VNSA5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a parasite?

A

Eukaryotic, complex structures contained within membrane, has a nucleus, single celled or multi cellular.

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2
Q

Define ectoparasites

A

Parasites living on or burrowing into hosts skin or coat

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3
Q

What are ectoparasites apart of?

A

Phylum arthropoda
Includes invertebrate insects, spiders and crustaceans

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4
Q

What do ectoparasites look like ?

A

Segmented bodies and either a tough protective, semi-transparent substance or an exoskeleton (rigid external covering for the body/skeleton)
Jointed limbs

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5
Q

Describe insects

A

Adults:

3 body parts - head, thorax and abdomen

3 pairs of legs

Eg - Lice, fleas and dipteran flies

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6
Q

Describe arachnids

A

-All have 2 body parts: cephalothorax (fused head and thorax) and abdomen

-adult and nymph (immature, before adulthood) stages

-adult and nymph have 8 pairs of legs

-juvenile stages (larvae) have 6 pairs of legs

-eg. mites and ticks

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7
Q

What are fleas ?

A

-blood sucking insects, wingless and dark brown
-laterally flattened to move between hairs
-robust back legs for jumping
-approx 3mm long
-mouthparts are adapted to pierce skin and suck blood
-saliva is injected which contains antigens that encourage an allergic response.
-flea allergic dermatitis (FAD)

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8
Q

What is a ctenocephalides felis?

A

A cat flea

Most common on cats dogs and rabbits
Hairy moustache and mullet/combs

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9
Q

What is a ctenocephalides canis ?

A

A dog flea

Most common in dogs in permanent kennels
Less hairy
1-2.5mm long

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10
Q

What is a archaeopsylla erinacei?

A

A hedgehog flea
Elongated

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11
Q

What is a spillopsyllus cuniculi?

A

A wild rabbit flea
Hair beard and mullet

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12
Q

Flea life cycle

A

Flea eggs - lay eggs after a blood meal, eggs drop off into environment

Flea larvae - hatch out of eggs when conditions are warm and humid

Flea pupae - larvae spin into a cocoon and develop into pupae (1-2 wks)

Adult fleas - hatch from cocoon and continue to infest pet

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13
Q

What can fleas cause ?

A

Pruritis - flea allergic dermatitis

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14
Q

What is an infestation of lice called ?

A

Pediculosis

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15
Q

Describe lice

A

-small and wingless
-dorso ventrally flattened
-approx 2mm long
-adults complete life cycle on the host
-can affect = cats dogs horses rabbits rodents and birds but host specific
-transmission is easy, close contact/fomites
-large numbers cause irritation to animals

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16
Q

Sucking louse - linognathus setosus

A

-affects dogs
-worldwide
-1.5 to 2.5 mm long
-often found on heads (eyes, ears) but also neck and chest

-elongated narrow heads
-piercing mouthparts
-feed on blood
-large numbers can cause infestation

-fipronil is a broad spectrum insecticide

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17
Q

Chewing/biting louse - Felicola substratus

A

-cats worldwide
-chewing louse
-transmits dipylidium caninum

-they have shorter broader heads and feed on skin debris

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18
Q

Chewing/biting louse - trichodectes canis

A

-dogs worldwide
-chewing louse
-intermediate host for dipylidium caninum
-prefers head, neck and back

-they have shorter broader heads and feed on skin debris

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19
Q

Life cycle of the louse

A

Eggs
First stage larva
Second stage larva
Third stage larva
Adult

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20
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of lice

A

Visualisation of eggs or lice (skin scrapes or brushings may be needed)
Cleaning the environment inc fomites
Treatment - insecticidal wash/spray/spot on

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21
Q

What are dipteran flies?

A

Blue and green bottle flies
Blow flies
Botfly

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22
Q

What is myiasis

A

Aka fly strike

Invasion of living tissue by dipteran fly larvae
Risk is increased in the summer - especially if animal is soiled due to smelly moist area

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23
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of myiasis

A

-depressed and restless
-may not eat
-full examination
-maggots easily visible

-all larvae needs to be removed
-skin bathed with mild antiseptic
-topical treatment may be sufficient

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24
Q

What disease can sandflies transmit ?

A

Leishmaniasis
-skin mouth and nasal ulcers
-anaemia, fever, enlarged spleen and liver
-zoonotic

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25
What can mosquitos carry?
Heartworm - resides in right side of heart.
26
What category are ticks in ?
Arachnids
27
What is the name of the specialised mouth part ticks have?
Hypostome. Developed for piercing skin to gain their blood meal
28
What is an ixodes ricinus
Sheep tick - seen in rural areas (moors and woodlands)
29
What is an ixodes hexagonus?
Hedgehog tick - seen in urban areas (parks and gardens)
30
What is an ixodes canisuga?
Only affects dogs and cats so may be a problem if boarding in kennels
31
Lifecycle of a tick
Adult female feeds on host, becomes engorged and drops off Engorged female lays eggs and dies Eggs hatch into larvae and attach to a host Engorged larvae detach from host and molt into lymph’s Nymphs attach and feed of a larger host Engorged nymphs detach from host and molt into adults
32
How many legs does a larval tick have ?
Three
33
How many legs does the nymphal tick have?
4
34
Diagnosis and treatment for ticks
Visually seen Need a tick remover Treatments - simparica, bravecto, frontline
35
What are mites?
Most are permanent ectoparasites Exception = Dermanyssus gallinae (red mite of poultry) and trombicula autumnalis (harvest mite) only the larva is parasitic
36
What is the transmission of mites caused by ?
Direct contact
37
How do you diagnose mites ?
-hair plucks -hair brushings -tape impressions -skin scrapings
38
Otodectes cynotis - ear mite
Surface mite - seen on dog, cat, ferret -long legs, unjointed pedicles -apodeme unjointed -0.4mm long -live in ear canal causing otitis externa and dark brown waxy discharge -highly contagious -small white moving dots
39
Life cycle of an ear mite
Adults live in ear canal and brouse on wax and debris Eggs hatch Larvae feed for 4-5 days before moulting Nymph feeds for 4 days molts and feeds for 4 more days before moulting to adult Lifespan is spent on 1 host
40
Clinical signs, diagnosis and treatment for ear mites
-head scratching -scratching -rubbing ears -trauma and haematoma to pinna -Cleaning ears, followed with an acaricide (3 weeks) -antibiotic may be indicated -contact animals should be treated (stronghold/advocate)
41
Cheyletiella spp. surface mite
Walking dandruff 0.4-5mm long (just visible to the naked eye) 8 legs with combs not claws Palpi (hook like mouth parts) Poss zoonotic (may bite but dont survive long = raised spots and pruritis) Direct contact Affects dogs cats and rabbits
42
Cheyletiella spp. life cycle
Adult females lay eggs one by one on the host coat Eggs are attached to the hairs Eggs hatch into larvae after approx 4 days Larvae moults into nymphs and in 9-10 days develop into adults Infection occurs by direct host to host contact
43
Diagnosis and Treatment of Cheyletiella spp.
By examination - coat brushings or tape strips for adults or eggs Disinfection of area as can survive for some days in environment Araricides: ivermectin, pyrethrin topical products
44
Trombicula autumnalis - harvest mite
Only larval stages are parasitic Late summer/early autumn Orange/red colour 3 pairs of legs Intense irritation caused Seen on feet and ears Treat with ectoparasite spray
45
Life cycle of a harvest mite
Eggs Larva Nymph Adult
46
What do burrowing/subsurface mites do ?
Create tunnels within the surface layers of skin Lay their eggs within small pockets All have short legs 4 burrowing mites seen in pets
47
Sarcoptes scabei var. canis
Highly contagious and zoonotic Affects dogs, occasionally cats and horses Transmission = close contact (can survive in environment like bedding) Short stubby legs Pedicles with suckers Y shaped apodeme at its neck 0.4mm long Life cycle: Females burrow into the skin and lay eggs in the burrows Eggs hatch and the mites move, make burrows of their own and process repeats itself
48
Diagnosis and treatment of sarcoptes scabei var. canis
Deep skin scrape (hard to always find the mites) Blood test (antibodies/immune response) Medicated baths and dips Injections and oral meds Many animals require a combination to resolve the issue
49
Trixaxarus caviae - burrowing mite
Seen in Guinea pigs Intense pruritis - can cause seizures Severe self trauma Reddening of the skin/swelling Abnormal area of thickened skin Chronic infestation = alopecia
50
Notoedres spp. - burrowing mite
Transmission by close contact Mites or eggs can survive in environment for several days Affecting cats (and rats) 0.36mm long Presents much like sarcoptes scabi spp Rare in uk Test by skin scrapes
51
Demodex spp. burrowing mite
Normal cutaneous flora If immunocompromised mite overgrowth can occur Not typical appearance Cigar shaped with short stubby legs 0.2mm long Host specific Life cycle: Adult Ovum Larva Protonymph Nymph
52
Clinical signs and treatment of demodex spp.
Non pruritic alopecia Localised demodicosis Generalised demodicosis Advocate ( weekly application not monthly and then re skin scrape) can be a lengthy process. Aludex- think COSHH flammable and toxic (ventilation and PPE)
53
Name the 4 burrowing/subsurface mites
-sarcoptes scabei var. canis -notodres spp. -demodex spp. -tricacarus caviae
54
What are the 4 types of fleas?
Ctenocephalides felis - cat flea Ctenocephalides Canis - dog flea Archaeopsylla erinacei - hedgehog flea Spillopsyllus cuniculi - wild rabbit flea
55
Name the sucking louce
Linognathus setosus
56
Name the chewing/biting louce
Felicola substratus Trichodectes Canis
57
Name the tick species seen in the UK
Ixodes ricinus Ixodes hexagonus Ixodes canisuga
58
Name the surface mites
Otodectes cynotis Trombicula autumnalis Psoroptes spp. Cheyletiella spp.
59
Name the disease producing infectious agents
Viruses Bacteria Fungi Protozoa Prions
60
What do the following units stand for? Km , m , mm , um, nm
Km - Kilometer M - meter Mm - millimetre Um- micrometer Nm - Nanometer
61
What is a prokaryotic cell
Bacteria and archaea
62
What is a eukaryotic cell
Fungi and animals
63
When an interaction with the host is harmful what is it called?
Disease causing microorganisms
64
Define commensal organisms
Having no effect on the host
65
Define gut microflora
Benefit to the host
66
Define heterotrophic
Use organic carbon from other organisms for their own growth
67
Define autotrophic
They produce their own food from simpler molecules
68
Define saprophytic
They live off dead or decaying matter
69
Define parasitic
Live in or on a living organism at the hosts expense
70
Define mutualism
The host and microorganism benefits from the relationship (microflora gut bacteria)
71
Define contamination
Exposure of host/tissue to microorganisms Not infection until the microorganisms have colonised the host
72
Define colonisation
Microorganisms multiples within a host — leading to infection
73
Define infection
Microorganism has colonised the host and clinical signs are seen Infections causing harm to the host are pathogenic
74
Define contagion
Spread of infectious diseases from one host to another Direct and Indirect Therefore the disease is contagious
75
Structure of viruses
Extremely small -> 20-300nm Each viral particle (viron) has 2 components: Nucleic acid core and protein coat Some viruses also have an outer envelope, often formed by the hosts cell membrane. Not always recognised as living organisms as unable to reproduce without a host cell (obligate parasites) They are reliant on the host cell to provide necessary nutrition for survival
76
What are the 4 shapes of a nucleocapsid (virus)
Helical - Spiral shape Icosahedral - 2- triangular faces Complex - combination of 2 other shapes Composite - separate elements
77
Viral replication
- viruses can only attach to cells with compatible receptors -tissue tropism -they only infect certain species -replication takes place in the hosts cells
78
How does a virus enter the cell
-attaches and enters a suitable cell (Enveloped viruses fuse with the host membrane, releasing nucleocapsod into the cell) (Non-enveloped viruses induce the host cell to engulf it) -capsid breaks down to release viral nucleic acid -it replicates by controlling the cells normal metabolism -the cell produces the necessary components of new viral particles -these are then assembled and released from the cell -if the virus is naked the host cell normally ruptures and destroys the cell membrane -if the virus is enveloped it leaves the cell membrane, removing some to form the viral envelope
79
Define adsorption (Virus)
Virus attaches to the host cell
80
Define penetration (Virus)
Injects its genome into the host cell
81
Define viral genome replication
Viral genome replicates using the hosts cellular machinery
82
Define assembly (Virus)
Viral components assessable and viruses fully develop
83
Define maturation (Virus)
Viral components assemble and viruses fully develop
84
Define release (Virus )
Newly produced viruses are expelled from the host cell
85
Define direct transmission
Cat licking nasal secretions from another infected with calcivirus
86
Define indirect transmission
Dog licking the floor of a kennel, previously used by a dog suffering with parvovirus
87
How do you diagnose a viral infection?
-history taken -clinical signs -symptoms of viral infections may be similar so further identification is required: -electron microscopy is possible with light if clumped -serology - detection of specific antibody production in response to the virus - PCR (polymerase chain reaction) amplifies quantities of DNA from the virus
88
Treatment for viral infections
-supportive care -fluids -nutrition -pain relief -antiviral drugs (used more in humans)
89
Prevention of viral infections
-border controls -accommodation design -disinfectants effective against viruses -vaccination
90
What are the types of bacteria
Bacilli - cylindrical or rods Vibrios - curved bacilli. Cocci - spherical Spirochaetes - spiral or helical
91
Define diplococci bacteria
Can exist singly while others remain in pairs following cell division
92
Define streptococci bacteria
Those that remain attached in chains
93
Define staphylococci bacteria
Divide randomly and from irregular grape like clusters
94
Why is it so important to be able to identify bacteria ?
To ensure that the correct antibacterial treatment is used.
95
Explain gram staining
Allows you to see whether it’s Gram+ or Gram- Be able to see the structure and shape of bacteria Knowing where the sample was taken from you may be able to identify the bacteria well enough to start treatment.
96
What colour is gram+ bacteria
Remain purple as they resist the decolouration
97
What colour is gram-
Will appear pink. Due to the Fuchsin application together with the other material on the slide
98
Define a cell wall Bacteria
Rigid stricture Mainly made of peptidoglycan Maintains cell shape and prevents bursting, varies in thickness
99
Define cell membrane Bacteria
Lies just inside the cell wall. Selectively permeable Controls passage of substances in and out of the
100
Define cytoplasm Bacteria
A thick fluid containing dissolved substances such as nutrients, waste products and enzymes
101
Define plasmid bacteria
Extra piece of DNA Can replicate independently from the DNA
102
Define mesosome Bacteria
Infolding of the cell membrane Site of cell respiration Provides a larger surface area
103
Define flagellum Bacteria
Provides movement Long hollow tubes of a contractile protein
104
Define bacteria chromosome Bacteria
Suspended within the cytoplasm Extensively coiled molecule containing DNA
105
Define ribosomes Bacteria
Contain ribonucleic acid (RNA) Site of protein synthesis
106
Define what a capsule and slime layer is Bacteria
Gelatinous capsule Vary in thickness Act as a barrier between the bacterium and its environment
107
Bacteria reproduction
Binary fission - asexual - 2 genetically identical cells from a single mature cell Or Gene transfer
108
Explain gene transfer Bacteria reproduction
Transformation - a recipient cell takes up DNA from the environment Transduction - transfer of DNA from one cell to another via a replicating virus Conjunction - transfer of genes from a donor to a recipient between 2 temporarily connected cells. The donor bacterium extends a rod like sex pilus that connects with the recipient bacteria The donor cell is not killed (like transformation and transduction)
109
What do bacteria need to grow?
-supply of suitable nutrients -correct temp (37 degrees in mammalian bodies) -correct pH (7-7.4 in mammals) -water -correct gaseous environment
110
Endospores
Some bacteria produce dominant spores Highly resistant to adverse environmental conditions Endospores are formed when the bacteria are deprived of a vital factor of life
111
Formation of endospores by sporulation
-one bacterial vegetive cell Unfavourable conditions -endospore formed Germination -one bacterial vegetive cell Spore formation is not reproduction
112
How can you kill bacterial spores?
-autoclaving (moist heat, 121 degrees under pressure 6.9kPa > 15 mins) -tyndallisation -dry heat (160 degrees at least 2 hours)
113
What are toxins ?
Poisonous substances produced by bacteria Effects can be - local to infection, systemic Two forms of toxin are: exotoxins and endotoxins
114
Exotoxins
-Excreted by the cell -released mainly by Gram+ve bacteria during metabolism -enter surrounding tissues or systemic circulation -very potent -lethal in small quantities -can enter into food = food poisoning -can be destroyed by heat and some chemicals -body produces antibodies in response to exotoxins —> antitoxins
115
Endotoxins
-inside the cell - Gram-ve bacteria release endotoxins as the cell disintegrates and dies -less toxic -resistent to heat -cannot create a toxoid to them -after surgery in horses or GDV -once in the circulation they cause a number of non-specific problems -pyrexia -in large concentrations they cause serious reduction in blood pressure -endotoxic shock
116
Diseases caused by bacteria
Clinical symptoms can be caused by: -presence of bacterium -damage to the localised tissue from the inflammatory reaction induced by the bacteria -toxins produced by the bacteria
117
Diagnosis of bacteria
-perform a full clinical examination -take a full history -identification of the causal bacteria by smears and cultures (diagnostics)
118
Treatments of bacteria
Depends on - bacteria involved and infection location -topical/systemic antibacterial -broad/narrow spectrum -important to consider tissue penetration (will it get to infection site) -some have a destructive effect on the normal gut microflora
119
When should antibacterial drugs be used?
For a minimum length of time as necessary to be effective Use an appropriate drug with a narrow spectrum if possible Otherwise body can become resistance to antibacterial drugs
120
Diagnosis of fungi
- can be hard as found asymptomatically on normal skin - dermatophytes -microscopic examination of hair plucks -some species fluoresce under woods lamps -cultured on specialist media
121
Treatment of fungi
-often treated topically alone -fungicidal washes -repeated regularly over prolonged periods of time - eg. Malaseb - chlorhexidine and miconazole -systemic treatments are sometimes indicated
122
Protozoa
-single celled organism -many are motile -10-200um -free living in the environment -parasitic once within the body -infection can be asymptomatic or cause clinical signs -disease more commonly seen in young or debilitated patients -severity of symptoms vary -protozoan life cycles are complex -most replicate asexually (binary fission) -some also reproduce sexually by gametogony - only in a definitive host
123
Oocycst
Have a protective membrane or thickened wall Survive for long periods of time in the environment Passed in faeces
124
Bradyzoites
Found in the body tissues awaiting ingestion of the tissue by another Host eaten by definitive host
125
Tachyzoites
Rapidly multiplying, causing tissue destruction and spreading of infection
126
Diagnosis of protozoan infection
Many are difficult to detect Shedding of infective forms can be intermittent -diagnosis normally by identification of oocysts in faeces -serology -signs of toxoplasma
127
Prevention of protozoan infection
-vaccinate sheep against toxoplasma Gondi -handwashing -prevent cats from accessing sheep food stores -Pregnant women; not clean litter trays, wear gloves whilst gardening, not assist with lambing ewes -ensure meat is cooked properly
128
Prions
-smallest infectious particle -protein particles, contain no genetic material -cannot self replicate -reliant on host organism -they alter normal protein production, producing more prions -cause neurodegenerative disease resulting in death -usually have a very long incubation period (2 months - 2 years) -transmission is by ingestion of infected tissue/fluids -thought to remain viable in the soil for some time (Eg mad cow disease)
129
Diagnosis and prevention of prions
Diagnosis - clinical signs on animal, lymph node samples in live animals and appearance of brain tissue post mortem Prevention - slaughter, removal of bovine offal from food chain, ban on feeding processed animal protein
130
Fungi
Only infects a few animals Grow - aerobically Unicellular or multicellular Membrane bound nucleus Nucleic acid - DNA and RNA Absorbs nutrients from the surface they grow on (saprophytic or parasitic) 2 groups - moulds and yeasts
131
Moulds
-multicellular structure -hard capsule to protect DNA inside -made up of long filamenets - hyphae -reproduce sexually but more commonly asexually -spores spread via airborne methods and fomites
132
Yeasts
-require a constant food source -unicellular -usually commensal - become pathogenic under certain conditions -reproduce by budding
133
What can endoparasites be divided into?
-helminths -Protozoa
134
What are Protozoal parasites ?
Small unicellular organisms
135
What 3 categories can helminths be split into?
-trematodes (flukes) -cestodes (tapeworm) -nematodes (roundworms)
136
Cestodes - tapeworm
Tape like appearance with no digestive tract. It is composed of 3 main parts (head neck and strobila)
137
What is the scolex (Cestodes - tapeworm)
-head -either in larva or adult stage -has hooks and suckers -animal is attached to tissues of its host
138
What is the rostellum (Cestodes, tapeworm)
-anterior part of the scolex -Cone like structure -some species have retractable hooks
139
What is the strobila (Cestodes, tapeworm)
-The segmented part -contain both male and female reproductive organs -absorb nutrients from the gut contents of the host
140
What is the proglottid (Cestodes, tapeworm)
-small segments - size of a grain of rice -these segments break off and pass into the stool -individual segments that make up the strobilla
141
Are tapeworms hermaphrodites ?
Yes They have both male and female reproductive organs in each proglottid. As the proglottid matures, reproduction takes place and eggs develop within it. When fully mature it is an egg - containing structure
142
What is the immature stage of a cestode called ?
Metacestode It develops into the intermediate host, it is here there is often a problem not the final host.
143
Define cysticercus (Metacestodes)
Fluid filled cyst Containing a scolex which is inverted into a sac. Muscle tissue of host
144
Define cysticeroid (Metacestode)
A single scolex (Invertebrate intermediate hosts)
145
Define coenurus (Metacestode)
Cyst with multiple attached scolices
146
Define hydatid cyst (Metacestode)
Large cyst containing many scolices
147
Dipylidium caninum Tapeworms
-most common tapeworm seen in the UK -affects dogs and cats -can be zoonotic -intermediate hosts = fleas and biting lice in dogs -the cysticeroid develops in the flea, is eaten and released into the small intestine of host where scolex attaches to the GI wall -normally diagnosed by presence of motile segments containing egg packets around the anus or in faeces.
148
Echinococcus granulosus
-affects dogs -often asymptomatic -intermediate host = sheep -zoonotic and humans can act as an intermediate host (cysts develop in liver and lungs) -hard to control infection in the intermediate host, better to control in the final host. (Prevention = hygiene and not letting dogs of in a sheep field as dead carcass can be ingested)
149
Taenia spp. tapeworm
-seen in both dogs and cats -zoonotic -infected by; intermediate hosts ingesting eggs from the ground -metacestode cyst developing (cysticercus) -ingestion of raw meat or offal infected with taenia spp. Infection control = preventing final hosts accessing uncooked flesh
150
What are the hosts of taenia tapeworms
T. Taeniaeformis - cat - immediate host = rat or mouse T. Serialis - dog - immediate host = rabbit T. Pisiformis - dog - immediate host = rabbit T. Ovis - dog - immediate host = sheep T. Hydatigena - dog - immediate host = sheep/cattle/pig T.multiceps - dog - immediate host = sheep/cattle
151
What are nematodes ?
Worms They live inside and feed off an animals intestines after being swallowed - can be found in faeces and vomit They’re round in cross section, have cylindrical bodies and resemble spaghetti. They’re light brown and a few inches long They have an alimentary tract Most have a direct lifecycle (excluding some lungworm) and others have paratenic/intermediate hosts (slug/snail)
152
Name the type of nematodes
-ascarids -hookworm -whipworm -bladder worm -lungworm
153
What are ascarids ?
Large fleshy worms More of a problem to young puppies and kittens Most common group in veterinary practices -toxocara canis -toxocara leonina -toxocara cacti
154
Toxocara Canis
Nematode - ascarid (roundworm) -can affect dogs, cats and foxes -lives in the intestines -infection can occur by; ingesting them from the environment, in utero from day 42, via the dams milk -causes puppies to have distended bellies, and can cause vomiting and diarrhoea, severe infestations can cause intestinal blockage -as immunity develops they are expelled spontaneously from about 7weeks of age, being free of them by 6-7months of age -zoonotic
155
Toxocara Cati
Affects cats - young kittens Transfer the same as T.canis but unable to pass through the placenta Worms have ‘wings’ on their heads Potential to be zoonotic Infection occurs: -via queens milk (infection is patent for around 6 weeks) -from the environment -can cause stunted growth and pot bellied appearance
156
Toxascaris leonina
-Affects dogs and cats -no infection in utero or via milk -infection caused by ingestion or paratenic host -usually well tolerated with minimal clinical signs of infection -rarely zoonotic
157
Give 2 examples of hookworms
-uncinaria stenocephala -ancylostoma caninum
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Uncinaria stenocephala
-Seen in dogs (rarely affects cats) -known as the northern hookworm -seen in greyhounds and hunt kennels -infestation caused by ingesting larvae from the environment -dogs can also become infected by eating a host (small mammals) containing infective larvae -attaches to intestinal mucosa by its mouth parts, inflicting damage by feeding off tissue fluid -larvae can penetrate the skin and cause infection (skin and foot) - symptoms: diarrhoea, anaemia, anorexic and lethargy - severe infestations cause the animal to look malnourished.
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Trichuris Vulpis Whipworm
-affects dogs -present in large intestines, feed on blood and tissue fluid by damaging the intestinal lining -whip like appearance -wide posterior end free in the intestinal lumen -narrow anterior end buried in the mucosa -in large numbers cause bloody diarrhoea, but normaly asymptomatic -characteristic eggs that are very resistant due to thick wall (survive long periods on the ground)
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Dirofilaria immitis Heartworm
-not in the UK yet -adults live in the heart -immature stages (microfilariae) circulate the blood -transmission: via mosquito Severe infection can cause right sided heart failure (RHS) -symptoms present as: lethargy, breathing difficulties, hypertension, heart failure
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Capilaria plica Bladder worms
-seen in dogs but rare in the UK -adults live in the bladder and are passed in urine -similar to trichuris vulpis -rarely a problem
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Name the type of Lungworms
-aelurostrongylus abstrusus - cats -angiostrongylus vasorum - dogs -oslerus osleri-dogs
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Aelurostrongylus abstrusus Lungworm in cats
-infected by ingestion of intermediate host (slug or snail) -adult worm lives in lung tissue (may cause coughing) -larvae is coughed up and swallowed and passed in faeces
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Angiostrongylus vasorum Lungworm in dogs
-infection by eating a slug or snail containing infective larvae or eating larvae off the ground -adults live in the pulmonary artery and can be fatal -eggs passed into lung alveoli and hatch -eggs are coughed up and swallowed and passes in faeces
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Oslerus osleri Lungworm in dogs
-live in small nodules at the tracheal bifurcation in dogs -adults produce larvae which are then coughed up and swallowed -life cycle is direct - there is no intermediate host
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How are roundworms treated ?
-fenbendazole (panacur) -milbemycin (milbemax, nexguard) -piperazine (prazitel, endoguard) -pyrantel (drontal)
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Define disinfection
A process that eliminates many or all pathogenic microorganisms, except bacterial spores or inanimate objects
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Define sterilisation
The process of making something free from bacteria or other living microorganisms
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Define antisepsis
The destruction or inhibition of microorganisms on living tissues, limiting or preventing infection
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Define asepsis
A condition in which no living disease causing microorganisms are present
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Define disinfectant
A chemical that destroys, inactivates or reduces the concentration of pathogens
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Define nosocomial infections
Infection acquired whilst receiving care at the practice
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Define cleaning
The act of removing dirt or something undesirable
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What is a clinical audit and why do have them?
A quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. We have them to improve standards of care, as a part of PSS and to improve in house protocols or develop them.
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What is thermocouple testing ?
A sensor used to measure temperature Heat sensitive tips are placed in the sterilising chamber and connected to a temperature recording device, monitoring it throughout the cycle Should be completed annually. Checks that effective sterilisation is happening.
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Sterilisation indicators
External - used every time and shows exposure to sterilisation (on the bag itself) Internal - placed within the pack, used especially if large and bulky (TST strips)
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What types of sterilisation indicators are used?
Browne’s tubes - not often used anymore - glass tubes containing liquid which change colour Bowie dick tape - beige tape with chemical strips change colour when exposed to a temp of 121 degrees Sterilisation pouches - has an indicator on the pouch that changes colour Chemical indicator strips (TST) - placed inside the pouch and changes colour Spore testing strip - strips with dried bacterial spores inside placed within the load. No growth means sterilisation was effective. Have to be placed onto culture medium + incubated for 72 hours. Ethylene oxide dosemeter strips - thin tube containing material that changes from yellow to blue after EO exposure time. Ethylene oxide indicator stickers - stuck on outside of pack. Yellow dot that changes to blue after prolonged exposure to EO. Can change colour after being exposed to daylight so store in darkness
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Define antimicrobial
Destroying or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms and especially pathogenic microorganisms
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Define antibacterial
Prevents the growth or spread of bacteria
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Define antibiotic
A drug Natural products of microbial metabolism which kill or inhibit the growth of other micro-organisms
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Define what a bactericidal antibiotic is
Antibiotic agents that kill bacterial organisms
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Define bacteriostatic
The agent that prevents the growth of bacteria
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Define the action ‘inhibition of the cell wall’
Prevents bacteria cell wall forming correctly
