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CDCs > Volume 4 > Flashcards

Volume 4 Flashcards

Self Test

1
Q
  1. When a truck arrives at the receiving section, why should a spotter be available?
A
  1. To help the driver back the vehicle into position for off-loading.
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2
Q
  1. What four things need to be checked when off-loading property?
A
  1. (1) Bill of lading.
    (2) Shipping label.
    (3) Transportation control number (TCN).
    (4) Obvious damage.
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3
Q
  1. When are XB3 items turned in to the LRS?
A
  1. When the XB3 serviceable or unserviceable items have potential use or resale value.
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4
Q
  1. What form is used to process a turn-in (TIN) request?
A
  1. AF Form 2005.
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5
Q
  1. What does AFI 23–111 say about property found-on-base (FOB)?
A
  1. It requires all property found on that installation and not accounted for to be promptly recorded on the appropriate records of accountability.
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6
Q
  1. What TEX code is used to process an NF/ND equipment turn-in (TIN) found-on-base (FOB) when ownership cannot be determined?
A
  1. Plus sign (+).
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7
Q
  1. Who appoints in writing, an individual as chief inspector to oversee the COSIS program?
A
  1. LRS CC or AO.
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8
Q
  1. Who conducts an annual overall COSIS inspection for each warehouse?
A
  1. Chief inspector.
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9
Q
  1. What must be identified in writing by the chief inspector?
A
  1. Anyone authorized limited authority inspector duties.
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10
Q
  1. What inspection functions are performed by the materiel management inspector?
A
  1. Establish and maintain the final identification and classification of all property received, stored, issued, or shipped; identify property known or suspected to be damaged or to have deteriorated or corroded during use,storage, or shipment; ensure that re-inspection dates prescribed by TOs are properly computed and entered on the applicable tags or labels, or are included on the marking used in lieu of such tags and labels, to identify property received, stored, issued, and/or shipped by a supply activity; accept or reject property received on local purchase orders or contracts requiring inspection and/or acceptance at destination; ensure documentation accompanies all property received, stored, issued, and shipped by a materiel management activity as well as directed condemned property, when such action is prescribed by directives of higher authority; and establish and maintain inspection controls on materiel within the technical order compliance (TOC) category to ensure that inspection dates will permit the availability of serviceable stock.
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11
Q
  1. What three received-property factors must be verified by the materiel management inspector?
A
  1. (1) Identity
    (2) Condition.
    (3) Status.
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12
Q
  1. An item’s identity includes what three things?
A
  1. (1) Reference number (part number).
    (2) Stock number.
    (3) Item description (nomenclature).
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13
Q
  1. What factor have you defined when you decide that an item can be used for its intended purpose without any alteration or modification?
A
  1. Item status.
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14
Q
  1. What series tag is used to ensure each item is properly identified before issuance or storage?
A
  1. DD Form 1570 series.
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15
Q
  1. What condition tags are used to identify unserviceable materiel that is uneconomical to repair (condemned)?
A
  1. DD Form 1577 and 1577–1.
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16
Q
  1. What condition does a green tag identify?
A
  1. Unserviceable items that can be economically repaired or restored for use (reparable).
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17
Q
  1. List the eight entries required on the DD Form 1570 series tag.
A
  1. (1) Part number.
    (2) Stock number.
    (3) Item description.
    (4) Inspection activity.
    (5) Condition code.
    (6) Unit of issue.
    (7) Quantity.
    (8) Inspector’s name or stamp and date.
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18
Q
  1. List the three condition codes that can be used with a DD Form 1574.
A
  1. Condition codes A, B, and C.
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19
Q
  1. If an item is suspended from issue pending a condition classification, what condition tag and condition code is used to identify the item?
A
  1. DD Form 1575 with a condition code J.
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20
Q
  1. What condition code is used on a DD Form 1576 for serviceable property that requires test, alteration, modification, conversion, or disassembly?
A
  1. D.
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21
Q
  1. What circumstance requires processing a condition change input?
A
  1. Whenever property deteriorates or becomes damaged in storage.
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22
Q
  1. Which change input, transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct an identification error for serviceable items in storage?
A
  1. FCH.
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23
Q
  1. Who is the certifying official that signs the FCH documents?
A
  1. The chief of the function making the change.
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24
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the surveillance inspection program?
A
  1. To ensure that property is ready for issue and that deterioration and corrosion are controlled
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25
Q
  1. How often should you inspect storage listings and programs for compliance?
A
  1. Daily.
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26
Q
  1. What are the two primary means used to submit a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?
A
  1. ES-S SDR function and the DOD Web SDR system.
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27
Q
  1. What timeframe does the receiving activity have to submit the SDR?
A
  1. (1) Within 24 hours of discovery for controlled items.
    (2) Within 60 calendar days from date of shipment for CONUS destinations.
    (3) Within 120 calendar days from date of shipment for overseas destinations.
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28
Q
  1. When is an SDR considered closed?
A
  1. When the SDR is categorized as unresolved; the shipment appears on an ILS-S script providing shipment loss analysis, or when Part 3 of the M16, Shipment Loss Analysis Report, lists all shipments, which may be potential losses, confirmed losses, and recovered shipments., .
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29
Q
  1. What materiel management function evaluates and controls the incoming SDR program?
A
  1. The customer support function.
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30
Q
  1. What are most base-level SDRs considered?
A
  1. Outgoing SDRs.
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31
Q
  1. What are the minimum and maximum numbers of positions found in a warehouse location designator?
A
  1. No fewer than 10 and no more than 11.
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32
Q
  1. What two factors identify a stockroom?
A

