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CDCs > Volume 3 > Flashcards

Volume 3 Flashcards

Self Test

1
Q

What is an AS?

A

A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by Air Force activities
and individuals to carry out the mission.

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2
Q

What is a BOI?

A

The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military
organization.

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3
Q

Where can you find ASs?

A

Through online query screens in AFEMS (C001).

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4
Q

What code tells you if an equipment item is an EAID item?

A

EMC.

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5
Q

How are non-EAID items identified?

A

By EMC 1 (ERRCD NF1).

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6
Q

What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or
below?

A

AF Form 2005

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7
Q

What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment ASs?

A

AF Form 601

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8
Q

When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601
requiring higher than base-level approval?

A

When the request is against the same ASC and the background and justification for all the items are the
same.

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9
Q

What AFEMS (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request?

A

TACR

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10
Q

List the four situations when you would not input a 601 request into AFEMS (C001).

A

EOD items, special weapons, multiple items, or if it contains classified information.

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11
Q

What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details?

A

To control and account for EAID equipment from the time of issue to turn-in.

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12
Q

What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete EAID records?

A

FCI.

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13
Q

What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?

A

1.

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14
Q

What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins?

A

Degraded and pre-degraded operations.

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15
Q

Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN after picking up the property?

A

Degraded operations

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16
Q

How are non-EAID items turned in?

A

On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code P.

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17
Q

How are EAID turn-ins processed?

A

On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code E.

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18
Q

What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?

A

FET

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19
Q

What does the gaining base process to receive the shipment and establish an on-hand quantity and
detail to obtain accountability?

A

FED.

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20
Q

What listing provides the capability to ensure equipment authorizations are maintained within
prescribed allowances?

A

ASC listing (Q09).

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21
Q

What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use
and due-out quantities?

A

Out-of-balance conditions.

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL?

A

Serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian.

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23
Q

What does a CA/CRL jacket folder consist of normally?

A

Current CA/CRL and custodian appointment letter to that particular account.

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24
Q

Who may sign for equipment items?

A

Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander.

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25
Q

Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets?

A

XD/XF

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26
Q

What TRIC is used to load a special-purpose asset detail record?

A

1XA

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27
Q

What product is used to inventory SPRAM assets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by
the custodian?

A

SPRAM report listing (R25).

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28
Q

What CICs are used to identify weapons?

A

CICs N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8.

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29
Q

How are COMSEC items identified on the item record?

A

SRC of C and MMCs of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR or CY.

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30
Q

How often must you reconcile weapons and COMSEC detail records?

A

Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for COMSEC (15 March and 15 September).

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31
Q

What product is used for weapons or COMSEC reconciliation?

A

Weapon/COMSEC reconciliation (R46).

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32
Q

What are the key responsibilities of stock control?

A

Stockage policy and managing requisitions

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33
Q

What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?

A

Average PBR

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34
Q

What term defines the average quantity used daily?

A

DDR

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35
Q

What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?

A

Demand level.

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36
Q

What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock
replenishment requisitions?

A

O&ST.

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37
Q

What term represents that number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair
cycle?

A

RCQ

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38
Q

What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor
interruptions of normal replenishment?

A

SLQ

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39
Q

What type of minimum ASL has a reorder point one-third the ASL quantity?

A

Type level A.

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40
Q

Which minimum ASLs are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the
total minimum level?

A

Type levels A and B.

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41
Q

What type of ASL restricts stockage?

A

Maximum ASL.

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42
Q

What type of ASL should you establish for seasonal items?

A

Maximum, type level D.

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43
Q

What type of ASL maintains an item’s stockage position at a constant level?

A

Adjusted fixed level.

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44
Q

Which form is used to request an ASL? How many copies are needed?

A

AF Form 1996. Two (2) copies

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45
Q

What type detail is used to control and manage ASLs?

A

L type ASL details.

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46
Q

How often are ASLs validated?

A

At least every two years

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47
Q

What product is used to review and validate ASLs?

A

Program R35.

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48
Q

What action occurs during the review of an ASL?

A

The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original
justification

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49
Q

What action occurs during the validation of ASLs?

A

Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for
each level is still valid.

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50
Q

How often are RBLs updated?

A

Quarterly.

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51
Q

By what DIC are RBLs received at each base?

A

DIC XCA

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52
Q

What are two instances when an RBL may be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?

A

1) When there is an insufficient worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level.
(2) When the base’s minimum/fixed level is not registered in the D035 system.

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53
Q

On 22 June 12, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these
before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the RDO is input?

A

An RDO denial (DIC B7*) is produced.

54
Q

What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?

A

Nondirected redistribution

55
Q

What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment?

A

Nondirected, special

56
Q

What RICs are used on lateral support shipments?

A

JLS or D**.

57
Q

What is a transfer?

A

It is the movement of materiel to the DLADS.

58
Q

What are SEX codes used for?

A

To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping
action has been taken.

59
Q

What are the two main types of requisitions?

A

Automatic and special

60
Q

What does the term MILSTRIP stand for?

A

MILSTRIPs.

61
Q

What is the purpose of MILSTRIP?

A

Provides a standard method of requisitioning supplies from the SOS.

62
Q

What agencies are required to use MILSTRIP procedures?

A

All branches of the Service.

63
Q

Normally, in what format are requisitions submitted to the SOS?

A

DIC AO*.

64
Q

When does the materiel management system identify and requisition stock replenishment
requirements?

A

When items have an asset position down to or below its ROL.

65
Q

What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position?

A

Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions

66
Q

What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

A

9000–9899.

67
Q

What is the purpose of UMMIPS?

A

Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance.

68
Q

What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the SOS?

A

FAD and UND.

69
Q

In what format is requisition status received?

A

Supply or shipment (AE/AS or AU*).

70
Q

What is the consequence of not processing status immediately?

A

You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations
and billings.

71
Q

What are the different types of MILSTRIP status?

A

Positive supply status, cancellations, in transit/shipped, and exception/other

72
Q

What status type has the worst effect on an account?

A

Cancellation

73
Q

What REX code is used to indicate a requisition was cancelled from the SOS?

A

REX 1.

74
Q

What status types are generated by program control at base level?

A

Cancellation requests and follow-up.

75
Q

When is follow-up action initiated?

A

When supply status information is overdue or the EDD has passed.

76
Q

When 100-percent status is required for a priority 03 requisition, when is an in-line follow-up
performed?

A

Four days after the requisition date

77
Q

Within what period must ARC images be worked before another is output?

A

Five days.

78
Q

What are supply difficulties?

A

Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that cannot be corrected locally and can ultimately affect
the operational capability of the base or unit involved.

79
Q

How are supply difficulties reported?

A

AF Form 1667, message, or e-mail

80
Q

Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days?

A

Seven

81
Q

How often is a due-out review conducted?

A

On a daily basis for UND A and on a weekly basis for UND A and B due-outs.

82
Q

Which listing may be used instead of the D18 in performance of due-out review?

A

R01.

83
Q

How often are priority due-outs validated?

A

Monthly.

84
Q

What are the two methods of releasing due-outs?

A

Automatically and forced.

85
Q

What three TRICs may be used to force release a due-out?

A

DOR, REC, TIN

86
Q

What TEX code is used in a DOR input to force release a due-out?

A

TEX 3.

87
Q

What TRIC is used to process a due-out cancellation?

A

DOC.

88
Q

What does review code I indicate on a due-out cancellation input?

A

That stock control has reviewed the cancellation input

89
Q

What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?

A

Equipment Management

90
Q

What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request?

A

Either confirm the cancellation or furnish shipping status

91
Q

What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control?

A

ZC, ZD.

92
Q

For BNR transactions, LP items will appear on the listing after how many days once the vendor
bill is received and processed?

A

7 days

93
Q

What is created whenever a referral order is honored, and credit is given to the shipping base?

A

Shipped not credited (SNC) details

94
Q

Which data screen displays information for Identification Data, MOE Rule Coded Data, Ref/PN
Data, Management Data, Phrase Data, Freight Data, and Decoded Characteristics Data?

A

Output Selection Views

95
Q

What system is an official Air Force source for obtaining supply and cataloging management
data?

A

The D043A system

96
Q

What is the purpose of the D043A system?

A

To provide Air Force personnel with online cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management
data for Air Force-managed or user items

97
Q

How are IPBs normally identified and published?

A

Dash four (–4) series of TOs

98
Q

IPBs are normally broken down into what three sections?

A

Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numerical index

99
Q

How are next higher assemblies determined in the TO system?

A

The indent dot system

100
Q

What is the source code for part number 53–39303–99?

A

P2.

101
Q

What is the NHA for figure and index number 2–9–12?

A

Bell crank assembly, main landing gear shrink LH.

102
Q

What is the volume, figure, and index number for part number 53–39307–3?

A

1–35–40

103
Q

What code provides maintenance activities with repair-level responsibilities, support methods,
and disposition instructions?

A

SMR code

104
Q

What TO reference lists SMR codes and provides a complete explanation of each?

A

TO 00–25–195

105
Q

What TRIC is used to load a new stock number?

A

TRIC FIL.

106
Q

What records are established by processing a FIL input?

A

Item record and repair cycle record

107
Q

What does the first position of an ERRCD signify?

A

The expendability of an item of supply

108
Q

How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records?

A

Until they are issued for use.

109
Q

What does the second position of an ERRCD signify?

A

It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair

110
Q

Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded?

A

TRIC FIL/1AA.

111
Q

Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded?

A

TRIC FIL/1AA.

112
Q

Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it?

A

Because the part number cannot be edited under program control

113
Q

What is an NC number?

A

NC stock numbers are numbers assigned by an ALC IM pending assignment of an NSN

114
Q

What does position 7 of an NC number indicate?

A

It identifies the ALC assigning the NC number

115
Q

What input is used to change the stock number, ERRCD, EMC, RID, and budget code?

A

FIC

116
Q

Stock number changes are made normally as a result of what conditions?

A

AF Form 86 action, stock list changes, or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs.

117
Q

Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge.

A

A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the materiel management system
database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is loaded in the materiel
management system database

118
Q

What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and
the DEMIL code?

A

FNL.

119
Q

The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters?

A

32

120
Q

What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?

A

FCU.

121
Q

How are the two types of deletes processed?

A

Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing

122
Q

What is an I&SG?

A

A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional
performance.

123
Q

Information on I&SGs are provided by what system?

A

D043B.

124
Q

Which subgroup within I&SG is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD?

A

AA

125
Q

How was the order of use system designed?

A

To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used

126
Q

What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base-level I&SG?

A

24

127
Q

What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular
uses or under certain conditions?

A

S.

128
Q

What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete an I&SG?

A

FIS

129
Q

Who must sign the justification letter to request a local I&SG relationship?

A

Operations or logistics commander (or the designated representative).

130
Q

How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users?

A

Research the consolidated transaction history register for the past 6 months and look for issues/due-outs

CDCs (12 decks)

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