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Define the action ‘disruption of microbial cell membrane’
Change membrane permeability Affects transport in and out of
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Define the action ‘inhibition of protein synthesis’
Affect protein synthesis in ribosomes or nucleus preventing effective replication
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Define the action ‘interference with metabolic process’
Interfere with or inhibit folic acid production
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What is antibiotic resistance?
Resistance of bacteria to certain antibiotics or antimicrobials It can come from natural resistance, acquired resistance (natural) mutation or acquisition of new genes
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What are antimicrobial agents ?
Synthetic antimicrobials that are manufactured not natural
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What is a superbug ?
A bacterium that has resistance to more than 1 antibiotic/antimicrobial
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What do we need to consider when using antibacterials?
Spectrum of activity Site of infection Host factors Side effects Potential drug interactions Should only be used when absolutely necessary
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Antibiotic overuse
The more they are used the greater chance of bacteria developing resistant genes and these being passed on. This can make bacteria becoming resistant to one or more antibiotics Not finishing courses of antibiotics means the infection may not be cleared up and allows the possibility of further infections and infiltration of resistant genes making the same agent ineffective
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How can we minimise the risk of antibiotic resistance?
-more culture and sensitivity testing -using the right agent the first time around - eliminating infection before they can mutate -complete the course -only use if necessary
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What is MRSA and how is it transmitted?
Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus It is a bacteria (commensal) Staph infection Zoonotic Nosocomial infection Transmitted by contact with infected animals or fomites It can live harmlessly on the skin In a study 7-13% of nurses and vets were colonised with MRSA Acquired directly or indirectly through veterinary premises It can be prevented through good hygiene, PPE and cleaning
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What is C-Difficlile and how is it prevented
-clostridium difficile Causes diarrhoea (GI upset) Strains resistant to clindamycin and fluoroquinolones Zoonotic GI infections E-coli and salmonella Prevented through good infection control, hand hygiene, limit public access to hospital wards, correct disinfection use, clean everywhere
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Define contamination
Exposure of a host or tissue to microorganisms Not infection until the microorganisms have colonised the host
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Define colonisation
Microorganism multiplies within a host - leading to infection
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Define infection
Microorganism has ‘colonised’ the host and is multiplying in numbers Causing clinical signs Infections causing harm to the host are ‘pathogenic’
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What is a disease?
A state in which normal functions are disturbed or altered at cellular, tissue, organ or whole organism level
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What is a disorder?
An illness that disrupts normal physical or mental functions
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What is an infectious disease?
An illness caused by harmful agents (pathogens) that get into your body
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What is a non-infectious disease
Diseases that are not spread through infection or through people, but are typically caused by unhealthy behaviours
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What is a contagious disease?
A disease that can spread rapidly from person to person through direct contact, indirect contact or droplet contact (inc parasites)
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What is a pathogen
Any disease producing agent or microorganism To produce disease an infectious organism must overcome the animals external and internal defence mechanisms In order to trigger disease pathogens need to; -penetrate host defences and establish themselves -multiply on or within the host -harm the host in some way
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Capacity of infection is determined by?
The infective dose The virulence of the agent
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Capacity of a pathogen to spread depends on?
Transmissibility (ability to pass from host to host and ability to survive outside the body) Infectivity (ability to penetrate host defences) Pathogenicity (ability of the pathogen to cause disease)
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What is horizontal transmission ?
From direct or indirect spread between individuals of the same generation
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What is vertical transmission?
From dam to offspring Hereditary carried within the genome of either parent Congenital present at birth (either in birth, during birth or colostrum)
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What is direct contact ?
Physical contact Skin surfaces - licking, sleeping, grooming, fighting Microorganisms cant normally survive for long in the environment
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What is indirect contact ?