.2. Stockrooms are sequenced from left to right and from front to rear; never use the letters I or O to identify a stockroom because they are easily mistaken for the numbers 1 and 0.

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33
Q
  1. How are storage levels identified and how will they be labeled?
A
  1. By a single capital letter. The letters will be placed at least every six feet along the bin row.
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34
Q
  1. What are the reasons for processing an FCS?
A

.4. To load or assign a warehouse location, change a warehouse location, and delete a warehouse location.

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35
Q
  1. Why are warehouse locations normally deleted?
A
  1. To provide new storage space.
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36
Q
  1. Why does the AF use bar coded bin labels?
A
  1. To aid in inventory and warehouse validation.
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37
Q
  1. When are reserve locations used?
A

.7. When you have an overflow of assets that can’t be stocked in the primary location, and only as a last resort.

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38
Q
  1. List the reasons for doing a warehouse location validation.
A
  1. (1) To verify that the asset is in fact stored in the warehouse location stated on the item record.
    (2) To ensure that all item records indicating a serviceable balance are assigned a warehouse location.
    (3) To identify records with duplicate warehouse locations.
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39
Q
  1. Who prepares the warehouse location validation schedule?
A
  1. Storage personnel.
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40
Q
  1. For what period of time is the warehouse location validation schedule prepared?
A
  1. Each fiscal year.
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41
Q
  1. Ideally, when should a warehouse validation be completed?
A
  1. Within 10 workdays of the start of an inventory cycle or sample inventory.
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42
Q
  1. When do you prepare the parameter input for your warehouse validation?
A
  1. One day before starting the warehouse validation.
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43
Q
  1. What corrective action do you take on a discrepancy where the NSN on the property in location does not match the NSN on the bin label and the item record is loaded?
A
  1. Process an FCS change or move the item(s) to the correct location based upon your research.
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44
Q
  1. What is the serviceable balance—no warehouse location listing (R36) used for?
A
  1. To identify items having a serviceable balance, but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a DOLT greater than three days.
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45
Q
  1. List two ways you can conserve storage space.
A
  1. Stack high as practical and compactly as possible.
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46
Q
  1. Explain what honeycombing is.
A
  1. Storing or removing items in a way that creates unusable areas of storage space in a stack.
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47
Q
  1. What system of storage ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
A
  1. FIFO.
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48
Q
  1. What must warehouse personnel ensure is in place prior to storing property?
A
  1. All condition, identification, and hazardous tags/labels are in place on items.
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49
Q
  1. Which warehouse change is used to indicate that an item in storage has deteriorated or become damaged?
A
  1. FCC.
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50
Q
  1. Which warehouse change document is processed if the inspector determines that an item in storage has been misidentified by the manufacturer?
A
  1. FCH.
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51
Q
  1. Which warehouse change document identifies a unit of issue change to an item?
A
  1. FCU.
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52
Q
  1. Which warehouse change document may be output when, due to a change in the controlled item code (CIC), an item must be relocated to a more secure area?
A
  1. 1SC.
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53
Q
  1. What steps should you take when selecting an item for issue?
A
  1. Ensure the bin label matches the information on the issue document. Ensure the NSN and the unit of issue on the property tag/label are correct. Select the oldest dated item in the location. Select the quantity required on the issue document. Sign and date the issue document.
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54
Q
  1. How many copies of DD Form 1348–1A are produced for shipments and transfers?
A
  1. Three warehouse copies and three transportation copies
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55
Q
  1. What is a transfer and what are the types of transfers?
A
  1. Movement of materiel to DLADS; directed and nondirected.
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56
