VIVA: Pathology - Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of thrombotic pulmonary embolism (PE)

A
  • PEs originate from deep vein thrombosis* (95% from lower limb)
  • Fragmented thrombi from DVTs are carried through the venous system and into the right side of the heart before lodging in the pulmonary arterial vasculature*, including the main pulmonary artery, pulmonary artery bifurcation or smaller branching arteries

*needed to pass

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2
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism?

A
  • Clinical manifestations depend on size and location of the thrombus in the pulmonary vasculature
  • Most PEs (60-80%) are small and produce no symptoms or signs
  • Symptoms include pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, cough, haemoptysis and collapse/syncope*
  • Signs include hypoxaemia, tachypnoea, hypotension, fever, acute right heart failure, pleural rub, shock, sudden death*

*total of 5 symptoms and signs to pass

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3
Q

List two other types of emboli

A

2 to pass:
- Fat (bone marrow)
- Air, other gas
- Amniotic fluid
- Foreign body (e.g. fragment of catheter)

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4
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of ARDS

A

Type of acute lung injury:
- Initial injury to alveolar capillary membrane* (endothelium)
- Acute inflammatory response* (neutrophil-mediated)
- Results in increased vascular permeability* and alveolar flooding
- Fibrin deposition
- Formation of hyaline membranes
- Widespread surfactant abnormalities* (damage to type II pneumocytes)
- Eventually leads to organisation with scarring

*3/4 needed to pass

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5
Q

What conditions are associated with the development of ARDS?

A
  • Infection*: sepsis, diffuse pulmonary infection, gastric aspiration
  • Physical/injury: head trauma, pulmonary trauma, fractures, near drowning, burns, radiation
  • Inhaled irritants: O2 toxicity, smoke, irritant gases and chemicals
  • Chemical injury: opiates, barbiturates, paraquat, acetylsalicylic acid, gastric aspiration
  • Haematological conditions: multiple transfusions, DIC
  • Other: pancreatitis, uraemia, cardiopulmonary bypass, hypersensitivity, organic solvents, drugs

*needed to pass + 2 other categories with 1 example each

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6
Q

What is the definition of asthma?

A

Asthma is a chronic disorder of the conducting airways, usually caused by immunological reaction, which is marked by:
- Episodic bronchoconstriction* due to increased airway sensitivity to a variety of stimulation
- Inflammation* of the bronchial walls
- Increased mucus secretion*

*needed to pass

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7
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of acute atopic asthma

A
  • Classic example of IgE-mediated (type I) hypersensitivity*
  • Atopic triggers: environmental allergens (e.g. dust, pollens, dander, food)
  • On re-exposure to antigen, the Ag induces cross-linking of IgE bound to Fc receptors on mast cells
  • Mast cells degranulate* and release preformed mediators that act directly and via neuronal reflexes to induce bronchospasm, increased vascular permeability, mucus production, and recruitment of leucocytes

*needed to pass

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8
Q

What are the potential triggers agents for non-atopic asthma?

A

2 to pass:
1. Non-atopic:
- Respiratory viruses
- Air pollutants
- Exercise
- Cold
2. Drug-induced (e.g. aspirin)
3. Occupational triggers:
- Fumes (e.g. epoxy resins, plastics)
- Organic and chemical dusts (e.g. wood, cotton, platinum)
- Gases (e.g. toluene)
- Other chemical (e.g. formaldehyde, penicillin products)
4. Asthmatic bronchitis in smokers

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9
Q

Name the main inflammatory cells involved in the pathogenesis of asthma

A

Wide range of inflammatory cells are involved, including (2 to pass):
- Lymphyocytes
- Eosinophils
- Mast cells
- Macrophages
- Neutrophils

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10
Q

How is asthma categorised pathologically?

A

2/4 to pass:
1. Atopic:
- Most common
- IgE-mediated (type I) hypersensitivity reaction
- Also involves TH2 cells
- Characterised by an immediate (bronchoconstriction) and late-phase (inflammation) reactions
- TH2 cytokines including IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13 are important mediators (IL-17 and IL-9 in some)
2. Non-atopic:
- No evidence of allergen sensitisation and negative skin test
- Family Hx is rare
3. Drug-induced (e.g. aspirin)
4. Occupational (e.g. epoxy fumes)

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11
Q

Name some common triggers of asthma

A

Atopic:
- Environmental factors (e.g. dust, pollens, food) in synergy with other pro-inflammatory cofactors such as respiratory viral infection
- Positive family Hx and skin test for allergens

Non-atopic:
- Triggers are less clear
- Viral respiratory infections (e.g. rhinovirus, parainfluenza, RSV)
- Inhaled air pollutants (e.g. smoking, sulfur dioxide, ozone, nitrogen dioxide)
- Exercise-induced
- Exposure to cold

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12
Q

What are the pathological features of acute asthma?

