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CDCs > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

Self Tests

1
Q

What methods are used for submitting supply requests?

A

Hand carried; mailed; or transmitted by radio, telephone, terminal, or e-mail.

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2
Q

What submission point is used to process expedite order requests?

A

Customer support function.

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3
Q

How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for order requests?

A

Two copies

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4
Q

What methods are available for determining the next available serial number to use on an orderrequest?

A

Copy two of the AF Form 2005 or pre-serialized numbered AF Forms 2005.

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5
Q

What additional information is required on a part number request if the supply system requiredpart number is unknown?

A

TO data or other appropriate reference.

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6
Q

What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated UNDs and UJCs?

A

Effective reduction of UMMIPS violations and the costs of priority requirements.

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7
Q

What management notice reflects the quantity issued, killed, or due out?

A

I004

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8
Q

What management notice reflects due-out requisitioning action taken on an order request?

A

I005.

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9
Q

What management notice is provided for all part number requests that cannot be converted toNSNs under program control?

A

I007.

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10
Q

What management notice reflects the total base asset position of a killed request?

A

I023

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11
Q

What benefit does the IMDS CDB/materiel management system interface provide maintenance personnel?

A

The capability to order parts, retrieve current status, cancel their own requirements, and review canceledrequirements.

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12
Q

What activity code identifies issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System?

A

J

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13
Q

What management notification does the materiel management system output to notify the IMDS CDB system of a change in status to a maintenance due-out?

A

1SH

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14
Q

What happens when the materiel management system detects an error in a transaction sent by IMDS CDB?

A

The image is returned to the IMDS CDB input terminal along with the applicable reject notice.

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15
Q

What ERRCDs identify repair cycle assets?

A

XD or XF.

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16
Q

When does the repair cycle of a malfunctioning asset begin and end?

A

It normally begins with the item’s removal from the end item and is followed by a replacement request tobase supply. It normally ends when the original item is turned in as repaired, NRTS, or condemned

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17
Q

When is a DIFM detail established?

A

When a repair cycle asset has been issued or backordered as a replacement.

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18
Q

DIFM status flags identify different types of DIFM details. What are the flags for each of the following DIFM details?

a. Firm.
b. Memo.
c. Credit.

A

A.. 0
B. 1
C 2

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19
Q

How are DFM change inputs used?

A

To update the status and location fields on the DIFM detail record.

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20
Q

In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested?

A

One

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21
Q

What must you load to the item record to allow multiple quantities of DIFM items to process?

A

Multiple DIFM flag.

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22
Q

What listing is used to perform the DIFM reconciliation?

A

D23.

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23
Q

What is the purpose of the D23?

A

.To monitor status and maintain visibility of DIFM assets

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24
Q

What purpose does the D19 serve?

A

To provide a listing of AWP due-outs, due-ins, and status detail records. It also provides financial data formaintenance managers to make repair decisions.

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25
Q

What action do you take for items appearing in the D20?

A

Ensure all initial issues are validated with a letter of justification or exception.

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26
Q

TCTO items are modified to the extent that their form, fit, or function is changed. How is this TCTO item identified on the item record?

A

With NPPC 4.

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27
Q

How are items requiring TCTO action, where modification will not require re-identification to a new NSN, identified on the item record?

A

.By assignment of a TCTO flag.

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28
Q

Why does the inspector prepare an inquiry of all item records and detail records for the listedstock numbers on a TCTO?

A

To find out the total number of assets to be modified.

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29
Q

What information must be annotated on the cover letter to maintenance quality control?

A

List by stock number the total number of spares on hand that require modification.

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30
Q

How often should you conduct an inspection of on-the-shelf TCTO items assigned either NPPC 4or the TCTO flag?

A

Monthly.

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31
Q

What action must the inspector take when an item is received and they cannot determine if TCTOactions have been done?

A

Issue the item to the maintenance function for the necessary inspection or test.

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32
Q

What document must accompany DIFM items when they are returned to the LRS?

A

An AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, a condition tag, and the issue (ISU) or due-outrelease (DOR) document.

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33
Q

What form will be used in preparation for turn-in?

A

AF Form 2005, Turn-In Request.

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34
Q

What happens to ERRCD XF assets when they are turned in condemned?

A

Transfer the item to DLADS.

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35
Q

Time change managers will coordinate with maintenance and maintain supporting documentationin accordance with what standard?

A

AFI 21–101 and TO 00–20–9.

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36
Q

How long will FSC maintain all documentation that pertains to time change items?

A

.One year.

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37
Q

When are FSC personnel required to match each line item on the DIFM listing to items in theDIFM monitor’s possession?

A

During time change reconciliation.

38
Q

Why is it important to process TRN data?

A

Because it generates base stock levels and provides information to HQ AFMC from which buy, repair, anddistribution decisions are made.

39
Q

What data are updated by processing a maintenance turnaround record update?

A

Demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record.

40
Q

What is the source of data for TRN processing?

A

Part II of the AFTO Form 350 from the maintenance activity.

41
Q

How long are unserviceable assets stored?

A

Until disposition instructions are received.

