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CDCs > Volume 3 URE > Flashcards

Volume 3 URE Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (401) Where are the equipment requests forwarded after being reviewed and validated by the
    equipment accountability element (EAE)?
    a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock
    Control Activity.
    b. AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity.
    c. AFMC.
    d. Major command (MAJCOM).
A

b. AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity.

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2
Q
  1. (401) The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between the
    a. equipment accountability element (EAE) and organization commanders.
    b. previous custodian and equipment management element (EME).
    c. organization commanders and the previous custodian.
    d. accountable officer and organization commanders.
A

a. equipment accountability element (EAE) and organization commanders.

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3
Q
  1. (402) What is used to determine which equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase
    and maintain?
    a. Allowance standard (AS) and basis of issue (BOI).
    b. Property accountability.
    c. AS and configuration data.
    d. BOI.
A

c. AS and configuration data

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4
Q
  1. (402) Which item describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force activities and
    individuals normally require to carry out their mission?
    a. Configuration data.
    b. Allowance standards (AS).
    c. Authorization details.
    d. Equipment management codes (EMC).
A

b. Allowance standards (AS).

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5
Q
  1. (402) What element within an allowance standard (AS) establishes the number of items that can be
    issued to an individual, activity, or military organization?
    a. AS.
    b. Authorization.
    c. BOI.
    d. Unit of issue.
A

c. BOI.

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6
Q
  1. (402) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies nonequipment
    authorization inventory data (non-EAID) equipment items?
    a. NF1.
    b. ND1.
    c. XB3.
    d. XD2.
A

a. NF1.

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7
Q
  1. (402) Which Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standard (AS) or to
    request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code (ASC)?
    a. 600.
    b. 601.
    c. 2001.
    d. 2005.
A

b. 601.

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8
Q
  1. (402) Which Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) computer screen provides an
    automated method for submitting and evaluating allowance change requests?
    a. CA/CRL.
    b. ERRCD.
    c. TACR.
    d. EAID.
A

c. TACR.

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9
Q
  1. (402) Which FCI format within the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) is used to
    load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details?
    a. 4.
    b. 3.
    c. 2.
    d. 1.
A

d. 1.

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10
Q 
10. (403) Which turn-in method to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) is used to process the turnin
before picking up the property?
a. Directed.
b. Automatic.
c. Degraded operations.
d. Pre-degraded operations.
A

d. Pre-degraded operations

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11
Q
  1. (403) Which activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data (non-
    EAID) equipment turn-ins to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)?
    a. E.
    b. P.
    c. R.
    d. X.
A

b. P.

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12
Q 
12. (403) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer equipment from one
custodian account to another?
a. FIC.
b. FIS.
c. FET.
d. FEX.
A

c. FET.

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13
Q 
13. (404) Which management listing helps ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained
within prescribed allowances?
a. Equipment out-of-balance listing.
b. Allowance source code (ASC) listing.
c. Document control register.
d. Stock number directory.
A

b. Allowance source code (ASC) listing

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14
Q
  1. (404) Which management listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?
    a. Q10.
    b. Q09.
    c. M14.
    d. D04.
A

a. Q10.

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15
Q
  1. (404) Which management listing provides visibility for high dollar value non-equipment
    authorization inventory data (non-EAID) items?
    a. R15, Organizational visibility listing.
    b. Q09, Allowance source code listing (ASC).
    c. Q10, Equipment-out-of-balance listing.
    d. R14, Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL).
A

a. R15, Organizational visibility listing.

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16
Q
  1. (404) Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the
    Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns?
    a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
    b. Combat Supplies Management System.
    c. Item Unique Identification (IUID).
    d. Bare Base System.
A

c. Item Unique Identification (IUID)

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17
Q
  1. (404) Who mandated the Item Unique Identification (IUID) compliance process for equipment
    assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000?
    a. Major command (MAJCOM).
    b. Department of Defense (DOD).
    c. Headquarters Air Force (HQ AF).
    d. Command equipment management office (CEMO).
A

b. Department of Defense (DOD).

