Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Micro > Viruses > Flashcards

Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

Basic morphology of a virus

A

Nucleic acid (DNA or RNA)
Capsid
Envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two types of RNA viruses?

A

+ stranded
- stranded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe positive stranded RNA viruses

A

RNA just like mRNA and can be translated immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe negative stranded RNA viruses

A

RNA needs to be transcribed into positive strand of RNA and the positive strand can then be translated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What special enzyme do negative RNA viruses carry?

A

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe DNA viruses

A

Have positive and negative strand (double stranded) and negative strand must be transcribed into mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two types of capsids?

A

Icosahedral symmetry capsids
Helical symmetry capsids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Only this type of virus (nucleic acid) makes helical symmetry capsids

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Viruses with membranes formed from the host cell’s glycoproteins

A

Enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Viruses without glycoprotein membranes

A

Naked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the acronym used to remember DNA viruses? And the viruses?

A

HHHAPPPy
Herpes
Hepadna
Adeno
Papova
Parvo
Pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe most DNA viruses

A

Double stranded icosahedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DNA viruses with envelopes

A

Herpes
Hepadna
Px

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Three naked DNA viruses

A

Papova
Adeno
Parvo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Description for most RNA viruses

A

Single stranded
Enveloped
Helical capsid symmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DNA or RNA virus- toga

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DNA or RNA virus- corona

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DNA or RNA virus- retro

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DNA or RNA virus- picorna

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DNA or RNA virus- herpes

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DNA or RNA virus- calci

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DNA or RNA virus- reo

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DNA or RNA virus- hepadna

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

DNA or RNA virus- adeno

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

DNA or RNA virus- flavi

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DNA or RNA virus- papova

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

DNA or RNA virus- orthomyxo

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DNA or RNA virus- paramyxo

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

DNA or RNA virus- rhabdo

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DNA or RNA virus- parvo

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DNA or RNA virus- pox

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DNA or RNA virus- bunya

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

DNA or RNA virus- arena

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DNA or RNA virus- filo

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What 3 RNA viruses are nonenveloped?

A

Picorna
Calici
Reoviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What 3 RNA viruses are nonenveloped?

A

Picorna
Calici
Reoviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Only double stranded RNA virus

A

Reovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acronym for positive rna

A

The calcified Pico spilled flavorful Corona on his retro toga

Calici
Pico
Flavi
Corona
Retro
Toga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Acronym for negative RNA viruses

A

Old Pete’s Rabid dog Filo fights Paul Bunyon in the Arena

Orthomyxo
Paramyxo
Rhabdo
Filo
Bunya
Arenaviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Viral replication steps

A

1) adsorption and penetration
2) uncoating of virus
3) synthesis and assembly of viral products
4) release of visions from host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 4 host cell outcomes of viral infection?

A

1) death
2) transformation
3) latent infection
4) chronic slow infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What important virus is in the orthomyxoviridae family?

A

Influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What important viruses are in the paramyxoviridae family?

A
  1. Parainfluenza virus
  2. respiratory syncytial virus
  3. Metapneumovirus
  4. Mumps virus
    5? Measles (rubeola) virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Main disease manifestations of parainfluenza and rsv in children

A

Bronchitis
Viral pneumonia
Croul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Main disease manifestations of parainfluenza and rsv in adults

A

Cold / flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Diseases caused by metapneumovirus.
Who is at highest risk?

A
  • uri / pro
    Young children and older adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Classic clinical symptoms of mumps

A

Parotitis
Testicular inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Classic clinical manifestation measles

A

Prodrome
Koplik’s spots
Rash
Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Symptoms flu

A

High fever
Chills
Headache
Malaise
Myalgias (muscle pain)
Dry cough
Sore throat
Rhinorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of flu causes pandemic influenza?

A

Influenza A virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Clinical manifestation with pandemic influenza

A

-primary pneumonia
- weakens immune system for secondary bacterial pneumonia / otitis media
Staph aureus
Haemophilus influenzae
Strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the two types of glycoproteins on influenza virus?

A

Hemagglutinin
Neuraminidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Purpose of hemagglutinin

A

Adsorption by fusing to sialic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Purpose of neuraminidase

A

Cleaves cell mucin barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the three types of influenza?

