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Jonathan's Neuroscience > Vision > Flashcards

Vision Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the supraorbital notch? What passes through the notch?

A

half way of the supraorbital margin

supraorbital artery, vein and nerve

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2
Q

What forms the roof of the orbit?

A

frontal bone, lesser wing of sphenoid

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3
Q

what forms the floor of the orbit

A

maxilla, zygomatic and tiny pit of palatine

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4
Q

What forms the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

zygomatic, greater wing of sphenoid

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5
Q

what forms the medial wall of the orbit

A

maxilla, lacrimal bone, ethmoid, body of the sphenoid

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6
Q

Which bones are very susceptible to fracture

A

ethmoid and lacrimal

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7
Q

How much of the eyeball is formed by the sclera?

A

5/6

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8
Q

What is the function of the sclera

A

maintain shape of globe
offer resistance to internal and external forces
provide attachments for extra-ocular muscles

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9
Q

why is sclera so hard to dissect?

A

there is a lot of collagen laid down in whirls to offer extra strength

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10
Q

What is the function of the cornea? Where is it in the eyeball?

A

does 60% of the refraction for the eye

it’s found on the anterior 1/6th of the eye

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11
Q

What makes the cornea ideal for vision?

A

it’s avascular and transparent

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12
Q

how many layers are in the cornea? What are the names of the layers

A 
five 
epithelium 
Bowman's 
Stroma
descemet's membrane 
endothelium
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13
Q

the epithelium is a ______ membrane
the stroma is full of _______ and is continuous with _______

the endothelium is very specialised because it does not _____ or _______. It controls _________, and any damage will cause the cornea to _______

A 
mucus
collagen 
sclera 
divide 
regenerate 
water balance 
swell
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14
Q

What is the makeup of the cornea? How does it make the cornea transparent?

A

packets of collagen laid down in organised layers
adjacent lamellae lie at angles to each other but fibrils within a lamella run in parallel

this creates “destructive interference”, where there is no interruption for light to pass

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15
Q

The collage fibrils of cornea are _______ spaced and ______ in diameter. There are about ________ lamellae in the stroma.

A

evenly
uniform
200-300

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16
Q

why is the sclera is opaque

A

all collagen fibres are at different size and length

the layers are not organised

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17
Q

When there is damage to the cornea, to what extent will there be scarring?

A

if the stroma is damaged, the ordered layers might be disrupted, so you may get corneal scar

damage to endothelium is irreversible

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18
Q

Where is the anterior chamber angle

A

it’s at the junction of iris and cornea

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19
Q

what is the function of anterior chamber angle?

A

it’s the draining site for the aqueous humour of the eye

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20
Q

what happens if the fluid is not drained?

A

pressure builds up inside the orbit

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21
Q

How is the aqueous humour produced and where does it travel to?

A

It is produced in the ciliary body, passes through the pupil, and drains via the anterior chamber angle, through trabecular meshwork, into the canal of Schlemm then to the exterior

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22
Q

what is the uvea made of?

A

ciliary body, iris, and choroid

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23
Q

What are the functions of ciliary body

A

formation of aqueous humour
tethers lens via ciliary process
accommodation via ciliary muscle

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24
Q

what are ciliary processes

A

epithelial-like cells that form aqueous humour

the most medial area has ligaments that attach to the lens

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25
Q

What are the ligaments of ciliary processes called?

A

zonules

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26
Q

what is the most important fibre of ciliary muscle? What is it innervated by?

A

circular muscle, innervated by PNS from CNIII

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27
Q

When we try to look close up, the ciliary muscle ______, and the ______ in the zonules is lost, making the lens ______

When we try to look in the distance, the ciliary muscle _____, providing tension on the ________, which ______ the lens

A

contracts
tension
bulgy

relaxes
zonules
flattens

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28
Q

What is presbyopia

A

the loss of accommodation with age because the lens is inflexible and cannot change shape as well

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29
Q

Iris is the ________ of the eye which forms the _______. There are two muscles - SNS innervates __________, which ______ the pupil, and PNS innervates ___________, which _______ the pupil

A 
aperture 
pupil
dilator pupillae 
dilates
sphincter pupillae 
constricts
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30
Q

What is the function of choroid?

A

has blood supply and provides nutrition for mostly the outer retina

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31
Q

How many layers are there in the choroid? Which layer is the most important layer

A

3 layers

choriocapillaris

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32
Q

what is the edge of the retina called?

A

Orra serrata

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33
Q

what is the relationship between the fovea and macula

A

macula is a yellow colour spot in the retina, whereas fovea is an area within the macula which has highest density of cones

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34
Q

T/F the retina is made of layers of neurons

A

True, with 6 principle types of neurons

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35
Q

List 4 properties of the fovea

A

high visual acuity
avascular
high density of cones
no rods

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36
Q

T/F The fovea contains layers of neurons

A

False, everything is shuffled aside except for photoreceptors

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37
Q

What is the lamina cribosa?

A

A patchy section of sclera that crosses the path of the optic nerve

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38
Q

How much sclera continues as the lamina cribosa? How much continues parallel with the optic nerve

A

1/3 forming the lamina cribosa

2/3 parallel to optic nerve

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39
Q

how is lamina cribosa related to eye pathology?

A

Because the sclera is patchy, it is more sensitive to change in intra-ocular pressure, hence can contribute to optic nerve damage where there is increased pressure

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40
Q

Which arterial branch gives tributaries for the blood supply of the eye

A

opthalmic artery, first branch of the internal carotid

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41
Q

What are the main arteries supplying the eye?

A

central retinal artery
long and short posterior ciliary artery
anterior ciliary artery

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42
Q

Which artery pierces the optic nerve? Which arteries pierces the globe?

A

central retinal artery

central retinal, long and short posterior ciliary artery

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43
Q

where the the anterior ciliary artery pierce the globe?

A

travels with a muscle and pierces at the conjunctiva

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44
Q

Describe the dual blood supply of the retina

A

the inner retina is supplied by the central retinal artery

the outer retina is supplied by the posterior ciliary artery

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45
Q

what structures can be found on the eyelids?

A 
skin
glands and eyelashes
conjuntiva 
muscles 
lacrimal apparatus
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46
Q

what are the muscles of the eyelid and what are their function?

A

orbicularis oculi - sphincter muscle to depress upper lid

levator palpebrae superosis - elevates upper lid

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47
Q

What are the two muscles of the eyelid supplied by? Do they ever work with each other?

A

LPS supplied by CNIII
Orbicularis Oculi supplied by CNVII

No, when one contracts, the other always relaxes

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48
Q

What is the macula densa important for?

A

central vision

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49
Q

What are the two fundamental factors affecting visual acuity?

A

neural and optical factors

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50
Q

What is visual acuity

A

the ability to see fine detail

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51
Q

How is visual acuity tested?

A

by the Snellen or LogMAR chart

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52
Q

What does a Snellen result of 6/12 mean?

A

what a normal person sees at 12m distance, a 6/12 person needs to be at 6m to see it

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53
Q

What are the optical factors affecting visual acuity?

A

pupil size
clarity of optical media
refractive error

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54
Q

What is cataract?

A

clouding of the lens

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55
Q 
Define each term 
Myopia 
Hypermetropia
Astigmatism
Presbyopia
A 
Myopia = short-sighted
Hypermetropia = long-sighted
astigmatism = deviation from spherical curvature
presbyopia = long-sightedness due to ageing and lack of elasticity of the lens
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56
Q

Define

1) photopic

2) scotopic

A

1) related to daytime

2) related to night time

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57
Q

What is vision at the fovea determined by?

A

the number of cones

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58
Q

where is the
1) cones
2) rods
most concentrated?

A

1) at the fovea

2) at ~8 degrees off the centre of retina

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59
Q

What are the six principle retinal neurons?

A

rods, cones, bipolar, horizontal, amacrine, ganglion cells

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60
Q

What cells are found in the outer and inner plexiform layer of the retina

A

outer: photoreceptors and horizontal cells
inner: bipolar cells and amacrine cells

61
Q

Why do cones provide better visual acuity when rods outnumber cones 20:1

A

connectivity - cones have one to one relationship with ganglion cells, whereas many rods integrate signals onto a ganglion cell

62
Q

Which cells are responsible for lateral interactions

A

horizontal and amacrine cells

63
Q

How many types of bipolar cells can be found in the retina?