Q
  1. What TRIC is used to transfer an item to DLADS?
A
  1. TRM.
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57
Q
  1. What code printed on the transfer document is used to decide whether or not demilitarization (DEMIL) is required and what method to use?
A
  1. DEMIL code.
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58
Q
  1. What is a warehouse refusal?
A
  1. When a needed issue item is not found in the location, or when the quantity needed is not sufficient to fill the request.
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59
Q
  1. Define covered storage.
A
  1. Storage space within any roofed structure.
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60
Q
  1. What is the most common warehouse facility found throughout the AF?
A
  1. General-purpose storage warehouse.
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61
Q
  1. What is the temperature range of a refrigerated chill space in a storage warehouse?
A
  1. 32–50 °F (0 - 10 °C).
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62
Q
  1. Define an open storage area.
A
  1. An open area designed for storing items that do not require protection from the weather.
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63
Q
  1. What are the two types of open storage areas?
A
  1. Improved and unimproved.
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64
Q
  1. What serves to define and protect an open storage area?
A
  1. A perimeter fence with a main gate serves as protection for the items stored and provides boundary limits that define the storage area.
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65
Q
  1. What is the basic resource of any materiel management distribution operation?
A
  1. Storage space.
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66
Q
  1. What factor is particularly important in planning aisle placement in a warehouse?
A
  1. The location of structural columns.
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67
Q
  1. What type of warehouse area should be kept to a minimum to increase storage efficiency and space utilization?
A
  1. Work areas.
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68
Q
  1. When items with similar handling requirements are stored together, what storage factor is being observed?
A
  1. Item similarity.
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69
Q
  1. What storage factor encourages slower moving items to be placed farther away from active stock processing areas?
A
  1. Item popularity.
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70
Q
  1. What publication can be used as a guide to identify potentially hazardous items?
A
  1. Federal Standard 313.
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71
Q
  1. How are potential health-hazard item records marked?
A
  1. IEX code 9, or HHF.
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72
Q
  1. An IEX code 9 is assigned to what type of item?
A
  1. Serious-health-hazard items.
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73
Q
  1. What is the purpose of an HHF?
A
  1. It eliminates repetitive initial reviews of the same item and ensures all items in the categories identified in the health-hazard publications have been screened, identified, and controlled.
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74
Q
  1. What information does an SDS provide?
A
  1. It identifies the hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product.
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75
Q
  1. Who determines which IEX code or flag should be loaded on the item record?
A
  1. BES.
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76
Q
  1. How should corrosives be stored?
A
  1. On pallets compatible with the materiel being stored.
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77
Q
  1. What type of acids must be stored under automatic water sprinklers?
A
  1. Organic.
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78
Q
  1. What is the principle hazard from storing closed flammable containers?
A
  1. The rupture of the containers due to increased pressure when they are exposed to fire.
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79
Q
  1. What is the proper way of storing aerosol cans and why?
A
  1. In a room separate from other flammables, if space permits. A barrier should separate aerosol cans from other flammables. When exposed to heat, aerosol cans are capable of becoming self-propelled projectiles and airborne sources of ignition.
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80
Q
  1. Why is outside storage of flammable liquid products in metal drums not recommended?
A
  1. Because pressure buildup in the drums due to thermal loading from the sun and the likelihood of subsequent rupture or drum failure due to corrosion or handling. This could create a significant spill containment and environmental hazard.
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81
Q
  1. What are low-risk acids and pesticides, poisons, petroleum products, and certain batteries examples of?
A
  1. Low-hazard items.
82
Q
  1. What should storage personnel be alert for when performing routine storage area surveillance?
A
  1. For expired shelf-life dates or for inspection/test dates that have passed.
83
Q
  1. How frequently should the storage conditions of chemical and petroleum products be inspected?
A
  1. Monthly.
84
Q
  1. For how long are completed chemical monthly inspection checklists maintained?
A
  1. Minimum of 1 year.
85
Q
  1. What governs the testing of aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils?
A
  1. Retest-cycle dates.
86
Q
  1. What is the goal of the ESSOH–MIS?
A
  1. Manage, track, and report HAZMAT usage by ensuring only authorized personnel are allowed to order and receive HAZMAT.
87
Q
  1. What is the responsibility of all organizations that have excess serviceable shelf-life hazardous materials (HAZMAT)?
A
  1. To TIN the unused quantity to the HAZMAT pharmacy.
88
Q
  1. Why does the HAZMAT pharmacy review residual materiel upon receiving a new requirement for HAZMAT?
A
  1. For possible free issue instead of placing a demand on supply.
89
Q
  1. What are the storage requirements for Top Secret materiel?
A
  1. A class A vault is required under the control of the designated primary or subordinate Top Secret control officer. The area must be controlled and alarmed.
90
Q
  1. What are the storage requirements for Secret and Confidential materiel?
A
  1. Must be stored in a class B vault or secure storage area. Storage areas must meet the supplemental safeguards outlined by local authorities.
91
Q
  1. Where are precious metals stored?
A
  1. In a security cage.
92
Q
  1. How often are the keys and locks audited when padlocks are used to store classified materiel?
A
  1. Each month.
93
Q
  1. How often are combinations changed when padlocks are used to store classified materiel?
A
  1. When a combination is placed in use, when an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access, when the combination has been subject to possible compromise, at least annually, and when taken out of use.
94
Q
  1. What is the purpose of SF 702, Security Container Check Sheet?
A
  1. To show the location of the container and the names, home addresses, and home telephone numbers of the individuals having knowledge of the combination.
95
Q
  1. How are unit packs marked for ESD?
A
  1. With a electronic sensitive device (ESD) unit pack label on the identification marking side of the unit pack.
96
Q
  1. How many yellow caution labels must be placed on each exterior container for an ESD item when the container exceeds one-half cubic foot?
A
  1. Two 4×4 inch labels.
97
Q
  1. What type cargo code identifies an ESD item?
A
  1. Type cargo code 3.
98
Q
  1. If an ESD asset is on a detail record, what action is taken to process it to a maintenance function for testing?
A
  1. Using TRIC MSI and activity code C.
99
Q
  1. If required, where can an ESD item unit pack be opened?
A
  1. In an ESD protective area.
100
Q
  1. What are the two categories of functional check assets?
A
  1. (1) Assets, other than buildup items, that require extensive functional check after issue for installation.
    (2) Assets identified by an inspector whose serviceability may be doubtful, due to apparent mishandling while in stock or being dropped.
101
Q
  1. Who is designated to act as the maintenance contact point for functional check items?
A
  1. An individual jointly agreed on by the AO and the chief of maintenance.
102
Q
  1. How does a supply inspector process an item to an organization for functional check?
A
  1. By processing a C activity code ISU to the organization and shop.
103
Q
  1. Adequate proof of a functional check of an item is provided by the stamp or signature of which person?
A
  1. The base maintenance inspector.
104
Q
  1. How often must a functional check listing be run?
A
  1. At least semiannually.
105
Q
  1. Describe what a type I and type II shelf-life code is.
A
  1. Type I alpha codes are used for items with a definite nonextendable shelf life. Type II numeric codes are for items with a shelf life that can be extended after completion of inspection, test, or restorative action.
106
Q
  1. How many days prior to the expiration date are type II shelf-life items scheduled for serviceability testing?
A
  1. 15−45 days.
107
Q
  1. When an item is destroyed as a result of testing, what action do you take?
A
  1. Process a TIN with supply condition code H and action taken code 9.
108
Q
  1. Define an item that is suspect or unsuitable for AF use.
A
  1. Items that, if used before inspection for verification of serviceability, could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment.
109
Q
  1. How is a suspect item flagged on the item record?
A
  1. By processing an FCD input with suspect materiel flag S.
110
Q
  1. How are customers notified of possible suspect items?
A
  1. By daily bulletins, newsletters, or phone calls.
111
Q
  1. What management notice is output when a receipt or TIN is processed against a stock number that is coded as a suspect item?
A
  1. I302 management notice.
112
Q
  1. What can minimize the presence of counterfeit and discrepant materiel?
A
  1. Prevention and early detection procedures
113
Q
  1. To which program is discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel submitted for review?
A
  1. Joint Discrepancy Reporting System (JDRS)
114
Q
  1. Who ensures the warranty or guarantee is valid and applicable to the asset in their possession?
A
  1. A materiel management inspector.
115
Q
  1. What information must be annotated on the receiving document for warranty and guarantee items?
A
  1. Model, serial number, manufacturer’s name and address, and any other data required locally
116
Q
  1. What code is assigned to the item record of any warranty or guarantee item received?
A
  1. IEX code B.
117
Q
  1. How are aircraft tires stored?
A
  1. In a cool, dry warehouse that is protected from sunlight.
118
Q
  1. How are unserviceable items stored?
A
  1. In a totally separate area from serviceable items. They will be tagged with the appropriate unserviceable tag and have a handwritten bin label identifying the location.
119
Q
  1. How are WCDO items stored?
A
  1. Using normal considerations for shelf life, HAZMAT, and flammable materiel.
120
Q
  1. List the different types of inventories.
A
  1. (1) Complete.
    (2) Sample.
    (3) Special.
    (4) In-use/in-place equipment.
121
Q
  1. What is the purpose of an inventory schedule?
A
  1. To ensure all assigned locations and details are inventoried at their prescribed frequency.
122
Q
  1. What is the inventory deadline date?
A
  1. The date on which the inventory count begins.
123
Q
  1. Within what period should all transactions applicable to locations scheduled for inventory be processed?
A
  1. At least one day before the inventory deadline date.
124
Q
  1. As a minimum, what information should be included on the recap sheet?
A
  1. TRIC, stock number, warehouse location, quantity, document number, and system designator.
125
Q
  1. Count records are written for what type of item records?
A
  1. Those with a serviceable balance and a warehouse location within the parameters of the request.
126
Q
  1. What program writes inventory count records to a data base file and assigns freeze code C to all item records within the input parameter?
A
  1. R12.
127
Q
  1. What does the computer R12 program compare internally upon the input of the count images?
A
  1. Physical count quantity and record balance.
128
Q
  1. What is produced when the CIC input count quantity is unequal to the item record balance?
A
  1. An inventory recount image.
129
Q
  1. What product do you use to reconcile recap sheets after the completion of the inventory to verify emergency issues were processed?
A
  1. D04
130
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the 365-day inventory request?
A
  1. To identify items not inventoried during the regularly scheduled inventories.
131
Q
  1. What freeze code is assigned to the item record for special inventories?
A
  1. Freeze code I.
132
Q
  1. How is a freeze code assigned when an insufficient balance for a degraded-operations issue transaction is detected?
A
  1. Automatically by in-line programs.
133
Q
  1. To manually request a special inventory, what document is prepared by the requesting activity?
A
  1. Special inventory request (1GP).
134
Q
  1. What input removes freeze code I?
A
  1. Special inventory count (IRC).
135
Q
  1. When is a physical recount performed on an inventory discrepancy?
A
  1. Always.
136
Q
  1. What action must be performed before automatic adjustments to inventory discrepancies occur?
A
  1. Physical inventory recount.
137
Q
  1. What is the criterion for an automatic adjustment after a physical inventory recount?
A
  1. Type account code B, controlled item code (CIC) U, and total adjusted dollar value is less than $100 for pilferable items and $1,000 for unclassified items.
138
Q
  1. What are the four categories of inventory discrepancies?
A
  1. (1) Resolved discrepancies.
    (2) Unresolved discrepancies that do not meet criteria for further research.
    (3) Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates no personal responsibility.
    (4) Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates evidence of personal responsibility.
139
Q
  1. When performing inventory research, why do you review the serviceable balance–no warehouse location listing?
A
  1. To see if a different warehouse location was assigned.
140
Q
  1. When researching an inventory shortage discrepancy, how far back do you go from the current date?
A
  1. Go back to the last item record zero balance. If the error is not detected at this point and it is determined that more research is needed, continue back one year, or to the last inventory adjustment, or to the previous numeric DOLI.
141
Q
  1. What transaction adjusts the record balance and updates the applicable inventory accuracy records for a complete inventory?
A
  1. An IRC.
142
Q
  1. What type of item requires support documentation?
A
  1. Inventory adjustments that don’t meet the automatic adjustment criteria.
143
Q
  1. What is a report of survey (ROS)?
A
  1. An official report of the facts and circumstances supporting the assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of AF property and serves as the basis for the government’s claim for restitution.
144
Q
  1. When is a financial liability officer appointed?

