Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CDCs > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

Self Tests

1
Q

What AFI publication describes the general duties and responsibilites for material managment?

A

AFI 36-2101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the seven general duties and responsibilities of a materiel management specialist as they are outlinded in the enlisted classification publication?

A

Inspect and evaluate inventory managment activites
Performe administratve and managment functions
Provide support to maintencane activities
Issue, ship, and transfer property
Inspec and identify property
Performer technical material functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which program promotes a better understanding of the whole supply system?

A

Logistics career broading program, Also know as the wholesale logistics program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What rank is required to qualify for the Logistics Career Broading program?

A

Technical or Master Sergeant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who handles all enlinsted issues for a MAJCOM for the 2S career field?

A

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who chairs the AFMMCAB and is keu to the education and training path of our enlisted force?

A

The CFM (Careeer Field Manager)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is eLog21?

A

Air Force transformation campain plan to improve logistics to meet both current and future threat enviroment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the goal of Integrated Processes?

A

To deliver the right support, to the right place, at the right time, everytime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which source of supply is responsible for the cradle to grave managment of every Air Force weapon sysytem?`

A

AFMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are the three ALCs located?

A

Odgend
Warner robins
Oklahoma City

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which agency has responsibility for providing supply throughout the DOD?

A

DLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of products does GSA provide?

A

Office supplies, hand tools, paints etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define local manufacture?

A

Made by the base manufacture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a GPC?

A

Goverment Purchase Card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define CRF?

A

Gives maintenance options ranging from complete decentralization to centralization of repair functions in single facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who do DMS personnel notify when DIFM asset turn-in times exceed requirements outlined in AFI23-101?

A

AMU (Aircraft Maintenance Unit) leadership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The RNI process is governed by which two references?

A

AFI 20-117 repair network intergration

AFMAN 20-118 repair network intergration procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define SCOR model?

A

Describes buisness activities associated with all phases of satisfying a customers demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the functional flight in LRS?

A

Fuels
Vehicle
Deployement and Distrobution
Materiel Managment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many organizations make up the AFSC?

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the AFIMSCs mission?

A

To sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for america.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which PSUs are the foundation of the AFIMSC?

A

Air Force Civil Engineer Center
Air Force Financial Services Center
Air Force Installation Contracting Agency
Air Force Security Forces Center
Air Force Financial Managment Center of the Expertise
Air Force Services Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List the four materiel managment major processes?

A

Item Accounting
File Maintence
Reports
Accounting and Finance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested to include interchangeables and substitutes?

A

Due-Out Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What four types fo transactions activate the DOR process?

A

Input of receipt
A return
A new Item inclueded in an interchangeable family of items
Adjustmen transaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the 11 major processes maintenance function?

A 
Status
Follow up
Inventory 
Special Level
Equipment in use
New item record load
Mission change special level
Miscellaneous file maintence 
SNUD
I and SG
MRSP and MSK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Whar are the Five different types of reports?

A 
Daily
Montly
As required
Utility
Quarterly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What major processes are involved in the A&F process?

A

Requistioning and Status
Reciepts
Order and return
File maintence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the purpose of the DODM 4140.01?

A

To implement requirements and procedure for DOD material managers and others and to work within or with DOD supply systyem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What four functional areas does DLM 4000.25 prescribe responsibilities and procedures to conduct logistics operations?

A

Supply, acquistion, maintenance and finance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the first step to retrieve AFI 23-101 from the web?

A

Go to air force e-bublilshing website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-122?

A

Find tool, table of contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What research tool allows you to type in the word or phrase when researching a document withing AFH23-123?

A

Find tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an NSN?

A

National Stock Number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What two entities make up the NSN?

A

FSC and NIIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the four major types of computer inquiries?

A

Item
Detail
Part Number
Other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be “read out” for a specific DN?

A

Detail Record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?

A

M32, Monthly base supply manangment report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of codes are used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?

A

Record Retriveal Codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What information is shown on line one (1) of an inquiry output?

A

Image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In what format is the information on an inquiry out put displayed?

A

Narrative

42
Q

What information is provided from a part number inquiry?

A

NSN, Cage, To

43
Q

Which record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle date?

A

5

44
Q

What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given SN?

A

R

45
Q

How far back canusers query CTH records?

A

One year or more at a time

46
Q

What are the three CTH inquiry input formats?

A

SN
Transaction seriel number
Batch miscellaneous

47
Q

What three elements make up a reject phrase?

A

A reject code
A descriptive phrase
An action flag

48
Q

When you recieve a reject, what should you do first?

A

Insure you input the datat correctly

49
Q

What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear reject?

A

AFI23-123 part 2, Volume 2, Chapter 7

50
Q

What is the difference between a reject and a management notice?

A

Manamgment notice do not stop computer processing

51
Q

Within what timeframe should all rejects be processed?

