Vocabulary Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Risk mitigation

A

is the practice of the elimination of, or the significant decrease in the level of risk presented.

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2
Q

A risk assessment, which is a tool for risk management, is

A

a method of identifying vulnerabilities and threats and assessing the possible impacts to determine where to implement security controls.

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3
Q

A risk assessment is carried out, and the results

A

are analyzed.

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4
Q

Risk analysis is used

A

to ensure that security is cost-effective, relevant, timely, and responsive to threats.

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5
Q

Security can be quite complex, even for well-versed security professionals, and it is easy to apply

A

too much security, not enough security, or the wrong security controls, and to spend too much money in the process without attaining the necessary objectives.

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6
Q

Risk analysis helps companies

A

prioritize their risks and shows management the amount of resources that should be applied to protecting against those risks in a sensible manner.

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7
Q

What are the four main goals of risk analysis?

A

(1) Identify assets and their value to the organization.
(2) Identify vulnerabilities and threats.
(3) Quantify the probability and business impact of these potential threats.
(4) Provide an economic balance between the impact of the threat and the cost of the countermeasure.

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8
Q

Analyzing resources of a system is one standard for locating covert channels because the basis of a covert channel is a shared resource. What are the four properties that must hold true for a storage channel to exist?

A
  1. Both sending and receiving process must have access to the same attribute of a shared object.
  2. The sending process must be able to modify the attribute of the shared object.
  3. The receiving process must be able to reference that attribute of the shared object.
  4. A mechanism for initiating both processes and properly sequencing their respective accesses to the shared resource must exist.
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9
Q

The Urgent Pointer is used

A

when some information has to reach the server ASAP.

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10
Q

The Urgent Pointer is usually used in Telnet,

A

where an immediate response (e.g. the echoing of characters) is desirable.

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11
Q

When a packet is plucked out of the processing queue and acted upon immediately,

A

it is known as an Out Of Band (OOB) packet and the data is called Out Of Band (OOB) data.

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12
Q

Covert Channels are NOT

A

directly synonymous with backdoors.

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13
Q

A covert channel is simply using a communication protocol in a way

A

it was NOT intended to be used or sending data without going through the proper access control mechanisms or channels.

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14
Q

An example of a covert channel in a Mandatory Access Control systems is a user secretly that has found a way to communicate confidential information to another user without going through the normal channels.

In this case, how could the Urgent bit be used:

A
  1. It could be to attempt a Denial of service where the host receiving a packet with the Urgent bit set will give immediate attention to the request and will be in wait state until the urgent message is receive, if the sender does not send the urgent message then it will simply sit there doing nothing until it times out. Some of the
    TCP/IP stacks used to have a 600 seconds time out, which means that for 10 minutes nobody could use the port. By sending thousands of packet with the
    URGENT flag set, it would create a very effective denial of service attack.
  2. It could be used as a client server application to transmit data back and forward without going through the proper channels. It would be slow but it is possible to use reserved fields and bits to transmit data outside the normal communication channels.
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15
Q

Risk mitigation is the practice of

A

the elimination of, or the significant decrease in the level of risk presented.

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16
Q

Risk Mitigation involves

A

applying appropriate control to reduce risk.

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17
Q

List recommendations that an IS auditor could provide to lessen the risk of exposing personal and financial information that is highly sensitive and confidential in an organization?

A

Put countermeasures in place, such as:

(1) firewalls,
(2) Intrusion detection/prevention systems, and
(3) other mechanisms to deter malicious outsiders from accessing this highly sensitive information

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18
Q

In underage drivers, risk mitigation could take the form of

A

(1) driver education for the youth
(2) establishing a policy not allowing the young driver to use a cell phone while driving,
(3) not letting youth of a certain age have more than one friend in the car as a passenger at any given time.

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19
Q

Risk transfer is the practice of

A

passing on the risk in question to another entity, such as an insurance company.

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20
Q

Risk acceptance is the practice of

A

accepting certain risk(s), typically based on a business decision that may also weigh the cost versus the benefit of dealing with the risk in another way.

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21
Q

Risk avoidance is the practice of

A

coming up with alternatives so that the risk in question is not realized.

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22
Q

Deterrent Control are intended:

A

to discourage a potential attacker.

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23
Q

Access controls can act as a deterrent to threats and attacks

A

bc the existence of the control is enough to keep some potential attackers from attempting to circumvent the control.

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24
Q

The examination of proposed test plans is

A

part of the testing phase.

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25
Q

Items to be addressed during the design and development phase include:

A

(1) studying flowcharts;
(2) evaluating input, output, and process controls;
(3) examining proposed audit trails; and
(4) reviewing how the system will deal with erroneous input.

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26
Q

Business continuity planning is

A

an ongoing process that should be revisited each time there is a change to the environment.

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27
Q

Blind testing describes a situation

A

where only one party knows

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28
Q

Double-blind testing describes a situation

A

where neither party knows

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29
Q

Implementation is the stage at which

A

user acceptance is usually performed.

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30
Q

A direct changeover requires the establishment of

A

a cut-off date so that all users must switch to the new system by then.

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31
Q

A pilot scenario is used

A

when an entire new system is used at one location.

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32
Q

A phased changeover is

A

a gradual process.

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33
Q

A parallel changeover

A

brings the new system online while the old is still in operation.

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34
Q

A SAS 70 report

A

verifies that the outsourcing or business partner has had its control objectives and activities examined by an independent accounting and auditing firm.

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35
Q

A privacy shield is used for

A

EU protection of data.

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36
Q

COBIT is a good-practice framework created by the international professional association:

A

ISACA for information technology (IT) management and IT governance.

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37
Q

COBIT is a

A

good-practice framework.

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38
Q

COBIT is

A

for information technology (IT) management and IT governance

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39
Q

ITIL is a

A

set of detailed practices for IT service management.

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40
Q

ITIL seeks to

A

align IT services with the needs of the business.

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41
Q

Kerberos is

A

an example of single sign-on

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42
Q

All describe methods of centralized authentication:

A

Diameter, RADIUS, and TACACS

43
Q

Fuzzing is a form of

A

black box testing that is carried out when the source code is not available.

44
Q

A code review is performed

A

when the code is available.

45
Q

Reverse engineering is

A

used to tear apart existing code.

46
Q

A decompiler is used

A

to examine the internal operation of an application.

47
Q

Reviewing network diagrams is usually the best place for an auditor to start when performing a

A

Network audit.

48
Q

What resource should provide an IT auditor a foundational understanding of the network?

A

Network diagrams

49
Q

Intrusion detection is

A

the best method of monitoring and detecting break-ins or attempts to attack via the Internet.

50
Q

Packet filtering is a

A

a type of stateless inspection and can make a decision on only a set of static rules.

51
Q

Stateful inspection is not

A

Specifically designed to detect and report hacking activities.

52
Q

Decision support systems (DSSs) are

A

software-based applications that help analyze data to answer less structured problems.

53
Q

DSS typically uses

A

knowledge databases, models, and analytical techniques to make decisions.

54
Q

DSS does not use structured models

A

to solve complex problems.

55
Q

A DSS is designed to support

A

traditional decision-making activities and unstructured problems.

56
Q

Dropbox is an example of

A

a public cloud service.

57
Q

A private cloud model is based on the concept

A

that the cloud is owned and operated by a private entity.

58
Q

A community cloud model can be used

A

by several entities.

59
Q

A hybrid cloud model can be

A

a combination of any of the other cloud models.

60
Q

The most critical concern of keeping the copies of critical information current at an offsite location is

A

The process of maintaining data back ups.

61
Q

A mantrap is

A

a system of doors that is arranged so that when one opens, the others remain locked.

62
Q

Mantraps are typically used

A

in high-security facilities.

63
Q

A honeypot describes a system

A

used to lure in an attacker.

64
Q

A turnstile is used

A

to control access.

65
Q

A DMZ is used

A

in networking.

66
Q

Following implementation

A

a cost-benefit analysis or ROI calculation should be performed.

67
Q

The audit trail should be designed during

A

the design phase.

68
Q

An ERD should be performed during

A

the requirements phase.

69
Q

Final acceptance testing should be performed during

A

the implementation phase.

70
Q

Entity relationship diagrams are built using

A

two essential components that include entities and relationships.

71
Q

Trend variance detection tools are best used

A

to scan for deviations from normal activity.

72
Q

Bypass label processing can be used

A

to bypass the normal process of reading a file security label.

73
Q

Attack detection tools

A

look for known attack signatures.

74
Q

Audit reduction tools

A

reduce the volume of information to be reviewed.

75
Q

A disclaimer is used

A

when an auditor cannot obtain appropriate evidence to base an opinion.

76
Q

Bottom-up policy development

A

addresses the concerns of operational employees because it starts with their input and concerns and examines risk.

77
Q

All these items are tied to top-down policy development:

A

(1) alignment of policy with strategy
(2) tends to be a very slow process
(3) does not address concerns of employees

78
Q

A top-down approach

A

aligns with company policy, is a slow process, and might not fully address the concerns of employees.

79
Q

MD5 is

A

is a hashing algorithm.

80
Q

Hashing algorithms, like MD5, are

A

used to verify integrity.

81
Q

DES is a symmetric algorithm and

A

offers confidentiality.

82
Q

AES is also a symmetric algorithm that

A

offers confidentiality.

83
Q

RSA is

A

an asymmetric algorithm.

84
Q

RSA, an asymmetric algorithm, generally offers

A

confidentiality, authentication, and nonrepudiation.

85
Q

Valid application testing methodologies include:

A

(1) snapshots
(2) mapping
(3) tracing and tagging
(4) using test data, and
(5) base case system evaluation.

86
Q

Entity integrity

A

is an example of a data integrity control.

87
Q

Fourth-generation languages (4GL) are most commonly

A

for databases.

88
Q

Examples of 4GLs include:

A

FOCUS, Natural, and dBase.

89
Q

2GL is

A

assembly language.

90
Q

3GL includes languages such as

A

as FORTRAN and Pascal.

91
Q

5GLs are

A

very high-level languages such as Prolog.

92
Q

Custody is related to

A

access to cash, merchandise, or inventories.

93
Q

Verifying cash, approving purchases, and approving changes are forms of

A

authorization.

94
Q

Record keeping deals with

A

preparing receipts, maintaining records, and posting payments.

95
Q

Reconciliation deals with

A

comparing monetary amounts, counts, reports, and payroll summaries.

96
Q

Asymmetric encryption offers

A

easy key exchange.

97
Q

Asymmetric encryption

A

is not as efficient as symmetric encryption.

98
Q

Asymmetric encryption is NOT

A

a part of a hashing algorithm.

99
Q

Asymmetric encryption can NOT be used for

A

bulk data.

100
Q

Penetration testing typically follows a structured approach, such as

A

the stages outlined in NIST 800-42.

101
Q

SOX deals with

A

financial records.

102
Q

PCI-DSS covers

A

the protection of credit card data.

103
Q

SSAE-16 is

A

an auditing standard.

104
Q

SSAE-16 is not used for

A

penetration testing.