Volume 2-UR Flashcards

1
Q

which property of metal do you not want to increase through alloying? (A) Strength (B) Elasticity (C) Hardness (D) Toughness

A

B. elasticity

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2
Q

the physical structure of metal is in what form?

A

crystalline

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3
Q

the process of improving a metal’s characteristics by altering its grain structure is known as ….

A

heat-treating

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4
Q

what is a reaction to an applied force called?

A

Strain

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5
Q

The term for a metal’s ability to absorb energy without fracturing is ….

A

toughness

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6
Q

Which metallurgical numbering system uses the identification of steel as its basis?

A

Society of Automotive Engineers

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7
Q

The term NDI indication refers to …

A

evidence resulting from a rocess

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8
Q

which of the following is not an inherent discontinuity? (A) Lap (B) Pipe (C) Porosity (D) Shrinkage

A

A. Lap

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9
Q

A secondary processing defect would not be cause by … (A) heat-treating (B) machining (C) grinding (D) casting

A

D. casting

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10
Q

Which statement is most accurate regarding fatigue crack progression? (A) progression causes stress (B) Progression rates will vary (C) Progression is usually slow (D) Progression is instantaneous

A

B. progression rates will vary

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11
Q

What form of corrosion is indicated by a white or gray powdery deposit on the surface of a part?

A

pitting

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12
Q

Stress corrosion is caused by …

A

tensile stress and corrosion

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13
Q

The two basic processes used to weld parts together are …

A

adhesion and fusion

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14
Q

Which of the following is not listed as being linked in the probability of detection (POD) evaluation process? (A) Aircraft design engineers (B) NDI flight line technicians (C) DOD JOAP office manager (D) AF structural integrity engineers

A

C. DOD JOAP office manager

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a result of improper part preparation for NDI? (A) harm to the part (B) hazardous residues (C) hidden critical defects (D) Contaminated NDI materials

A

B. hazardous residues

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16
Q
which condition is not an example of a tightly held soil?
(A) partially burned petroleum products
(B) residue from evaporated fuel
(C) Dry film lubricants
(D) Viscous oils
A

D. Viscous Oils

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17
Q

You ensure that all penetrant developer residue is removed from a part because the penetrant ….

A

may cause corrosion

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18
Q
which of the following is not an action of an alkaline cleaner?
(A) Wetting
(B) Dissolving
(C) Penetrating
(D) Emulsifying
A

B. Dissolving

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19
Q

One characteristic of a detergent cleaner is that it must be …

A

noncorrosive

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20
Q

where would you find pre-cleaning procedures in a -36 inspection technical order?

A

preparation of part

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21
Q

What should you do with steel parts after post cleaning with a solvent?

A

Treat them with light oil

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22
Q

NDI techniques are classified as …

A

instructions

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23
Q

Which form do you sue to submit your new NDI technique for review and publication?

A

AFTO Form 242

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24
Q

Who validates new NDI techniques and acts to incorporate them into applicable technical manuals?

A

ALC NDI program managers

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25
Q

What must be accomplished on a stereo zoom microscope whenever operators change?

A

initial focusing

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26
Q

What is engraved on stereo zoom microscope lenses, eyepieces, and the zoom control knob?

A

initial magnification ratings

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27
Q

What instrument is used to transmit light in a curved path?

A

fiberscope

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28
Q

what do you use to clean optical lenses that have protective coating?

A

water

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29
Q

Eyepieces for the stereo zoom microscope and stored …

A

on the power body

30
Q

penetrants need to have good solvent properties in order to …

A

hold dyes in solution

31
Q

What generates forces to draw a penetrant into fine cracks?

A

capillary action

32
Q

What is a Type I penetrant process?

A

Fluorescent dye materials

33
Q

What is a Method C penetrant inspection?

A

solvent removable

34
Q

what is the term for suing family groups of penetrant materials from the same manufacturer?

A

System concept

35
Q

What is the concentration range of spray remover-to-water by volume in hydrophilic penetrant systems?

A

1.0 to 5.0 percent

36
Q

In the hydrophilic process, the water pressure range for the rinse step after remover application is 10 to

A

35 psi

37
Q

What should you wear in case you mistakenly press the penetrant spray nozzle with the opening pointing back at you?

A

chemical goggles

38
Q

What is the difference between small, medium, and large fluorescent penetrant inspection units?

A

the size of the parts they can accommodate

39
Q

A black light bulb can reach an operating temperature of …

A

750 degrees Fahrenheit

40
Q

How much excess surface penetrant is removed during the pre-rinse step in hydrophilic processing?

A

over 80 percent

41
Q

at what distance and angle do you spray water at a surface to remove penetrant during hydrophilic processing?

A

12 inches at 45 degrees

42
Q

What must you do before applying non-aqueous developer?
(A) vigorously sake the can
(B) Stir the developer solution
(C) check the developer for clumping
(D) verify the developer concentration level

A

A.Vigorously shake the can

43
Q

Which of the following is considered a defect?
(A) a detrimental relevant indication
(B) A nondetrimental relevant indication
(C) A detrimental nonrelevant indication
(D) A nondetrimental nonrelevant indication

A

A. a detrimental relevant indication

44
Q

Penetrant materials not centrally procured will be accepted and used when …

A

the system performance test and material test report are satisfactory

45
Q

What is the maximum interval for performing in-use penetrant materials testing?

A

Monthly

46
Q
Which test is not a method of testing initial concentrations of hydrophilic removers?
(A) Brightness test
(B) Colorimetry test
(C) Refractometer Test
(D) Specific Gravity test
A

A. Brightness test

47
Q

When checking in-use remover performance, how long and at what angle do you let test panels dwell with penetrant?

A

10 minutes at 60 degrees

48
Q

Which step in the hydrophilic inspection process requires that agitation not be excessive?

A

Removal by immersion

49
Q

What is the unit of measure of current?

A

Ampere

50
Q

What is one line of magnetic force called?

A

Maxwell

51
Q

What do you call the number of lines of magnetic force per square centimeter in a plane perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field?

A

Flux density

52
Q

The ease with which a metal can be magnetized is known as ____________.

A

permeability

53
Q

What is the term for the amount of magnetizing force necessary to reduce flux density to zero in a saturated part?

A

Coercive force

54
Q

Magnetic particle inspection is possible because iron particles are attracted to _______ ______.

A

leakage fields

55
Q

Dry particles are primarily used when inspecting for __________ _______

A

subsurface defects

56
Q

In which method are magnetic particles applied to a part after the magnetizing current is turned off?

A

wet or dry residual

57
Q

Which magnetic field is produced with a head shot?

A

circular field

58
Q

A portable yoke produces what type of magnetic field?

A

longitudinal field

59
Q

When inducing circular magnetization the recommended current value is?

A

300 to 800 amperes per inch

60
Q

The generally accepted rule for current values when using a central bar conductor (CBC) is ___ __ ____ ______ ___ ____.

A

100 to 1000 amperes per inch

61
Q

When inspecting for fine cracks, coating shall be removed if the thickness exceeds …

A

0.003 inch

62
Q

Which type of magnetic field is easily detected with a field indicator?

A

longitudinal field

63
Q

Indications that are not significant are referred to as being …

A

nonrelevant

64
Q

What feature do most stationary inspection units have to demagnetize parts?

A

30-point step-down

65
Q

which magnetic particle equipment requires the operator to depress a foot switch?

A

stationary

66
Q

when demagnetizing, how far do you lift DA-200 away from a large part before turning the probe off?

A

2 feet

67
Q

how far must rubber matting extend beyond the ends of stationary magnetic inspection equipment?

A

24 inches

68
Q

how often must you conduct a quick break test on your stationary equipment?

A

every 90 calendar days

69
Q

How often must you perform deadweight checks on your portable magnetic inspection equipment?

A

every 90 calendar days

70
Q

When performing an in-use bath check, what is the acceptable concentration range of wet fluorescent particles?

A

.1 to .4ml/100ml