A

10 - 1 type of rod bipolar, and 9 types of cone bipolar

64
Q

There are two broad types of bipolar cells - the off BCs ________ when excited, and the on BCs _______ when excited

A

hyperpolarise

depolarise

65
Q

Horizontal cell is important for _________ . It receives inputs and outputs to the _________ and signals via the neurotransmitter ________. Hence, HC is mostly _______

A

lateral inhibition
photoreceptors
GABA
inhibitory

66
Q

There are many types of amacrine cells, but structurally, they are ________ and is important for ________ . They use neurotransmitters like _____ and _____ , and is important for detecting ________

A 
axonless
lateral inhibition 
GABA 
glycine 
movements
67
Q

There are many types of Ganglion cells, but _____ and ______ are the most important types. _______ is the main neurotransmitter. GCs are the first cell of visual pathway to __________

A

magnocellular
parvocellular
glutamate
fire action potentials

68
Q

T/F the retina is purely a light detector

A

False, it also detects contrast

69
Q

How do ganglion cells respond to light?

A

increase or decrease the rate of firing action potentials

70
Q

Do neuro signals differ when light is shown onto different parts of the receptive field? If so, how does it differ?

A

Yes
light on the centre of receptive field will increase AP rate
light on the surrounding of receptive field will decrease AP rate

71
Q

How does light get transduced to neural impulse?

A

the opsin, attaching to retinal, is activated by light. This changes the conformation of cis-retinal to trans-retinal, and dissociates the opsin so it activates transducin, which activates phosphodiesterase

phosphodiesterase decreases cGMP level, and closes Na channel and reduces Na influx, so the cell hyperpolarises

72
Q

T/F Only ON bipolar cells activate with light signal

A

False, OFF and ON both get switched on at the same synapse

73
Q

When light is on, the photoreceptor will be ________, leading to a _______ of glutamate release. Glutamate is _______ to the ON cell and _______ to the OFF cell. Therefore, the _______ of glutamate will lift the _______ on the ON cell, and it will ________. The opposite will occur to OFF cell, and it will _________ .

A 
hyperpolarised 
reduction 
inhibitory 
excitatory 
reduction 
inhibition 
depolarise 
hyperpolarise
74
Q

When light shines on the surrounding photoreceptor, the photoreceptor _______ and there is a _______ in glutamate. Glutamate is ________ to horizontal cell, so a ______ of glutamate will _______ the horizontal cell and ______ the amount of GABA released, therefore further _______ the ON bipolar cell

A 
hyperpolarises 
reduction 
excitatory 
reduction 
hyperpolarise 
reduce 
depolarise
75
Q

what is glaucoma

A

group of ocular disorder that ultimately leads to increased intra-ocular pressure

76
Q

What do M cells look like and what do they detect?

A

they have large cell body and large dendritic tree

it detects motion

77
Q

what do P cells like look like? What proportion of GCs are P cells? What do they detect?

A

P cells are small cells with small dendrites. 80% of the GCs are P cells. They detect colour and visual acuity

78
Q

Where do most of the GCs go to make synaptic connection?

A

the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus

79
Q

Where is the optic chiasm?

A

at the base of the brain anterior to the pituitary, with internal carotid arteries on either side

80
Q

where do information from the temporal visual field go to in the retina?

A

the photoreceptors on the nasal side

81
Q

where GCs cross at the optic chiasm?

A

the nasal GCs, carrying information for the temporal visual fields

82
Q

What is the most common cause of optic chiasm lesion? What happen to the visual field?

A

pituitary macroadenoma

bitemporal hemianopia

83
Q

What does the LGN act as for the visual neurons?

A

a relay station

84
Q

What is the segregation of visual information at the LGN based on 1) L/R eyes 2) types of cells

A

1) Left side goes to layers 1,4,6, right side to 2,3,5

2) P cells to 3,4,5,6 M cells to 1,2

85
Q

What is the name of the axon tract after the LGN? Where does it go to?

A

optic radiation to the occipital lobe primary visual cortex

86
Q

What area number is V1?

A

area 17

87
Q

Where is the occipital lobe? Where is V1 in particular?

A

occipital lobe is around the calcarine fissure

V1 is in the medial occipital lobe, the most posterior area of the brain

88
Q

What does each contralateral visual cortex represent?

A

one half of the visual field

89
Q

What is the most posterior part of the primary visual cortex for?

A

Macula cortex for central vision

The more anterior it gets, the more peripheral the vision

90
Q

Is the visual signal inverted in the visual cortex?

A

Yes, the top left quadrant of the visual field is encoded in the bottom right part of the visual cortex (V1)

91
Q

What is occipital sparring

A

When there is avascular problem in the visual cortex, resulting in homonymous peripheral hemianopia and the central vision is sparred

This is because the macula cortex is supplied by a separate artery

92
Q

What will happen if lesion occurs in

1) before the chiasm
2) at the chiasm
3) post chiasm

A

1) unilateral blindness
2) bitemporal hemianopia
3) homonymous hemianopia

93
Q

Can GC cells still fire AP when the subject is blind? What do these cells target?

A

A proportion of the cells can (~4000 cells) as long as the retina is intact

There isn’t enough of them for vision, but they project to areas other than LGN

94
Q

What is the name of the GC that projects to areas other than the LGN?

A

Melanopsin ganglion cells, which contains photosensitive melanopsin which depolarises the GC

They are the visual pigments in invertebrates

95
Q

Why does migraine pain get worst with light exposure

A

Because of the intrinsically photosensitive melanopsin GCs that increases the sensitive of pain fibres

96
Q

Where do the GCs related to migraine project to?

A

posterior nucleus of the thalamus

97
Q

What is the pain sensation in migraine carried by?

A

from the dura, carried by CNV, which project to brainstem, and to posterior nucleus of thalamus (where GCs act)

98
Q

Is the pupil reflex lost in a blind person?

A

No, not if the retina is intact and the ipGCs are still present

99
Q

What is the pathway of the pupil reflex?

A

ipGCs leaves half way to the LGN, runs infero-medially to optical pretectal nucelus (OPN)

OPN sends two secondary interneurons to Edinger-westfal nuclei on both sides, and a third neuron carries info back anteriorly to the ciliary ganglion

Finally, an efferent neuron leaves the CG to control the Iris

100
Q

What is the function of the GCs that project to the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus?

A

driving circadian rhythm

101
Q

what is gaze?

A

stabilising an image of an object on the retina

102
Q

What are the two components controlling gaze?

A

oculomotor and head-movement systems

103
Q

What is saccadic eye movement

A

shifts the fovea rapidly to a new visual target

104
Q

what is smooth pursuit?

A

keeps the image of a moving target on the fovea in a slower fashion

105
Q

What is intorsion

A

movement that involves twisting the eyeball to nose

106
Q

What is extorsion

A

movement that involves twisting the eyeball away from nose

107
Q

What is the course of superior oblique muscle

A

projects medially from the tendinous ring, runs through the trochlea and turns laterally, goes under the superior rectus muscle and insert close to the lateral rectus

108
Q

What is the primary action of oblique muscles?

A

torsion, which is something that we can’t see. We see either elevation of depression

109
Q

how can ocular muscle actions be divided into primary, secondary, and tertiary?

A

because of the insertion angle. For example, the superior rectus inserts at a 23 degrees angle, which allows elevation and also a twisting action

110
Q

How do we isolate the movement of superior and inferior rectus muscles?

A

test the movement in eye abduction

111
Q

How do we isolate the movement of superior and inferior oblique muscles?

A

test the movement in eye adduction

112
Q

What is the action of superior oblique?

A

depress the eyeball (note that the insertion is posterior to the trochlea, so the pulley system depresses the eyeball)

113
Q

Describe the course of the inferior oblique

A

runs laterally from the trochlea. There is no pulley system for IO, and it inserts medially near the medial rectus

114
Q

How is the course of CNIV different to the two other ocular lower motor neurons?

A

CNIV crosses the midline before exiting the brainstem, hence innervates the contralateral lateral rectus muscle

115
Q

What is the function of medial longitudinal fasciculus

A

it is a white matter tract that connects the various cranial nerve nuclei

116
Q

If you can’t coordinate eye movement in the vertical direction, where would the lesion be?

A

in mesencephalic paramedian reticular formation of the midbrain

117
Q

What would happen if you have a lesion in the pontine paramedian reticular formation (PPRF)

A

lose coordination between medial and lateral rectus, thus cannot move in the horizontal direction

118
Q

What is the pattern of action potential for burst neurons

A

they fire at high frequency just before movements in saccade

Burst neurons drive movements

119
Q

what is the pattern of action potential for omnipause neurons

A

fires continuously during saccade. They fire all the time unless burst neurons are firing

120
Q

What is the role of omnipause neurons?

A

Omnipause neurons are GABA inhibitory. They tonically inhibit the action of lower motor neurons in order to fix the eye on a target

121
Q

When moving the eye to the left in saccade, the cortical neuron first reaches the burst neurons in _______, which further projects to ______ on the ipsilateral side. From there, one lower motor neuron will excite the _______ on the ________ eye, while another neuron will project to ________ oculomotor nucleus via ________, which excites the __________ medial rectus

A 
PPRF 
abducent nucleus 
lateral rectus 
ipsilateral (left)
contralateral 
medial longitudinal fasticulus 
contralateral
122
Q

T/F the left cortex controls the right brainstem in terms of eye movement

A

True, the decussation occurs just under the inferior colliculus.

123
Q

Which system provides information about the position of the head

A

vestibular system

124
Q

What is the role of

1) semicircular canal
2) otolith

A

1) send information regarding head position

2) send information regarding linear acceleration

125
Q

T/F with acceleration, the neurons of the vestibular centre will decrease firing rate

A

False, it will increase the firing rate

126
Q

When the head is turn to the right, the right vestibular system will ______ firing rate, while the left vestibular system will ______ firing rate

A

increase

decrease

127
Q

Which muscles do we want to contract in order to maintain central eye field if we move our head to the right? Which vestibular nucleus will be excited? Which abducens nucleus inhibited?

A

left lateral rectus and right medial rectus
right vestibular nucleus (in the direction of head movement)
left abducens nucleus (in the direction of excited lateral rectus)

128
Q

Where do LGN neurons project to?

A

the primary visual cortex

129
Q

Which zone is the major input zone of V1

A

layer 4

130
Q

which zone do M cells terminate at?

A

layer 4Ca

131
Q

which zone do P cells terminate at?

A

layer 4Cb

132
Q

Where do cells in layer 4Ca (motion) project to?

A

to layer 4B, which has special cells tuned for motion

133
Q

What special property do cells of layer 4B have?

A

some neurons show preference for directional movement. They respond best to bars of light moving in a specific directly

134
Q

What’s the proportion of the cortex responsible for vision?

A

40%

135
Q

Where does the dorsal stream project to and what does it process?

Where does it receive information from?

A

projects to area MT (middle temporal lobe), specialised for processing object motion

V2, V3, and 4B of V1

136
Q

In area MT, neurons have ________ receptive field and respond to _________. Almost all cells in area MT are ________, which respond to ________ or ________. A lesion in area MT will cause the visual images to be _______, and can only see ______ motion

A 
large 
movement 
directional selective 
drifting spots 
waves of light 
intermittent 
slow
137
Q

Which three primary colours create the images we see?

A

red, green, blue

138
Q

What determines the colour we see?

A

how much of each kind of photoreceptors are activated

139
Q

Red is always compared with ______

_______ is always compared with yellow

A

green

blue

140
Q

How do we maximally inhibit a red photoreceptor signal?

A

shine green light in the periphery

141
Q

T/F Shining blue light in central vision will maximally inhibit yellow from peripheral vision

A

True, blue and yellow are contrasting colours, and brain detects colour based on contrast

142
Q

What happens when red light is shone onto both central and peripheral visual fields?

A

red is detected and peripheral signals are deleted

143
Q

Area V4 is part of the ________ stream which receives inputs from _____ and V3 via _______. Neurons of V4 have ______ receptive fields that are both _______ and _______ selective. It is important for recognising object’s _____ and ____

A 
ventral 
V2 
V1 (4Cb) 
large 
orientation 
colour 
shape 
colour
144
Q

Where is area V4?

A

in the medial aspect of inferior temporal lobe

145
Q

Where do neurons from V4 project to? What is this area important for?

A

area IT
important for visual memory and perception of faces
neurons here are tuned to see faces

146
Q

What are the three groups of colour blindness?

A

Monochromacy - patient only has one type of cone
Dichromacy - patient has two functional cones
Anomalous trichromacy - most common, all cones working but one is problematic

147
Q

What is protanope? What is protanomal?

A

protanope - no red cone

protanomal - abnormal red cone

148
Q

What is deutanope?

A

no green cone

149
Q

what is tritanope?

A

no blue cone

Jonathan's Neuroscience (22 decks)

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