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18
Q 
18. (404) Equipment accountability element (EAE) personnel use which method to conduct physical
inventories?
a. Sample.
b. Partial.
c. Floor to book.
d. Floor to warehouse.
A

c. Floor to book.

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19
Q
  1. (404) Who ensures chief financial officer (CFO) data is loaded in the applicable Materiel
    Management information technology system?
    a. Quality assurance.
    b. Major command (MAJCOM).
    c. Equipment accountability element (EAE).
    d. Command equipment management office (CEMO).
A

c. Equipment accountability element (EAE).

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20
Q
  1. (404) Which system is used to report any equipment item exceeding $100,000?
    a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
    b. Combat Supplies Management System.
    c. Item Unique Identification (IUID).
    d. Bare Base System.
A

a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS)

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21
Q
  1. (405) Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset categories are
    defined in the –21 technical order (TO)?
    a. Maintenance protection equipment.
    b. Crew and passenger support (CPS) equipment.
    c. Alternate mission equipment (AME) and CPS equipment.
    d. Maintenance and safety protection (MSP) equipment, AME, and CPS equipment.
A

d. Maintenance and safety protection (MSP) equipment, AME, and CPS equipment.

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22
Q 
22. (405) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a special-purpose recoverables
authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?
a. 1XA.
b. 1WD.
c. 1UB.
d. 1BS.
A

a. 1XA.

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23
Q
  1. (405) Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for
    organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?
    a. D04.
    b. M10.
    c. R25.
    d. R43.
A

b. M10.

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24
Q 
24. (406) How often must you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner
Robins Air Logistics Complex (WR-ALC)?
a. Weekly.
b. Monthly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.
A

d. Annually.

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25
Q
  1. (407) Who works hand-in-hand with the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) to support mission
    requirements?
    a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock
    Control Activity.
    b. AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity.
    c. Air Combat Command (ACC).
    d. Mission Support Group (MSG).
A

a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock
Control Activity.

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26
Q
  1. (407) Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate for the current and past four quarters?
    a. Demand level.
    b. Daily demand rate (DDR).
    c. Repair cycle quantity (RCQ).
    d. Average percent of base repair (PBR).
A

d. Average percent of base repair (PBR).

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27
Q 
27. (407) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on
order to sustain current operations?
a. Economic order quantity (EOQ).
b. Condemned quantity (NCQ).
c. Requisition objective (RO).
d. Safety-level quantity (SLQ).
A

c. Requisition objective (RO)

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28
Q
  1. (407) Which stock leveling term identifies quantities required to be on hand to permit continuous
    operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or unpredictable increases in
    demands?
    a. Safety level quantity (SLQ).
    b. Repair cycle quantity (RCQ).
    c. Economic order quantity (EOQ).
    d. Order and shipping time quantity (O&STQ).
A

a. Safety level quantity (SLQ).

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29
Q
  1. (407) What must be established anytime stock is authorized for nonexpendable (equipment)
    items?
    a. Safety level.
    b. Adjusted level.
    c. Economic order quantity (EOQ).
    d. Order and shipping time quantity (O&STQ).
A

b. Adjusted level.

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30
Q 
30. (408) When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should
be used?
a. D.
b. C.
c. B.
d. A.
A

d. A.

31
Q
  1. (408) Which type of adjusted stock level (ASL) is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning
    objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns?
    a. Fixed.
    b. Special.
    c. Minimum.
    d. Maximum.
A

c. Minimum.

32
Q 
32. (408) Which materiel management system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock
levels (ASL)?
a. R26.
b. R35.
c. R43.
d. R45.
A

b. R35

33
Q
  1. (408) Which stock level is derived from a mathematical technique used to determine the lowest
    total variable costs to order and hold inventory?
    a. Economic order quantity (EOQ).
    b. Repair cycle quantity (RCQ).
    c. Requisition objective (RO).
    d. Reorder level (ROL).
A

a. Economic order quantity (EOQ)

34
Q 
34. (409) Which materiel management system listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based
level (RBL) misallocation?
a. R35.
b. R39.
c. R43.
d.R47
A

d.R47

35
Q
  1. (409) Which technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and locate assets?
    a. Total asset visibility (TAV).
    b. Readiness-based levels (RBL).
    c. Radio frequency identification (RFID).
    d. Customer oriented leveling technique.
A

c. Radio frequency identification (RFID).

36
Q
  1. (409) What process has the overall goal to have the capability to provide users with timely and
    accurate information on the location, movement, status, and identity of units, personnel,
    equipment, materiel, and supplies?
    a. Customer oriented leveling technique.
    b. Proactive demand leveling.
    c. Readiness-based level (RBL).
    d. Total asset visibility (TAV).
A

d. Total asset visibility (TAV).

37
Q
  1. (410) What document identification code (DIC) indicates a denial to a redistribution order (RDO)
    sent by Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item managers (IM)?
    a. B7*.
    b. BLO.
    c. FTR.
    d. RDO.
A

d. RDO.

38
Q
  1. (410) Which shipment exception (SEX) code is used for do not ship—assets frozen?
    a. A.
    b. 1.
    c. 2.
    d 3
A

b. 1.

39
Q
  1. (411) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a special requisition (SPR)?
    a. DOR.
    b. ISU.
    c. SPR.
    d. TRM.
A

c. SPR.

40
Q
  1. (411) Program control uses which system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?
    a. Integrated Maintenance Data System—Central Database (IMDS CDB).
    b. Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program.
    c. Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP).
    d. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).
A

d. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).

41
Q
  1. (411) Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in detail is established
    after being requisitioned?
    a. Item manager (IM).
    b. Requisitioning activity.
    c. Major command (MAJCOM).
    d. Headquarter United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
A

b. Requisitioning activity.

42
Q
  1. (411) What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition?
    a. Service.
    b. Type account.
    c. Address code.
    d. Serial number.
A

c. Address code.

43
Q
  1. (411) How often are requisition exception (REX) codes reviewed and validated?
    a. Monthly.
    b. Quarterly.
    c. Semiannually.
    d. Annual.
A

c. Semiannually.

44
Q
  1. (411) Which requisition exception (REX) code is assigned under program control due to military
    standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status?
    a. 1.
    b. 4.
    c. 5.
    d. A.
A

a. 1.

45
Q 
45. (412) Which code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply (SOS) has
cancelled a requisition?
a. SPC 5.
b. SPC 1.
c. REX 5.
d. REX 1.
A

d. REX 1.

46
Q
  1. (412) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status
    results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply
    source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?
    a. Positive.
    b. Cancellation.
    c. Exception/other.
    d. In transit/shipped.
A

c. Exception/other

47
Q
  1. (413) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to request an improved estimated
    availability date or estimated shipment date for priority 01–08 requisitions?
    a. AFC.
    b. ISU.
    c. SPR.
    d. TRM.
A

a. AFC.

48
Q
  1. (413) What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that AFC action was taken to
    request improved status on a requisition?
    a. A.
    b. C.
    c. F.
    d. R.
A

b. C.

49
Q
  1. (413) Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items is reported on Air Force Form
    a. 1230.
    b. 1250.
    c. 1530.
    d. 1667.
A

d. 1667.

50
Q
  1. (413) Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many calendar days?
    a. 3.
    b. 7.
    c. 10.
    d. 15.
A

d. 15.

51
Q
  1. (414) Which listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?
    a. D18 and R01.
    b. Q12 and R01.
    c. Q12 and M37.
    d. M37 and D18.
A

a. D18 and R01

52
Q
  1. (414) How often are urgency of need (UND) C due-outs validated?
    a. Daily.
    b. Weekly.
    c. Monthly.
    d. Quarterly.
A

d. Quarterly.

53
Q 
53. (414) Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on retail materiel
management system due-in details?
a. Due-in/due-out (DIT).
b. Due-out release (DOR).
c. Turn-in to supply.
d. Receipt.
A

a. Due-in/due-out (DIT).

54
Q 
54. (414) What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by
off-line action?
a. BS.
b. CA.
c. ZC.
d. ZD.
A

c. ZC.

55
Q
  1. (414) How many days will local purchase (LP) items appear on the listing after the vendor bill is
    received and processed for billed-not-received (BNR) transactions?
    a. 5.
    b. 7.
    c. 10.
    d. 30.
A

b. 7.

56
Q
  1. (414) Which detail is created by the materiel management system whenever a referral order is
    honored and a credit is given to the shipping base?
    a. Due-in.
    b. Billed-not-received (BNR).
    c. Received-not-billed (RNB).
    d. Shipped-not-credited (SNC).
A

d. Shipped-not-credited (SNC).

57
Q
  1. (415) Which interactive query screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS)
    provides the option to select more or less information to include in a search?
    a. Commercial and government entity (CAGE) code search.
    b. Part number search.
    c. Item name search.
    d. Search Selection Menu.
A

d. Search Selection Menu.

58
Q
  1. (415) Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) allows users
    to locate manufacturer names for the code entered?
    a. CAGE.
    b. Part number.
    c. Stock number.
    d. Output selection.
A

a. CAGE.

59
Q
  1. (415) Which system provides Air Force personnel with on-line cataloging, standardization, and
    other logistics management data for Air Force-managed or user items?
    a. D043A.
    b. Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S).
    c. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
    d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
A

a. D043A.

60
Q
  1. (416) Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPB) are normally identified and published in
    a. figure and index.
    b. model number and series.
    c. –4 series of technical orders (TO).
    d. –7 series of TOs.
A

c. –4 series of technical orders (TO)

61
Q 
61. (416) Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides a sequential listing of all
part numbers appearing in the IPB
a. Group assembly parts list.
b. Next higher assembly (NHA) list.
c. Numerical index.
d. Introduction.
A

c. Numerical index.

62
Q
  1. (417) The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL input establishes what type of record(s)?
    a. Repair cycle record only.
    b. Item record only.
    c. Repair cycle and constant records.
    d. Item and repair cycle records.
A

d. Item and repair cycle records

63
Q
  1. (417) An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an
    expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator?
    a. D.
    b. E.
    c. N.
    d. X.
A

d. X.

64
Q
  1. (417) What transaction identification code (TRIC) establishes the part number record?
    a. FIL or 1AA.
    b. FIC or 1AA.
    c. FIL or FCU.
    d. FIC or FCU.
A

a. FIL or 1AA.

65
Q
  1. (417) What purpose does the part number detail record serve?
    a. Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file.
    b. Eliminates searches in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS).
    c. Provides a record of past part number requirements.
    d. Provides manual research capability.
A

a. Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file.

66
Q 
66. (417) What noncataloged (NC) number position indicates which Air Logistics Complex (ALC)
assigned the number?
a. Position 6.
b. Position 7.
c. Position 8.
d. Position 9.
A

b. Position 7.

67
Q
  1. (418) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change the stock number;
    expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD), equipment management
    code (EMC), routing identifier (RID), and budget code on the item record?
    a. FCU.
    b. FIC.
    c. FID.
    d. FNL.
A

b. FIC

68
Q 
68. (418) What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the
item record?
a. 18.
b. 24.
c. 32.
d. 48.
A

c. 32

69
Q
  1. (418) For internal records, what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit
    of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields?
    a. FCU.
    b. FIC.
    c. FID.
    d. FNL.
A

a. FCU.

70
Q
  1. (419) What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG) information?
    a. D143B.
    b. D043B.
    c. D071.
    d. C001.
A

b. D043B.

71
Q
  1. (419) Which code identifies the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution
    grouping (I&SG) are substituted or issued?
    a. Subgroup.
    b. Order of use.
    c. Issue exception.
    d. Parts preference.
A

b. Order of use

72
Q
  1. (419) What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load, change, or delete
    interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items?
    a. FCU.
    b. FID.
    c. FIS.
    d. FIX.
A

c. FIS

73
Q
  1. (419) Who must justify in writing the request to load, change, or delete interchangeable and
    substitution group (I&SG) items?
    a. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
    b. Major command (MAJCOM).
    c. Item manager (IM).
    d. Using activity.
A

d. Using activity.

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