42
Q

What is the benefit of separate storage of assets?

A

To prevent an unserviceable item from being issued as serviceable when it’s not.

43
Q

What TRICs are processed once disposition instructions are received?

A

SHP, TRM or MSI.

44
Q

Establishing a supply point is a coordinated effort between maintenance and the LRS. What arethe functions of maintenance in this operation?

A

To provide sufficient space and facilities for accommodating the supply point.

45
Q

When can EOQ items be stocked in a supply point?

A

When approved by the materiel management flight commander.

46
Q

What input is used to load, change, or delete a supply point detail?

A

FSP

47
Q

What organization code identifies a supply point transaction?

A

005

48
Q

What TRIC is used to load the storage location on a supply point detail?

A

FSP

49
Q

With what activity code, organization code, and demand code are requests for transfer submitted?

A

S; 005; N.

50
Q

What term describes how items are issued from a supply point?

A

Over-the-counter.

51
Q

What TRIC is used to issue an item from a supply point detail?

A

MSI.

52
Q

What do you do to issue an item from a supply point detail with no replenishment action?

A

Use TEX code F on the MSI request.

53
Q

What is the purpose of the supply point serial numbered log?

A

To assign sequential serial numbers to the document number date field of each supply point issue. Thisallows multiple issues of a single DIFM item during one day’s processing.

54
Q

How often are supply point assets reconciled?

A

At least semiannually.

55
Q

What listing is used to reconcile supply point assets?

A

Supply Point Listing (Q13)

56
Q

When are issues (TRIC ISU) processed during the supply point reconciliation?

A

When the total on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity

57
Q

How are balance discrepancies reconciled?

A

Using special inventory procedures.

58
Q

What is the support period of an MRSP?

A

60 days.

59
Q

Which type of RSP is used to support an organization in-place for the first 30 days of wartimeoperation?

A

IRSP

60
Q

What record must be loaded prior to processing RSP authorization input records?

A

Serial number/control record—TRIC 1EB.

61
Q

What program is used to perform reconciliation between XVF records and base level WRMauthorizations?

A

S05

62
Q

What is the purpose for care of supplies in storage (COSIS)?

A

Shelf life controls and other inspection functions established for like peacetime assets applied to RSP items.

63
Q

How are issues to an MRSP processed?

A

TRIC ISU, activity code U.

64
Q

What TRIC is used to issue assets from an MRSP?

A

TRIC MSI.

65
Q

What action occurs if you use TRIC TEX code F on an MSI transaction?

A

Prevents automatic replenishment.

66
Q

What involves the permanent movement of assets from home station to a forward location or basewith the host base AO assuming accountability?

A

Transfer

67
Q

Who must make the decision to transfer MRSP accountability?

A

MAJCOM.

68
Q

What is the primary function of PC-ASM?

A

Logistics.

69
Q

Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingencyplanning, assessment, and deployment operations?

A

Readiness

70
Q

What is a UTC?

A

A five-character alphanumeric code that identifies an armed forces unit.

71
Q

What is used to measure readiness?

A

ART.

72
Q

What is the DRRS?

A

It is a single automated reporting system within the DOD functioning as the central registry of alloperational units in the US Armed Forces and designated foreign organizations.

73
Q

What identifies a materiel management UTC?

A

The letters “JFB” in the first three positions

74
Q

Why are extra controls necessary for small arms?

A

To prevent their losses

75
Q

What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for weapons?

A

The serial number of the weapon involved.

76
Q

What factors determine the type of bag issued to an individual for deployment?

A

The reason for the deployment and the deployment location.

77
Q

Which bag contains general-support items?

A

A.

78
Q

Which bag contains CBRNE?

A

C.

79
Q

What program is used to manage mobility bags?

A

ES-S Mobility.

80
Q

What entity in the AFSC is responsible for MICAP management?

A

AFMC SCM-R Weapon Support Activity.

81
Q

How is a MICAP due-out established?

A

TRIC ISU with MICAP flag N and the appropriate MICAP UJC.

82
Q

What UND codes reflect a MICAP requirement?

A

1, J, or /.

83
Q

What code on the MICAP report identifies the reason for the out-of-stock condition that made theMICAP request necessary?

A

Cause code.

84
Q

How is the MICAP cause code assigned on the MICAP report?

A

Automatically under program control.

85
Q

What information should you always be aware of regarding MICAP requirements?

A

Current status.

86
Q

What is the purpose of a MICAP delete code?

A

To identify the reason for termination of a MICAP condition.

87
Q

What MICAP delete code indicates error reporting?

A

9.

88
Q

What purpose do MICAP reports (B9*) serve?

A

To report the initiation, change, or termination of a MICAP condition.

89
Q

How does MICAP reporting take place?

A

Automatically with the output of B9* images during on-line processing.

90
Q

When is MICAP reporting initiated?

A

When a due-in is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a MICAP condition or when anexisting requisition is upgraded to a MICAP condition.

91
Q

When is MICAP reporting terminated?

A

At the time of a due-out release, downgrade to a non-MICAP condition, or cancellation.

CDCs (12 decks)

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