A

3/4 to pass:
- Increased airway responsiveness
- Episodic bronchoconstriction
- Bronchial wall inflammation
- Increased mucus

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13
Q

What happens in the early phase reaction in atopic asthma?

A
  • Allergen exposure* produces IgE
  • Re-exposure triggers mast cell degranulation and cytokine release
  • Mediators induce bronchoconstriction, mucus production, and vascular changes (vasodilation, increased vascular permeability)

*needed to pass + concept

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14
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Bronchiectasis is a disease characterised by permanent dilation of bronchi* and bronchioles caused by the destruction of the smooth muscle and elastic tissue *, resulting from or associated with chronic necrotising infections *
Also involves scarring and persistent infection

*needed to pass

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15
Q

What conditions are associated with the development of bronchiectasis?

A

4 examples to pass:
1. Congenital/hereditary:
- Cystic fibrosis
- Immunodeficiency
- Ciliary dyskinesia
- Kartagener’s syndrome
2. Post-infectious (necrotising pneumonia):
- Staph aureus
- Haemophilus
- TB
- Pseudomonas
- Adenovirus
- HIV
- Influenza
- Fungi
- Aspergillosis
3. Bronchial obstruction:
- Tumour, foreign body, mucous impaction
4. Other:
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- SLE
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Post transplantation
5. Idiopathic (25-50%)

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16
Q

Name some risk factors for pulmonary embolism

A
  1. Primary*:
    - Factor V Leiden
    - Antiphospholipid syndrome
    - Prothrombin mutations
  2. Secondary*:
    - Obesity
    - OCP
    - Cancer
    - Immobilisation
    - Long haul flights
    - Pregnancy
    - Indwelling central venous line
    - Hip fracture

*1 primary and 3 secondary needed to pass

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17
Q

What factors determine the severity of pathophysiological response to pulmonary embolism?

A
  1. Extent of pulmonary artery blood flow obstructed*
  2. Size of vessel occluded
  3. Number of emboli
  4. Overall cardiovascular status
  5. Release of vasoactive factors (e.g. TxA2)

*needed to pass (or 2 others)

18
Q

What is emphysema?

A

Chronic lung condition characterised by irreversible enlargement * of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchiole *, accompanied by destruction of alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis *

*2/3 to pass

19
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of emphysema

A
  1. Loss of cellular homeostasis:
    - Caused by exposure to toxic substances * such as tobacco smoke and inhaled pollutants
    - Induces ongoing inflammation, epithelial cell death and ECM proteolysis
  2. Mild chronic inflammation *:
    - Accumulation of neutrophils, macrophages and lymphocytes and release of mediators (e.g. LTB4, IL-8, TNF), elastases and oxidants which cause epithelial injury and proteolysis of the ECM
  3. Protease-antiprotease imbalance *:
    - Destructive effect of high protease activity in patients with low anti-protease activity (1% of patients with emphysema have alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency, which normally inhibits protease activity)
    - Elastin degradation * products further increase the inflammation
  4. Oxidant-antioxidant imbalance *:
    - Abundant reactive oxygen species (e.g. superoxide dismutase, glutathione) in smoke depletes antioxidant mechanisms and incites tissue damage
  5. End result is destruction of the alveolar walls without fibrosis

*2 to pass

20
Q

How do the clinical features of emphysema differ from those with chronic bronchitis?

A

“Pink puffer” (emphysema)*:
- Barrel-chested, dyspnoeic, prolonged expiration, hyperventilation
- Relatively normal gas exchange until late in disease

“Blue bloater” (chronic bronchitis)*:
- Hx of recurrent chest infections with purulent sputum
- Less dyspnoea, decreased respiratory drive
- Patient is hypoxic and cyanotic
- Peripheral oedema results from cor pulmonale and RV failure

*2 distinguishing clinical features

21
Q

What are the possible complications of emphysema?

A

3 to pass:
- Bullous lung disease
- Expiratory airflow limitation
- Infection
- Respiratory failure
- Pneumothorax
- Cor pulmonale, congestive heart failure (“pink puffers”)

22
Q

What factors predispose to lung carcinoma?