A

A
B
C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What animals can be infected by influenza A

A

Humans, other mammals (swine), birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the reservoir for influenza B and influenza C

A

Humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Small changes due to mutations that occur during viral replication

A

Antigenic drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How long does it usually take the flu symptoms to resolve?

A

3-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What type of influenza can antigenic shift occur in

A

Influenza A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When there is a complete change in HA, NA, or both. Occurs when 2 influenza types (usually animal + human) coinfect the same cell and RNA segment mispackaged into another virus

A

Antigenic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What type of antigenic change is responsible for seasonal epidemics

A

Antigenic drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of antigenic change is responsible for pandemics

A

Antigenic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dx for influenza

A
  1. Viral culture
  2. Antigen detection
  3. RNA detection via PCR
  4. Serological- 4 fold increase over 2 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How flu vaccines are made

A

Grown in chick embryos and inactivated and purified, choose 3-4 strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Who should receive the vaccine

A

All persons six months or older
Immunocompromised
HCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is cold adapted influenza vaccine trivalent (CAIV-T)

A

Live, attenuated vax nasal spray for 2-49 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which influenza drugs are becoming less effective due to resistance?

A

Adamantanes (amantadine and rimantadine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Antivirals effective against all strains of influenza, decrease duration of infection and likelihood of developing secondary bacterial infection if given within 48 hours of symptom onset

A

Neurominidase inhibitors (zanamivir and oseltamivir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a prophylactic drug given after exposure to influenza?

A

Neurominidase inhibitors (ie zanamivir or oseltamivir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Clinical signs H5N1

A

2-4 day incubation
Normal flu-like symptoms
Pneumonia with diffuse, patchy infiltrates progresses to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Mortality rate H5N1

A

50 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Basic description paramyxoviridae

A

Negative stranded RNA
HA and NA same protein spike
Fusion protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Syncytial cells, where fusion protein causes host cell’s to fuse together

A

Multinucleated giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Who do paramyxoviridae viruses impact?

A

Pediatric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where do paramyxoviridae adsorb and replicate?;

A

Upper respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

All paramyxoviridae viruses can disseminate and cause ….

A

Veremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What family is parainfluenza virus in?

A

Paramyoxviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Parainfluenza virus that infects larynx and upper resp tract in children. Causes airways to narrow

A

Croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Typical symptoms croup (parainfluenza virus);

A

Stridor (wheezing)
Barking cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Paramyxoviridae virus that has fusion protein that causes giant multinucleated cells and lacks HA and NA proteins. Causes resp infection

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Number 1 cause of pneumonia in young children, esp infants less than 6 months

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Season for RSV

A

Winter/ spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Monoclonal antibody for RSV

A

Palivizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Paramyxoviridae isolated in 3001, and determined to be the second most common cause of lower resp infection in young kids

A

Metapneumovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Ages for RSV and metapneumovirus

A

RSV- under 6 months
Metapneumovirus- 1 year old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Season for metapneumovirus

A

Winter/ early spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Symptoms of metapneumovirus

A

Bronchiolitis
Croup (20%)
Pneumonia (<10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Incubation period for mumps

A

About 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Family of mumps

A

Paramyxoviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Pathogenesis of mumps

A

Replicates in upper respiratory tract and regional lymph nodes, spread via blood to other organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Most common symptoms of mumps

A

Parotitis
Orchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Vaccine for mumps

A

Live attenuated, mmr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Another name for measles

A

Rubeola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Family of measles

A

Parmyxoviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Transmission of measles

A

Airborne or direct contact with nasopharyngeal secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

First phase of measles

A

Prodrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Incubation period for measles

A

Approx 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How long does the prodrome last?

A

3-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How long do koplik spots last?

A

1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How long does the measles rash last

A

6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Symptoms measles prodrome

A

Conjunctivitis, photophobia
Rhinitis, cough
High fever
Malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Describe koplik spots

A

Develop 1-2 days before rash of measles, small red lesions with blue white centers in the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does the rash of measles look like?

A

-Red, flat or slightly bumpy (maculopapular)
-Descending - forehead to face neck and torso, feet by day 3
- disappears in order it appears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Complications of measles

A

Pneumonia
Eye damage
Myocarditis
Encephalitis (10%)
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

Pregnant women - spontaneous abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Prevention measles

A

MMR vax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

RNA hepatitis viruses

A

1) hepatitis A virus
2) hepatitis C virus
3) hepatitis D virus
4) hepatitis E virus
5) hepatitis G virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the one DNA hepatitis virus called?

A

Hepatitis B virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Hepatitis transmitted via the fecal oral route

A

Hepatitis A and hepatitis E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Which types of hepatitis are transmitted by blood?

A

Hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and hepatitis D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Sudden onset of viral hepatitis with a mild to severe coarse followed by complete resolution

A

Acute viral hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Hepatitis following a prolonged course of active disease or silent asymptomatic infection

A

Chronic viral hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the liver function enzymes?

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)
Alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Symptoms acute viral hepatitis

A

2 weeks after symptoms onset:
Jaundice
Painful, enlarged liver
Elevated liver enzymes on blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What two liver enzymes typically spike with acute viral hepatitis?

A

ALT and AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe basics of Hepatitis A Virus

A

Naked
icosahedral capsid
+ Single strand RNA
Family picornaviridae
Fecal oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Incubation period Hepatitis A

A

15-40 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Test for acute HAV infection

A

Serology- IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Reservoir for HBV

A

All human body fluids (semen, urine, saliva, blood, breast milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Basic description HBV

A

Enveloped
Icosahedral capsule
Double stranded DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Name for intact HBV virus (DNA polymerase, DNA, proteins, envelope, isocahedral capsule)

A

Dane particle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Filamentous structures composed of the envelope and some capsid proteins that have disassociated from the intact HBV virion

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

If you have this antibody, you are immune to HBV

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBsAg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Viral core without HBSaG

A

Hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Are anti-HBcAg protective against HB

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

HBV marker for active disease and a highly infectious state

A

HBeAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Describe HBV transmission

A

Parenteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Most contagious hepatitis virus

A

HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Can Hepatitis A be chronic?

A

No, only acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Disease states of HBV

A

1) acute hepatitis B
2) Fulminant hepatitis B (severe)
3) chronic hepatitis B
4) co-infection with Hepatitis delta virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Forms of chronic HBV

A

1) asymptomatic carrier
2) chronic persistent hepatitis
3) chronic active hepatitis (acute state without normal recover last over 6 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What actually damages the liver in HBV?

A

Immune system, so immunocompromised tend to be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Complications of HBV

A

Primary hepatocellular carcinoma
Cirrhosis

134
Q

Presence of this antigen always means there is live HBV virus and infection, either acute, chronic, or carrier

A

HBsAg

135
Q

This antibody means the person is immune or cured and has no active HBV disease

A

Anti-HBsAg

136
Q

Core HBV IgM antibody indicative of new infection

A

IgM anti-HBcAg

137
Q

Core antibody indicative of old HBV infection

A

IgG anti-HBcAg

138
Q

Antigen that indicates HBV infection present with hight infectivity

A

HBeAg

139
Q

Presence of this antibody means HBV present with low infectivity

A

Anti-HBeAg

140
Q

HBV prevention

A

HBv vax- recombinant vax
Birth, 1-2 months, 6-18 months

141
Q

Is there a treatment for HBV?

A

Yes- interferon and oral antivirals, but cannot cure HBV

142
Q

Basic description HDV

A

Can only replicate with HBV
RNA
Parenteral transmission
Used HBV envelop

143
Q

Types of infection with HDVx

A

1) co-infection
2) superinfection

144
Q

How does HBV and HDV co-infection work?

A

Infected with both viruses at the same time and cause acute hepatitis.
Both can be cleared of anti-HbsAg antibodies form

145
Q

How does HDV and HBV superinfection work?

A

HDV infects person with chronic HBV
Acute hepatitis
Severe, Fulminant disease
Chronic infection with both

146
Q

Prevention of HDV

A

HBV vaccine

147
Q

Leading cause of chronic hepatitis in the US

A

Hepatitis C

148
Q

If infected as adult, what percent of acute hep b will continue to chronic HBV?

A

10%

149
Q

What percentage of HCV cases become chronic?

A

85%

150
Q

Basic description HCV

A

Enveloped
Icosahedral
RNA
Flavovirus

151
Q

What are the HCV genotypes? Which is most common in the US?

A

1, 2, 3

Genotype 1 most common in US

152
Q

Transmission HCV

A

Parenteral, most often IV drug use

153
Q

Incubation for Hep c

A

6-12 weeks

154
Q

Usual symptoms of acute HCV infection

A

Asymptomatic
Few fever, right upper quadrant pain, jaundice
85% develop chronic
20% corrhosis

155
Q

How long after HCV exposure are anti-HCV detectable?

A

6-8 weeks

156
Q

Confirmatory test for positive anti-hcv

A

HCV RNA

157
Q

Treatment for HCV

A

Combo antivirals (interferon-free)
8-12 weeks
Cure rates greater than 90%
High cost

158
Q

Where is HEV endemic?

A

Asia, India, Africa, central America

159
Q

Transmission HEV?

A

Fecal oral

160
Q

What makes retroviridae viruses unique

A

Retroviruses
Can cause cancer

161
Q

How do retroviruses work

A

Carry reverse transcriptase. rNA coded into DNA and incorporated into host genome

162
Q

How can retroviruses cause cancer?

A

Carry oncogenes

163
Q

Major HIV capsid protein that can be measured in serum to detect early HIV infection

A

P24

164
Q

What subgroup of HIv Is responsible for most of the world’s infections

A

M

165
Q

What is the predominate HIV subtype in North America and Europe

A

HIV-1 type B

166
Q

Barrier to universal HIV vaccine

A

Genetic variation in gp 120 glycoprotein
Variation between subtypes

167
Q

Number living with HIV worldwide and estimated new infections each year

A

34 million
2.7 million

168
Q

Estimate for HIV in US

A

1.2 mil

169
Q

HIV trandmission

A

Sex
Blood products
iV drug use
Transplant
Other parenteral

170
Q

What is the only blood product that has not been associated with HIV transmission

A

Gamma globulin

171
Q

How do they screen blood products for HIV?

A

ElLISA for antibodies to HIV-1 and HIV-2 and p24 antigen
PCR

172
Q

How can HIV spread from mother to baby

A

Transplacental
During delivery
Perinatally

173
Q

Risk for contracting HIV from needle stick contaminated with HIV infected blood

A

0.3%

174
Q

What increases the risk for contracting HIV from a needle stick?

A
  • deep puncture
  • needle in patient’s artery or vein
  • needle had visible blood on it
  • patient has high viral load
175
Q

Risk of transmission of the following after HCP needle stick:
HIV
HCV
HBV

A
  1. HIV: 0.3%
  2. HCV: 3%
  3. HBV: 30%
176
Q

Can casual contact or salaiva, urine, tears, or sweat transmit HIV?

A

No evidence for that, no

177
Q

What cells does the HIV virion bind to?

A

CD4 T-helper cells

178
Q

What receptors must be present for HIV virions fo bind to the host cell?

A

CCR5

179
Q

HIV is integrated into the host DNA. What are some things that may activate it to start the replication process?

A

Infections: TB, PCP, cytomegalovirus, herpes, mycoplasma
Immunizatiobs

180
Q

What are the 3 stages of HIV

A

1) acute viral illness
2) clinical latency
3) AIDS

181
Q

Symptoms of acute viral stage of HIV

A

Like mono-
Fever
Malaise
Lymphadenopathy
Pharyngitis

182
Q

When does acute phase of HIV happen?

A

1 month after exposure

183
Q

Pathogenesis of acute viral HIV

A
  • High levels of viremia (HIV in blood)
  • Virus infects lymph nodes
  • Immune response occurs and decreased veremia
  • Replication continues in lymph nodes
184
Q

What happens during HIV latency period?

A
  • No clinical symptoms for about 8 years
  • Steady gradual destruction of CD4 T lymphocytes
185
Q

What is the CD4 count for AIDS

A

Less than 200

186
Q

What are typical opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?

A

Candida esophagitis
Pneumocystis jeroveci pneumo
Kaposi’s sarcoma
cryptococcus neoformans
Toxoplasma gondii

187
Q

What are normal CD4 count

A

1000 cells/ ul blood

188
Q

How many CD4 cells per year on average decline in HIV infected person?

A

60 cells per year

189
Q

What are the clinical symptoms and common infections when CD4 counts drop to 200-400

A

Weight loss
Fever
Night sweats
Adenopathy

Skin infections (candida, herpes zoster)
Bacterial infections (TB)

190
Q

Infection common in AIDS patients with CD4 counts of 0-50

A

Disseminated disease from Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
Cytomeglovirus

191
Q

What does viral load tell you about HIV?

A

Speed it’s progressing

192
Q

What do CD4 counts tell about the HIV patient?

A

How likely they will develop opportunistic infection

193
Q

Are there neurological effects of HIV?

A

Yes, also grows in macrophages and monocytes which can cross blood brain barrier

194
Q

What are the potential neurological symptoms of AIDS?

A
  • encephalopathy
  • AIDS dementia complex (reduced cognitive function)
  • aseptic meningitis
  • myelopathy (infected spinal cord)
  • neuropathy
195
Q

What malignancies are people with AIDs at increased risk for?

A
  • b cell lymphoma (EBV)
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma (HHV-8)
  • non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • cervical cancer (HPV)
    -anal neoplasia
196
Q

What is an opportunistic infection?

A

Bugs that do not normally infect someone with an intact immune system but will infect someone with a compromised immune system

197
Q

What type of immunity does HIV impact?

A

Humoral

198
Q

Common opportunisitc bacterial infections in AIDS patients

A
  • encapsulated bacteria - esp strep pneumo
  • mycobacterium tuberculosis
    -mycobacterium avium intracellulare
199
Q

Common opportunistic fungal infections in AIDS patients

A

1) candida albicans
2) cryptococcus neoformans
3) histoplasma capsulatum
4) coccidioides immitis
5) pneumocystis jirovechii pneumonia

200
Q

Difference between meningitis in AIDS patients and immunocompetent patient

A
  • Don’t present with normal sign and symptoms (headache, stiff neck)
  • May just present with fever
201
Q

Most common opportunistic infection of AIDS patients in the US

A

Pneumocystis jirovechii pneumonia

202
Q

What can be done to prevent PCP in AIDS patients?

A

Prophy

203
Q

What are the most common opportunistic viral infections in AIDS patients

A
  • herpes zoster
  • EBV
  • herpes simplex virus
  • cytomegalovirus
204
Q

What impacts can cytomeglovirus have on the AIDS patient?

A

Retinitis
Esophagitis

205
Q

What are the opportunistic protozoa infections that are common in AIDS patients?

A
  • toxoplasma Gondii (masses in brain)
  • cryptosporidium (diarrhea)
  • microsporodia (diarrhea)
  • isospora belli (diarrhea)
206
Q

When do antibodies form for HIV?

A

3-6 weeks

207
Q

What serological tests are used to DX HIV

A
  1. ELISA (sensitive- false positives)
  2. Confirm with western blot
208
Q

Describe the window period for HIV

A

3-6 weeks
HIV virus circulating in blood but no antibodies formed

209
Q

What test can be used during the window period to diagnose HIV?

A

PCR for HIV RNA

210
Q

What are prevention strategies for HIV?

A

Education
Antiviral prophylaxis (PEP and PrEP)
Screening blood products

211
Q

Describe PEP for pneumocystis jirovechi pneumonia in AIDS patients

A

tmp-smp when CD4+ counts drop below 200

212
Q

Treatment toxoplasmosis in AIDS patients

A

Tmp-smp (also a prophy to prevent PCP)

213
Q

Prophy for MAC in AIDS patients

A

Azithromycin/ clarithromycin

214
Q

What are the 3 general things that all herpesviridae have in common?

A

1) latent state
2) cause cells to become multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies
3) held at bay by cell mediated immune response

215
Q

Acronym to remember organisms that can cross the placental barrier

A

TORCHES
TOxoplasmosis
Rubella
Cytomeglovirus
Herpes, HIV
Syphilis

216
Q

Different manifestations of HSV 1 and HSV 2

A

1) gingivistomatis
2) genital herpes
3) herpatic keratitis
4) neonatal herpes
5) herpatic Whitlow (hands)
6) disseminated herpes (immunocompromised)
7) encephalitis

217
Q

Most common infectious cause of corneal blindness in the US

A

Herpetic kertosis

218
Q

Most common cause of viral encephalitis in the US

A

HSV-1

219
Q

Infection rate for VZV?

A

90%

220
Q

Season for varicella zoster virus

A

Winter and spring

221
Q

Incubation period varicella

A

About 2 weeks

222
Q

First signs of chickenpox

A

Fever, malaise, headache

223
Q

What does the chickenpox rash look like

A

Starts on face and trunk and spreads everywhere on body including mucous membranes

Lesions have red base with fluid filled top, and scab over. Arise in crops and crops form at different stages

224
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: superficial lesions

A

Chickenpox

225
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: lesions usually not umbilicated

A

Chickenpox

226
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: lesions at different stages of development

A

Chicken pox

227
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: lesions more common on the trunk

A

Chickenpox

228
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: deep hard lesions

A

Smallpox

229
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: lesions often umbilicated (central depression)

A

Smallpox

230
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: lesions at the same stage of development

A

Smallpox

231
Q

Chickenpox or smallpox: lesions more common on the extremities

A

Smallpox

232
Q

When varicella reactivates and migrates to peripheral nerves, causing burning, painful skin in area supplied by sensory nerves

A

Shingles

233
Q

What drug can decrease the severity of varicella infection?

A

Acyclovir

234
Q

In immune compromised patients such as with leukemia or AIDS varicella can be more serious leading to..

A

Pneumonia and encephalitis

235
Q

What is recommended for immuno compromised patients who were exposed to varicella?

A

Varicella immune globulin

236
Q

Term for when infected cells become swollen

A

Cytomegaly

237
Q

What are the four infectious states of cytomegalovirus?

A

1) asymptomatic infection
2) congenital disease
3) cytomegalovirus mononucleosis
4) reactivated cytomeglovirus and amino compromised patients

238
Q

What percentage of cytomegalovirus is asymptomatic an adults?

A

80%

239
Q

Most common viral cause of mental retardation

A

Cytomeglovirus

240
Q

What congenital diseases can CMV cause?

A
  • mental retardation
  • microcephaly
  • deafness
  • seizures
  • other birth defects
241
Q

What does CMV look like when it’s reactivated and immunocompromised patients?

A

Retinitis (blindness)
Pneumonia
Disseminated infection
Death

242
Q

What does CMV look like in AIDS patients with CD4 counts below 50 to 100 cells?

A

CMV veremia
Retinitis (leads to blindness unless treated)
CMV colitis

243
Q

How does CMV prevent in reactivation or new infection in bone marrow transplant recipients?

A

CMV pneumonia which is rare in AIDS patients

244
Q

What are the three CMV tests?

A

1) Buffy coat
2) antigen
3) PCR

245
Q

What cancers is Epstein-Barr virus responsible for?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal cancers

246
Q

What herpes virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

HHV8

247
Q

What makes poxviridae different from other DNA viruses?

A
  • most complex virus, large with DNA to code for hundreds of proteins
  • carries most of its own enzymes
  • replicates in cytoplasm of cell
248
Q

Describe the transmission of small pox

A

Person to person via large droplets, sometimes aerosol

249
Q

Describe droplet transmission

A

Particles over 5 microns propelled 3-6 ft and deposited onto mucous membrane of another person or env surface

250
Q

Describe aerosol transmission

A

Particles less than 5 microns remain suspended for long periods of time and may travel long distances, inhaled

251
Q

Describe molluscum contagiosum and who it effects

A

Pox virus
Small white bumps, similar to warts
AIDS patients

252
Q

What are the 2 members of the papaviridae family that infect humans

A

Papillomavirus
Polyomavirus

253
Q

General description papoviridae

A

DNA virus
Circular double stranded DNA, naked icosahedral

254
Q

What conditions does papilloma virus cause?

A

Warts and cervical cancer

255
Q

What are the two HPV strains that cause cervical cancer?

A

HPV 16 and 18

256
Q

Who is primarily impacted by the DNA virus polyomavirus?

A

Pediatric

257
Q

Polyomavirus that causes nephritis and uterus sepsis in renal transplant patients

A

Bk polyomavirus

258
Q

Polyomavirus that causes hemorrhagic cystitis in bone marrow transplant recipients

A

BK polymoavirus

259
Q

How does BK polymoavirus usually present?

A

Ubiquitous, mild or asymptomatic infection in children

260
Q

What opportunistic disease does JC polyomavirus cause?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy

261
Q

More than 10% of childhood respiratory disease is cause by this DNA virus and virtually all adults have serological evidence of prior exposure to it

A

Adenovirus

262
Q

What are the most common respiratory illnesses in children?

A

1) RSV
2) metapneumovirus
3) parainfluenza
4) rhinovirus
5) adenovirus

263
Q

What does parvovirus cause?

A

Fifths disease in children

264
Q

Another name for fifths disease

A

Erythema infectiosum

265
Q

Are arboviruses DNA or RNA?

A

RNA

266
Q

What are the arbovirus families?

A

Togavirodae
Flaviviridae
Bunyaviridae

267
Q

What are the two members of togaviridae that infect humans

A

1) alpha virus
2) rubivirus

268
Q

What symptoms do the alpha viruses cause?

A

Encephalitis
Fever

269
Q

What is the vector for alphaviruses?

A

Mosquitoes

270
Q

What disease does rubivirus cause?

A

Rubella

271
Q

What diseases do the alphaviruses cause?

A

Western equine encephalitis
Eastern equine encephalitis
Venezuelan equine encephalitis
Chickungunya

272
Q

True or false- rubivirus are spread by mosquitoes

A

False- only humans are infected

273
Q

Symptoms of rubella

A

Mild febrile rash

274
Q

Concern for rubella

A

Congenital rubella

275
Q

Mode of transmission for rubella

A

Resp secretions

276
Q

Clinical presentation of rubella

A

-Prodrome- fever, lymphadenopathy and flu like symptoms
-Rash- red maculopapular from face to torso to extremities
- arthritis- women

277
Q

How long does the rubella rash last?

A

3 days

278
Q

When is there the greatest risk of congenital rubella?

A

Early in pregnancy

279
Q

What body areas are affected by rubella?

A

1) heart
2) eye
3) CNS

280
Q

Should rubella vaccine be given to pregnant women

A

No, theoretical risk to fetus because love vax

281
Q

What ailment do flaviviridae cause? Vector?

A
  • encephalitis
  • mosquito
282
Q

Naming convention for encephalitis caused by flaviviridae

A

By place
St. Louis encephalitis
Japanese encephalitis
Russian encephalitis….

283
Q

Second leading cause of epidemic viral encephalitis in the US

A

St. Louis encephalitis

284
Q

What febrile diseases are part of the flaviviridae family?

A

1) yellow fever
2) dengue fever
3) zika

285
Q

What is another name for dengue fever?

A

Break-bone fever

286
Q

Transmission of zika

A

1) mosquito
2) mother to fetus
3) sex

287
Q

Complications of zika

A

In adults, zika typically mild and self limited BUT

1) microcephaly (babies)
2) GBS (adults)

288
Q

Flavovirus that is spread mainly by mosquitoes and causes epidemics across the US, infects humans, birds, horses

A

West Nile Virus

289
Q

Type of virus (DNA or RNA): West Nile and other flaviviruses

A

RNA

290
Q

Transmission of WNV

A

Mainly mosquitoes
Blood transfusion
Organ transplant
Transplacentally
Breast milk
Blood innoculation (lab accident)

291
Q

Who is at highest risk for complicated WNV infection?

A

Elderly

292
Q

Clinical manifestation WNV

A

1) asymptomatic (most people)
2) mild- rash and headache for a week
3) neuroinvasive (meningitis, encephalitis, paralysis)

293
Q

Dx of WNV

A

1) PCR
2) CSF IgM
3) four fold rise IgG
4) neutralization

PCR not best test, should always do with antibody titers

294
Q

Treatment WNV

A

Supportive
Prevention is best

295
Q

Diseases cause by RNA viral family bunyaviridae

A

California encephalitis
Rift valley fever
Hantavirus

296
Q

Picornaviridae genera

A

Enterovirus
Rhinovirus
Hepatovirus
Parechovirus

297
Q

What are the 5 subgroups of enterovirus?

A

1) poliovirus
2) Coxsackie A virus
3) Coxsackie B virus
4) echovirus
5) new enteroviruses (including rhinovirus)

298
Q

Where can polio infect?

A

Peters patches of intestine
Motor neurons

299
Q

Clinical presentations of polio

A

Mild illness or asymptomatic infection
Aseptic meningitis that clears in a week
Or
Paralytic poliomyelitis

300
Q

Who typically has the most serious effects from polio infection?

A

Adults

301
Q

Acronym for live vaccines

A

Mr Rota and Ms Yellow are Small but VIP

MMR (Mr)
Roatavirus (Rota)
Adenovirus (and)
Yellow fever (yellow)
Smallpox (small)
Varicella, influenza, and oral polio virus (VIP)

302
Q

Most common cause of aseptic (no bacterial) meningitis in U.S.

A

Enteroviruses

303
Q

What enterovirus causes hand foot and mouth and herpangina?

A

Coxsackie A

304
Q

Type of Coxsackie A illness that is a mild self limiting illness characterized by fever, sore throat, and small red based vesicles over the back of the throat

A

Herpangina

305
Q

Common acute illness, primarily in children, characterized by fever, oral vesicles, and small tender lesions on the hands, feet, and buttocks

A

Hand, foot, and mouth syndrome

306
Q

This type of enterovirus causes pleurodynia and myocarditis/ pericardotis

A

Coxsackie B

307
Q

This Coxsackie B virus causes fever, headache, and severe lower thoracic pain on breathing (pleuritic pain)

A

Pleurodynia

308
Q

Enterovirus associated with 50% of myocarditis/ pericardotis cases

A

Coxsackie B

309
Q

Viruses that cause the common cold

A

Rhinoviruses (85%) and coronaviruses (15%)

310
Q

Viruses implicated in diarrhea

A

Calicivirus
Roatavirus
Adenovirus
Astrovirus

311
Q

What is the most important virus in caliciviridae?

A

Norovirus

312
Q

Population at highest risk for caliciviridaw

A

Young children and infants

313
Q

Virus responsible for 90% of nonbacterial outbreaks of gastroenteritis

A

Norovirus

314
Q

Symptoms of caliciviridae

A

Fever, vomiting, diarrhea

315
Q

General about coronasviruses

A

Respiratory
High mortality rates
Spread bats to humans- pandemic
SARS, MERS, COVID

316
Q

One of leading causes of acute infectious diarrhea and major cause of infant mortality worldwide

A

Rotavirus

317
Q

True or false- there are vaccines for rotavirus

A

True, part of standard vax. Rotateq and rotatrix

318
Q

Describe astrovoruses

A

RNA virus that cause periodic outbreaks of diarrhea in infants, children, and the elderly

319
Q

What care is offered, especially in underdeveloped nations for viral diarrheal illnesses?

A

Dehydration can kill so supportive
Use oral rehydration therapy when IV not accessible

320
Q

Collection of rabies virions in the cytoplasm

A

Negri bodies

321
Q

Family of rabies

A

Rhabdoviridae

322
Q

Disease with the highest case fatality ratio of any infectious disease

A

Rabies

323
Q

Important viruses in filoviridae

A

Marburg and ebola

324
Q

Transmission of filoviridae viral hemorrhagic fevers

A

Direct contact with body fluid
Possible airborne in HCP

325
Q

What body fluids carry ebola

A

Blood
Vomit
Urine
Stool
Semen
(Living or dead)

326
Q

Precautions for filoviridae

A

Contact precautions
Face shield
Droplet precautions
Consider airborne

327
Q

How to dispose of Ebola waste (laundry/ equip)

A

Incinerate, autoclave, or wash with bleach

328
Q

Group of viruses with slower but similar manifestations to filoviridae

A

Arenaviridae

329
Q

Examples of arenaviridae

A

Lassa fever
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
South American hemorrhagic fevers

330
Q

Transmission of arenoviruses

A

Direct contact with rodent droppings/ urine through broken skin, inhalation, or ingestion

331
Q

Treatment for arenaviruses

A

High dose ribavirin

Clinical Micro (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions