanding circle of a metal rod

Blast/Fragmentation = expanding circle of frag

43
Q

What are the factors that effect minimum range for Forward-Quarter Performance of A-A missiles

A
  • LTE delays
  • Arming delays
  • Fuzing
  • Missile maneuverability
  • Gimbal limits
44
Q

*What are the factors that effect Maximum range for Forward-Quarter Performance of A-A missiles

A
  • Detection: IR acquisition/ radar limitations
  • Moto
  • Drag
  • Guidance life (battery)
45
Q

What are the factors that effect engagements for Beam Performance of A-A missiles

A
  • Gimbal limits
  • Maneuverablity
  • Rocket motor (vectored thrust)
  • LTE delays
  • Arming delays
46
Q

What are the factors that effect Maximum range for Rear-Quarter Performance of A-A missiles

A
  • Detection
  • Motor
  • Drag
  • Guidance life
47
Q

What are the factors that effect Minimum range for Rear-Quarter Performance of A-A missiles

A
  • LTE delays
  • Fuzing
  • Missile maneuverablity
  • Gimbal limits
49
Q

*Define F-pole

A

The range from fighter to target when missile impacts target

50
Q

*Define E-pole

A

The minimum range from a threat aircraft that a drag can be accomplished to kinematically defeat any missile the bandit could have launched. synonymous with Minimum abort range (MAR)

51
Q

*Define A-pole

A

Range from the fighter to the target when active missile acquires the target with its own radar and requires no support from the launching aircraft

51
Q

What is a detonation and a deflagration

A

Detonation: supersonic propagation wave speed

Deflagration: a rapid combustion; propagation wave is less than the speed-of-sound

52
Q

*Define Minimum notch range (aka N-pole)

A

The minimum range from a threat aircraft that a notch maneuver can be accomplished.
-target can maneuver sufficiently to get into the notch before missile arrives.

53
Q

What are the three steps of the Bomb Explosive Train

A
  1. Detonator (fuze)
  2. Booster (intermediate charge)
  3. Main charge
54
Q

*What are the five High-Explosive Weapons Effects

A
  1. Blast/shock
  2. Fragmentation
  3. Cratering/ penetrate hard targets
  4. Armor penetration
  5. Incendiary
55
Q

What are characteristics of Mk-82

A
  • 500 lb GP bomb
  • Fairly good blast/frag, poor penetration/incendiary/armor pen
  • Mk-82 low-drag (slick)
  • Mk-82 high-drag (retarded)
  • Mk-82 AIR (chute)
  • Mk-62 Quickstrike (mine)
  • GBU-12/-38/-54 (guided)
56
Q

*What is the penetration ROT for the Mk-82

A

1 ft of reinforced concrete

57
Q

What are characteristics of Mk-83

A
  • 1000 lb GP
  • Mostly used by the navy
  • Mk-83 LD/HD
  • Mk-83 Quickstrike (mine)
  • GBU-32 JDAM
  • GBU-16 LGB (Navy)
58
Q

What are characteristics of Mk-84

A
  • 2000 lb GP
  • Best GP for penetration, blast, and cratering; poor incendiary and armor pen
  • Mk-84 LD/AIR
  • GBU-10,GBU-24/B (LGB)
  • GBU-31(V)1 (JDAM)
59
Q

*What is the penetration ROT for a Mk-84

A

3 ft reinforced concrete

60
Q

*What are characteristics and penetration ROT for BLU-109

A
  • Pen ROT:6 ft reinforced concrete

- 2000 lb with 535 lb explosive weight

61
Q

*What are characteristics and penetration ROT for BLU-113

A
  • > 22 ft of reinforced concrete
    -5000 lb with 625 lb explosive weight
    -
62
Q

List the four fuze function methods

A
  • Time
  • Proximity
  • Impact
  • Hydrostatic
63
Q

What is the purpose of the Mk-130 Quickstrike kit

A

Converts the Mk-82/-83 into a land or shallow water mine (water less than 100 ft)

64
Q

*What is the CBU-87 Combined effect munition (CEM) best at

A

Most versatile CBU with armor-piercing fragmentation and incendiary effects.

65
Q

*What is the CBU-89 Gator best at

A

Air-delivered minefield with counter cleanup capability

66
Q

*What is the CBU-97 Sensor Fuzed Weapon (SFW) best at

A

Capability against moving vehicles.

WCMD is CBU-105

67
Q

What are basics of AGM-65

A
  • Shaped-charge penetrator
  • 125 lb warhead, 85 lb of explosive
  • small, hard targets: tanks, armored vehicles
68
Q

What are the weapons effects of the AGM-114P-4

A

Dual warheads effective against armor

-precursor warhead to defeat explosive reactive armor, main warhead to defeat base armor.

69
Q

What are the weapons effects of the AGM-114N-4

A

Thermobaric warhead, penetration is kinetic only, detonation is blast/frag/incediary

70
Q

*What are advantages of tactical missiles (AGM-65/-114)

A

Precision accuracy
Standoff from small-arms and AAA threats
Relatively simple to use
Can hit moving targets

71
Q

What are disadvantages of tactical missiles (AGM-65/-114)

A

Weather dependant
battlefield obscurant may impede guidance
relatively small warheads

72
Q

*What are the two primary variants of Paveway II

A

GBU-12 based on Mk-82

GBU-10 based on Mk-84 or BLU-109

73
Q

What are Paveway II (GBU-12/-10) employment considerations

A
  • accurate, low collateral damage
  • easy mission planning
  • limited standoff
  • require fair weather
  • designator must support through TOF
74
Q

*What are advantages of Laser-Guided Bombs

A
Standoff from small-arms & AAA threats
Relatively simple to use
Man-in-the-loop to impact
Accurate weapon with real-time hit assessment
Can hit moving targets
75
Q

*What are disadvantages of Laser-Guided Bombs

A

Shorter standoff ranges relative to boosted weapons
Requires close-in designator support
LOS for weapon and designator must be accommadated
Weather/ battlefield obscurants may impede guidance

76
Q

*What factors determine accuracy of GPS-aided, inetrial-guided weapons

A
  • Navigation errors
  • Guidance and control errors
  • Target location errors (most signficant)
  • Accuracy of target coordinates
77
Q
  • What is the basic concept of operations of GPS-aided munitions
A

The Guidance Control Unit (GCU) provide accurate guidance in both GPS-aided INS modes of operation and INS-only modes of operation

-INS guided/ GPS aided - autonomously guided to target, guided by coupling GPS.

79
Q

*What are advantages of GPS-aided munitions

A

Standoff from small-arms, AAA, and short range SAMs
Adverse weather and battlefield obscurant possible
Multiple deliver platforms
Multiple weapons/aim points per pass

80
Q

*What are the disadvantages of GPS-aided Munitions

A

No man in the loop after release
GPS jamming may impede guidance
Cannot hit moving targets

81
Q

*List all the penetration characteristics of GP munitions

A
Mk-82 = 1 ft
Mk-84 = 3 ft
BLU-109 = 6 ft
BLU-113 = 22 ft
82
Q

*Match the three CBUs to their effects

A

CBU-87 = Combo Effect Munition (frag, blast, armor pen, incendiary)
CBU-89 - GATOR (mines)
CBU-97 - Sensor fused weapon (armor pen, moving vehicles)

83
Q

*What are the types and effects of nukes

A
  • Fission and fusion

- Thermal, blast, radiation