A
  1. Tobacco smoking:
    - 10x increase in risk
    - Statistically associated with daily amount, inhalation tendency, duration of habit, histologic changes in respiratory epithelium
  2. Environmental exposures:
    - Radiation
    - Asbestos
    - Air pollution (particulates, radon)
    - Occupational inhaled substances (nickel, chromates, arsenic, uranium)
  3. Genetic mechanisms:
    - Dominant oncogenes (c-MYC, k-RAS)
    - Loss of tumour suppressor genes (e.g. p53, RB)
  4. Precursor lesions:
    - Squamous dysplasia
    - Carcinoma in situ
    - Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
    - Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia
23
Q

What are the classic clinical features of lung carcinoma?

A

3/4 to pass:
- Cough (75%) and haemoptysis
- Weight loss (40%)
- Chest pain (40%)
- Dyspnoea (20%)

24
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with lung carcinoma?

A

Clinically significant in 1-10% of patients:
- SIADH* (hyponatraemia; predominantly small cell)
- ACTH* (Cushing’s syndrome; predominantly small cell)
- PTH, PTHrP or PGE* (hypercalcaemia; predominantly small and squamous cell)
- Calcitonin (hypocalcaemia)
- Gonadotropins (gynaecomastia)
- 5HT, bradykinin (carcinoid syndrome)
- Others: Lambert-Eaton myaesthenic syndromes, peripheral neuropathy, acanthosis nigricans, clubbing (hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy)

*2/3 to pass + 1 other

25
Q

What are the main categories of primary lung cancer?

A
  1. Adenocarcinoma* (more common in females)
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma* (more common in males)
  3. Small cell carcinoma* (very malignant)
  4. Large cell carcinoma (undifferentiated)

*needed to pass

26
Q

What are the pathways by which a malignant tumour may spread?

A
  • Local invasion*
  • Direct seeding* of cavities/surfaces
  • Lymphatics*
  • Haematogenous*
  • Surgical instruments/nerves

*3/4 to pass

27
Q

What are the clinical effects of local lung tumour spread?

A
  • Airway obstruction leading to pneumonia, abscess formation, lobar collapse, lipoid pneumonia*
  • Obstruction of SVC leading to SVC syndrome*
  • Pleural effusion*
  • Pericarditis or pericardial tamponade*
  • Hoarseness* (recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy)
  • Dysphagia* (oesophageal invasion)
  • Rib destruction
  • Diaphragmatic paralysis* (phrenic nerve)
  • Horner syndrome* (sympathetic ganglia)

*5/8 needed to pass

28
Q

Describe the two patterns of anatomic distribution for bacterial pneumonia

A

Patterns overlap, patchy involvement may become confluent producing lobar consolidation

  1. Bronchopneumonia:
    - Patchy consolidation of the lung
    - Areas of acute suppurative inflammation
    - May be patchy through one lobe but is more often multilobar and frequently bilateral and basal (because of tendency of secretions to gravitate into the lower lobes)
  2. Lobar pneumonia:
    - Fibrinosuppurative consolidation of a large portion of lobe or an entire lobe
29
Q

What are the clinical features of an atypical pneumonia?

A
  1. Extrapulmonary symptoms*:
    - Fever
    - Malaise
    - Headache
    - Arthralgias
  2. Pulmonary symptoms*:
    - Dry cough
    - Shortness of breath
    - Chest pain

*3 to pass including 1 pulmonary and 1 extrapulmonary

30
Q

Which risk factors predispose to the development of bacterial pneumonia?

A

2 to pass:
1. Extremes of age
2. Chronic diseases (e.g. CCF, COPD, DM)
3. Immune deficiency:
- Congenital or acquired
- Decreased or absent splenic function (e.g. sickle cell disease, post-splenectomy)
4. Other:
- Malnutrition
- Alcoholism
- Neurological / swallowing disorders (increased risk of aspiration)
- Recent viral infection (especially for staphylococcal pneumonias)
- IVDU (especially for staphylococcal pneumonias)

31
Q

Which serious complications may develop as a consequence of pneumonia?