Answers

A
  1. Only when the initial investigation results are insufficient to make a determination of whether or not negligence or abuse was the proximate cause of the loss, damage, or destruction of government property.
145
Q
  1. What must the ERRCD be for items assigned to a bench stock?
A
  1. XB3.
146
Q
  1. What does the master bench stock detail record identify?
A
  1. Each item on a bench stock.
147
Q
  1. What TRIC is used to process requests for bench stock issues through customer service?
A
  1. 1BS.
148
Q
  1. What TRIC is used to change the authorization or delete a bench stock item?
A
  1. 2BS.
149
Q
  1. When should a bench stock have an MRA or an MAQ requirements flag?
A
  1. When items are placed on bench stock that are not supported by past demands.
150
Q
  1. What code can be used to protect a temporary large quantity of bench stock items from disposition?
A
  1. An excess exception code.
151
Q
  1. When are quantity changes recommended during a review?
A
  1. Only when there are substantial changes in consumption patterns.
152
Q
  1. Who has the final say as to whether an item is deleted or not?
A
  1. The using activity.
153
Q
  1. What action is taken when an item doesn’t have an MRA, but the organization representative feels it should not be deleted?
A
  1. The item is extended until the next review.
154
Q
  1. How many bench stock review phases are there?
A
  1. Three.
155
Q
  1. What listing is used to accomplish the monthly recommended additions, changes, and deletions in the phase I review?
A
  1. The M04.
156
Q
  1. When a phase II, semiannual bench stock review is conducted, within what time frame must the review be accomplished?
A
  1. Within one workweek.
157
Q
  1. At a minimum, how often must SDR data and MRA levels be validated?
A
  1. Annually.
158
Q
  1. Which materiel handling principle provides the greatest economy in the movement of materiel?
A
  1. The least handling is the best handling.
159
Q
  1. Which principle seeks to reduce the time required to travel a given distance?
A
  1. Straight-line flow.
160
Q
  1. Which materiel handling principle results in reducing the costs of operation (i.e., the simplification of maintenance, repair, storage, and issue procedures)?
A
  1. Standardized equipment.
161
Q
  1. What problems can occur if you exceed rated equipment capacities?
A
  1. Excessive wear and tear on the equipment and increased accident potential.
162
Q
  1. What type of warehouse storage system includes many types of general-purpose racks, shelves, and bins?
A
  1. SAS.
163
Q
  1. Whose responsibility is it to ensure a repair cycle item is returned in a reusable container?
A
  1. Maintenance activity.
164
Q
  1. What category of reusable containers has an exterior container usually made of metal, plastic, or synthetic materials?
A
  1. Long life.
165
Q
  1. What category of reusable containers should survive at least 10 round trips, and are usually made of plywood, wood, or fiberboard?
A
  1. Short life.
166
Q
  1. Define NWRM.
A
  1. Classified or unclassified assemblies and subassemblies (containing no fissionable or fusionable materiel) identified by the military departments (MILDEP) that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon (including equivalent training devices) as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle.
167
Q
  1. What is the primary reference used for NWRM?
A
  1. CJCSI 3150.04B.
168
Q
  1. Define classified property.
A
  1. Materiel that requires protection in the interest of national security.
169
Q
  1. What must the management environment demand to achieve positive inventory control of NWRM?
A
  1. A management environment must ensure each item is identified, accounted for, secured, segregated, and/or handled in a manner to ensure its safeguarding and integrity at all times.
170
Q
  1. What AFI directs AF organizations to designate formally, in writing; personnel authorized to accept controlled materiel?
A
  1. AFI 31–404.
171
Q
  1. Who is responsible for training personnel that will handle controlled materiel?
A
  1. LRS chief inspector.
172
Q
  1. How often are code components inventoried as designated in STRATCOM guidance?
A
  1. At 15, 30, and/or 90 days intervals.
173
Q
  1. How are copies of source documents for classified items marked?
A
  1. In red ink with the words “Classified Item.” It can be stamped or handwritten.
174
Q
  1. For controlled, sensitive, classified and pilferable items, where are shipping documentation placed?
A
  1. Inside all containers rather than on the outside.
175
Q
  1. What is used to maintain custodial accountability?
A
  1. DD Form 1907 or carrier furnished document.
176
Q
  1. Who is responsible for the health of assigned threat reduction items to meet mission requirements?
A
  1. Item manager (IM).
177
Q
  1. Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?
A
  1. AFMC item management team.
178
Q
  1. GATES users can generate reports at what levels?
A
  1. HQ and unit levels.
179
Q
  1. What information is used to query GATES?
A
  1. Passenger name, aircraft tail number, transportation control number (TCN), pallet ID, or mission number.
180
Q
  1. The Asset Management system uses which type of automated software to provide materiel management personnel with: (1) a reduction in data entry errors, (2) an increase in the timeliness of the data flow to and from the Materiel Management System, and (3) real-time access to asset information?
A
  1. Automated input technology (AIT).
181
Q
  1. What function in ES–S is available to users who want to update their customer records?
A
  1. Maintain customer function.
182
Q
  1. What report displays all items not pulled, based on user-selected criteria?
A
  1. Items not pulled.
183
Q
  1. To pull the items not received, by customer report or really any report, what is the first thing you need to do at the ES-S home page?
A
  1. Select the asset management (AM) drop-down menu.
184
Q
  1. What type of selection data is used to filter what is displayed on the items not received report?
A
  1. By SRAN and any of the following combinations: TRIC, priority, NWRM only, stock number, document number, created date/time (range), or warehouse location (range).
185
Q
  1. List the ES-S AM report categories.
A
  1. All open records, creation to delivery times, customer validation, inactive customers, items delivered, items not pulled, items not put away, items not received, items put away, and TCNs received.
186
Q
  1. What ES-S component provides the capability to view assets across the logistics chain community?
A
  1. Enterprise asset visibility (EAV).
187
Q
  1. What is the minimum and maximum DODACCs that can be searched when using the filter by DODAAC?
A
  1. One, up to twenty.
188
Q
  1. In what three legacy programs does ES-S provide the capability to query and view orders?
A

. Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K.

189
Q
  1. What are the three sections of the order selection page?
A
  1. Data source, search value, and DODAAC.
190
Q
  1. What allows the search to be tailored to filter returned records?
A
  1. DODAAC
191
Q
  1. When viewing the order list page, what are the order details based on?
A
  1. Primary selection criteria
192
Q
  1. What function enables you to efficiently query transaction information for internal and external audits?
A
  1. Audit data query.
193
Q
  1. When using the audit data query function, how does entering multiple key fields affect your results?
A
  1. The more key fields entered, the narrower the search results will be.
194
Q
  1. The D035E computes user stock levels for what types of items?
A
  1. ERRCD XD.
195
Q
  1. What provides stock number transaction history and an interrogation capability to display this history?
A
  1. Recoverable Assembly Management Process System (RAMPS).
196
Q
  1. What provides a single, online interface to multiple logistics information systems managed by the DOD and GSA?
A
  1. Logistics information network (LINK).
197
Q
  1. What is DLA’s materiel management system?
A
  1. Standard Automated Materiel Management System (SAMMS).
198
Q
  1. What system provides transactional information to VLIPS?
A
  1. Defense Automated Addressing System (DAAS).
199
Q
  1. What is the primary role of SIFS?
A
  1. To dispatch incoming and outgoing data images for each supply account.
200
Q
  1. What provide users with the capability to re-direct specified TRICs or program images to another file?
A
  1. SIFS user files.
201
Q
  1. What is the purpose of SIFS residue files?
A
  1. SIFS residue files are designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images cannot be identified or dispatched.
202
Q
  1. What is the goal for LIMS–EV?
A
  1. Achieve enterprise views and enterprise interoperability and eliminate stovepipe capabilities that drive users to multiple systems

CDCs (12 decks)

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