No physical contact Animal contaminates the environment with body fluids Microorganisms transported on fomites or by vectors Can survive in the environment - varying periods
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What is a reservoir ?
The habitat in which the infectious agent normally lives, grows and multiples. They can inc humans, animals and the environment Can be where the agent is transferred to the host
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What is a fomite?
A contaminated inanimate object E.g. table, litter tray, floor
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What is a vector ?
An animate object that carries microorganisms Grouped into: biological vector and mechanical (fomites or people carrying disease on shoes)
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What is a transport host?
Able to pass infection to other susceptible hosts. Transport host remains unaffected and acts to maintain viability of other microorganisms
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What is a paratenic host?
A species that is not the normal host for a parasite but may be used opportunistically by them. Acts as a carrier only. No development of the parasite occurs within this host Paratenic host must be eaten to pass on infection
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What is an intermediate host?
One that shelters the parasite during its immature stage
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What is a definitive/final host?
One that harbours the parasite during its adult sexual stage
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Infectious diseases pass from one animal to another in 3 stages
1. Pathogen leaves infected animal 2. Pathogen passes between infected animal and susceptible animal 3. Pathogen enters susceptible animal Time taken for this process can range from milliseconds to years depending on the pathogen
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What is a carrier ?
Animals that harbour a pathogen but show minimal or no sign of the disease They secrete pathogens at intervals
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What are convalescent carriers ?
Recovered from clinical disease -cat flu (FHV and FCV) -leptospirosis and canine infectious hepatitis
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What are healthy carriers ?
Been exposed to infection but show no signs of disease Patient is said to be immune to that microorganism E.g - haemobartonella Felis and campylobacter
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What is a continuous excretor ?
Can infect other animals at any time (E.g - cats with FCV shed virus continuously following apparent recovery but most eliminate infection in a few months) Can remain sub clinically infected for years
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What are intermittent excretors?
-excrete organisms under stress E.g - cats with FHV carry the infection and shed virus throughout life, intermittently, with or without signs of disease, virus dormant between sheds
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How do pathogens gain entry to a host?
Ingestion Inhalation Direct MM Through skin/via skin surface Congenital
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How do pathogens trigger disease
-cells may be destroyed by the pathogen itself -biological poisons -response of immune system
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What is an incubation period
The interval between contact with the microorganisms and clinical signs of disease Could be a few days, weeks or years Speed of infection depends on: agent factors (dose and virulence) and host factors
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Prevention of disease transmission
-PPE -hand hygiene -isolation wards -cleaning -personal hygiene -barrier nursing -disinfecting and sterilising equipment -treatment -vaccinations -educating owners
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Define isolation
The segregation of an animal or group of animals that are suspected of having or proven to have a contagious disease
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Define quarantine
This is the compulsory isolation of animals with unknown disease status for a period of time Applies to new animal stock and for pet travel abroad
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Define barrier nursing
Creates a ‘barrier’ between the infectious animals and the nursing staff and other animals Usually in conjunction with isolation but can be used on its own if isolation facilities are not available
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Define protective isolation
Known as reverse isolation Involves the isolation of susceptible animals to protect them from potential sources of infections
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Isolation and PPE risk table
Level 0 = room empty, no risk, no PPE needed Level 1 = vaccinated pets, minimal risk to other patients. gloves and apron Level 2 = quarantine, wild animals, unknown vaccination/disease status, apparently healthy, moderate risk to others, all PPE worn Level 3 = known/suspected infectious condition. High risk, hand disinfectant, foot bath, all PPE worn and appropriately disposed of. Level 4 = known/suspected zoonosis, barrier nursing, risk to patients, staff and clients, all PPE worn and appropriately disposed off, foot bath etc.
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Define obligate aerobes
Must have oxygen for growth
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Define obligate anaerobes
Can only grow in the absence of oxygen
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Define facultative anaerobes
Grow aerobically when oxygen is present but can also function in the absence of oxygen