A
  • Abscess formation* (tissue destruction and necrosis causing abscess formation, particularly common with type 3 pneumococci or Klebsiella infections)
  • Empyema* (spread of infection to the pleural cavity, causing the intrapleural fibrinosuppurative reaction)
  • Bacteraemic dissemination* (e.g. sepsis, endocarditis, meningitis, pericarditis, suppurative arthritis)
  • Local extension causing pleuritis
  • Parapneumonic effusion
  • Respiratory failure/ARDS
  • Bronchopleural fistula
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Sepsis
  • Death

*2/3 to pass + 1 other

32
Q

Describe the stages of the inflammatory response seen in lobar pneumonia

A

3/4 to pass:
1. Congestion:
- Vascular engorgement
- Intra-alveolar fluid with few neutrophils and often the presence of numerous bacteria
- Lung appears heavy, boggy and red
2. Red hepatisation:
- Massive confluent exudation with neutrophils, red cells and fibrin filling the alveolar spaces
- Lobe appears red, firm and airless with a liver-like consistency
3. Grey hepatisation:
- Progressive disintegration of red cells and the persistence of a fibrinosuppurative exudate
- Lobe appears greyish-brown with a dry surface
4. Resolution:
- Exudate within the alveolar spaces undergoes progressive enzymatic digestion to produce granular, semifluid debris that is resorbed, ingested by macrophages, expectorated or organised by fibroblast growing into it

33
Q

What are the most common causes of bacterial community-acquired pneumonia?

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae*
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Legionella pneumoniae

*needed to pass + 2 others

34
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of aspiration pneumonia

A
  • Aspiration of gastric contents* (increased risk in patients with reduced consciousness, other debilitation, abnormal gag reflex, recurrent vomiting)
  • Chemical injury and bacterial infection*
  • Usually polymicrobial* (aerobes > anaerobes)
  • Necrotising*
  • Cause abscess*, may result in death

*4 to pass

35
Q

How do community-acquired pneumonias differ from aspiration pneumonia?

A

5 to pass:
- May be bacterial or viral
- Variable pneumonia (bronchopneumonia vs lobar) dependent on aetiology and host response
- Extremes of age and chronic disease increase risk
- Typical agents include streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae
- Clinical course modified by antibiotics
- Lower rates of hospitalisation and death
- Complications include empyema, endocarditis, pericarditis, meningitis

36
Q

How do the clinical features of atypical pneumonias differ from classic (typical) pneumonias?

A
  • Moderate sputum
  • Cough not prominent
  • Typical fevers are fever, headache and myalgias
  • No physical findings of consolidation
  • Only moderate increase in WCC
  • Lower mortality compared with classic pneumonia
37
Q

Outline the natural history and spectrum of TB

A
  1. Primary infection
  2. Primary complex* formed:
    - Local caseation
    - Ghon complex is primary TB with mediastinal nodes
  3. Primary complex may heal (organisms not viable) or lead to latent lesion (organisms viable)
  4. Latent period* OR progressive primary TB (latter may lead to miliary TB)
  5. Latent lesion can be reactivated leading to secondary TB* (reinfection may also lead to secondary TB)
  6. Secondary TB occurs as localised (pulmonary or extrapulmonary) caseating destructive lesions OR progressive secondary TB
  7. Progressive secondary TB may lead to miliary TB*

*needed to pass

38
Q

How is TB diagnosed?

A
  1. Clinical features* in at-risk patients on Hx and Ex, and apical lung consolidation/cavitation on CXR*
  2. Microbiological confirmation:
    - Acid fast smears and cultures (3-6 weeks solid agar media, 2 weeks liquid media)
    - PCR
  3. Other (e.g. Mantoux test / tuberculin skin test)

*needed to pass

39
Q

What is secondary tuberculosis?

A

Pattern of disease that arises in a previously sensitised host

40
Q

How may infection occur in secondary tuberculosis?

A
  • May follow shortly after primary infection (<5%)
  • Reactivation of latent organisms* (typically in areas of low disease prevalence)
  • Reinfection* (typical in regions of high prevalence)

*needed to pass

41
Q

Describe the pathological features in the lung of secondary infection with TB

A
  • Lesion in apical upper lobe*
  • Area of inflammation / granuloma* / multinucleate giant cells
  • Central caseous necrosis*
  • Cavitation*
  • Healing with fibrosis and calcification*
  • +/- complications including tissue destruction, erosion of blood vessels, miliary spread, pleural effusion, empyema and fibrous pleuritis

*3 to pass

42
Q

What organisms cause community-acquired pneumonia?

A
  1. Bacterial:
    - Streptococcus pneumoniae*
    - Haemophilus influenzae
    - Moraxella catarrhalis
    - Staphylococcus aureus
    - Klebsiella
    - Pseudomonas
  2. Atypical organisms:
    - Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    - Chlamydiae spp
    - Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)
    - Legionella pneumophila
  3. Viral:
    - RSV
    - Parainfluenza
    - Influenza A and B
    - Adenovirus
    - SARS, H1N1

*needed to pass + 2 other bacterial, 1 atypical and 1 viral