A

One work day

52
Q

What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

A

D818 ( cumulative reject suspense listing)

53
Q

Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force-delete a reject image?

A

Option 3

54
Q

Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure forced deleteions of rejects are processed for valid reasons only?

A

Flight Chief

55
Q

Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing and the volume and reasons for forced deletion processing?

A

To determine the effectivinesss of transaction processing

56
Q

What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICS?

A

Control- requires authorization

Uncontrolled-requires no authorization

57
Q

Who determines which transactions can be processed within the flights?

A

Flight Chiefs

58
Q

What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?

A

301 reject notice

59
Q

Which product does the manamgement and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRIC porcessing?

A

Base supply surveillance report (D20, part 8)

60
Q

Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production scheduler?

A

By the 15th workday of the same month

61
Q

Which formis used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?

A

2011

62
Q

Explain the concept of SMAG-R?

A

A revolving fund ( or WCF) that is established through an act of congress

63
Q

Under what operating principle is the SMAG-R designed to operate?

A

On a no-profit/no-loss basis

64
Q

How many divisions make up the SMAG-R?

A 
Army
Navy
Air Force
Marine Corps 
DLA
65
Q

What type of items is the CSAG-S primarily responsible for?

A

Air Force managed depot-level reparable spares and consumable spares unique to the air force

66
Q

What information is provided to LRS leadership through the QA program?

A

An assesment of the units ability to performe key logistics processes ensuring standardized, repeatable, technically compliant process execution, while promoting a culture of professional excellence and personal, responsibility.

67
Q

How is the self-inspection program conducted and performed?

A

Conducted according to local guidelines

Performed using established check lists for each area

68
Q

What is the purpose of a customer support visit?

A

To evaluate how well materiel management is doing

69
Q

Who is responsible for submitting controlling, and monitoring DIREPs?

A

AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity is responsible for submitting, controlling and montoring DIREPs

70
Q

List the four DIREP catergories?

A

I- Major Impact
II- Severe Problem
III- Chronic Problem
IV- Cosmetic Error

71
Q

What category DIREP is normally corrected immediately?

A

I-Major Impact

72
Q

What personnel are recommended to submit a throughly researched and documented DIREP?

A
  • The User

- The automated data processing equipment (ADPE)

73
Q

What is the analysis progaram is designed to do?

A

Determine the effectiveness of the materiel managment account

74
Q

What are the three types of analysis?

A

Trend
Problem
Special Studies

75
Q

What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement or to solve a specific problem?

A

Special Studies

76
Q

Define the term “managment indicator”

A

Performance measures that represent a key result, and are selected for managment control

77
Q

What is mandatory after an assessment and there are deviations or deficiencies due to lack of job proficiency, training, and compliance with technical data or instruction?

A

reviewing training requirements

78
Q

What program is used to pass analyzed information to the commander?

A

Materiel management analysis program

79
Q

How do you performe a QC Check?

A

By comparing the source document with the DCR

80
Q

What information on source documents must be compatible with the DCR for QC?

A 
DN
SN
Quantity
Unit of Issue
System designator
81
Q

What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filled? Destroyed?

A

F=Filable

D=Destroyable

82
Q

What is your first step if a document is still missing after it appears on three daily listing?

A

Contact the section responsible for the document to obtain status

83
Q

What is the final step in resolving a delinquent document?

A

Conduct search in your workspace for original document.

84
Q

How long does document control maintain a copy of the DO4 on disk?

A

For two years to provide historical feeder information fo accounting transactions.

85
Q

What product is used as an historical document showing the status of the materiel management system database after establishing a new materiel management account?

A

Conversion Audit list (R22)

86
Q

How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file?

A

Two years

87
Q

How is the Shipment Loss Analysis (M16) filed?

A

By fiscal year.

88
Q

Within what period must the M10 be filed?

A

Within 30 days of the date it was prepared.

89
Q

What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?

A

To ensure an item has been shipped.

90
Q

When is a shipment-suspense detail created?

A

When shipments and transfers process through the LRS.

91
Q

What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail?

A

To provide a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the
computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments.

92
Q

Without CMOS, what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail?

A

TRIC SSC.

93
Q

How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS
interface?

A

By electronic interface with the Traffic Management Flight

94
Q

What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?

A

R40.

95
Q

What elements are responsible for processing record reversal inputs?

A

Document control, repair cycle support, inventory, and customer service.

96
Q

What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a
record reversal?

A

The activity finding the error.

97
Q

What is the purpose of processing a freeze code Q to the item record?

A

Prevents further transaction processing against the item record during the time you are researching and
preparing input for the record reversal action.

98
Q

What transactions may be reversed using automated record reversal procedures?

A

Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records.

99
Q

What information is required to process an automated record reversal?

A

TTPC, date, and serial number of the transaction being reversed.

100
Q

What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated record reversal screen before input?

A

Review for accuracy.

CDCs (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions