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VIROLOGY Flashcards

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1
Q

Site of latency for HSV-2

A

Lumbosacral ganglia

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2
Q

Site of latency for HSV-1

A

Trigeminal ganglia

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3
Q

Drug that reduces viral shredding in herpes

A

Acyclovir

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4
Q

Virus causing heterophile positive mononucleosis.

A

Epstein Barr Virus

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5
Q

Virus causing heterophile negative mononucleosis. (2)

A
  1. CMV
  2. T. gondii
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6
Q

Virus causing umbilicated papules in dry areas but resemble herpes in moist genital areas , causing inflamed and ulcerative lesions.

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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7
Q

Enterovirus causing pericarditis in adults and children.

A

Coxsackie B Virus

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8
Q

Influenza immunologic type that undergoes reassortment of segments of the viral RNA genome.

A

Influenza A

This phenomenon is known as the antigenic shift.

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9
Q

Protein that allows paramyxoviruses to evade antibody detection.

A

Fusion protein

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10
Q

Average incubation period of COVID-19

A

5-6 days

It can be as long as 14 days

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11
Q

Primary means of transmission of SARS-CoV 2.

A

Direct person to person respiratory transmission

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12
Q

Drug used in COVID-19 that metabolized into a cytidine analog.

A

Molnupiravir

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13
Q

Type specific envelope glycoprotein in HIV that is involved in antigenic variation.

A

gp120 mediates attachment of the HIV virus the CD4 protein

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14
Q

Secondary receptors for macrophage-tropic strains of HIV-1 ?

A

CCR5

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15
Q

Secondary receptors for lymphocyte-tropic strains of HIV-1 ?

A

CXCR4

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16
Q

HIV nucleocapsid protein that is detected in Western blot analysis.

A

p24

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17
Q

CD4 T-cell counts of people living with HIV when opportunistic infections usually occur.

A

<200 cells / microliter

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18
Q

Viral DNA commonly found in non-Hodgkin lymphoma of the central nervous system in patients with AIDS.

A

Epstein Barr Virus
Concerns are a common complication of AIDS , a consequence of immune suppression.

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19
Q

Characteristics of osteomyelitis in HIV positive patients. (4)

A
  1. Periosteal new bone formation
  2. Necrosis absent
  3. Often unilateral
  4. Most common cause is S. aureus
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20
Q

Characteristic of the mumps virus? (3)

A
  1. Humans are the only host
  2. Parotitis isn’t the only manifestation, can infect testes as well
  3. Most common manifestation is asymptomatic
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21
Q

Type of influenza that causes antigenic drift and shift capable of pandemics.

A

Influenza A

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22
Q

Type of Influenza that cause antigenic drift only?

A

Influenza B

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23
Q

Disease caused by HTLV .

A

Adult T cell leukemia / lymphoma

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24
Q

How long in weeks is the acute phase of HIV?

A

2-4weeks

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25
Q

Most common neurologic disorder in patients with AIDS.

A

AIDS dementia complex

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26
Q

It is a reactivation of latent chicken pox in sensory ganglia?

A

Herpes zoster

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27
Q

How to determine if there is an active ongoing dengue infection? (2)

A
  1. Significant rise in antibody titer
  2. Dengue IgM
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28
Q

Characteristic of Neonatal Herpes? (4)

A
  1. HSV 2 carries a worse prognosis than HSV 1
  2. Other sources of infection include family members and hospital personnel
  3. No difference in the nature and severity of the disease whether acquired by premature or full term.
  4. No difference in severity whether acquired during delivery or post-partum.
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29
Q

All RNA viruses are single-stranded except? (2)

A
  1. Reovirus
  2. Rotavirus
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30
Q

All RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm except? (2)

A
  1. Influenza
  2. Retrovirus
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31
Q

Inclusions in Poliovirus ?

A

Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions

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32
Q

What polio vaccination is killed?

A

Salk

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33
Q

What polio vaccination is live and attenuated?

A

Sabin

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34
Q

Which polio vaccine is given orally?

A

Sabin (live)

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35
Q

Poliovirus is acid ___________.

A

Stable

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36
Q

What part of the spinal cord does polio affect?

A

Anterior horn thus causing paralysis.

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37
Q

Virus that can cause hand foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie A

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38
Q

Extreme pain in the lower chest caused by Coxsackie B?

A

Bornholm’s disease or Devils grip

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39
Q

Coxsackie virus that can cause myocarditis?

A

Coxsackie B

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40
Q

Late sequelae of Coxsackie myocarditis ?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

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41
Q

Coxsackie virus that can cause herpangina?

A

Coxsackie A

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42
Q

Route of transmission of echoviruses?

A

Feco-oral

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43
Q

Rhinovirus is acid ________?

A

Labile

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44
Q

Family of Rhinovirus is?

A

Picornavirus

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45
Q

Ideal temperature for rhinovirus growth.

A

33 c

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46
Q

MCC of common colds?

A

Rhinovirus

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47
Q

Most common etiologic agent of aseptic meningitis?

A

Non-polio enteroviruses

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48
Q

Hepatitis A virus is acid ________.

A

Stable

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49
Q

Route of transmission of hepatitis A?

A

Feco-oral

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50
Q

Family of hepatitis A virus?

A

Picornavirus

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51
Q

Most important serologic marker to diagnose hepatitis A?

A

anti-HAV IgM

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52
Q

Route of transmission of hepatitis E?

A

Feco-oral

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53
Q

Population with high mortality from Hep E?

A

Pregnant woman

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54
Q

Most common cause of childhood diarrhea?

A

Rotavirus

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55
Q

Complication associated with rotavirus vaccination?

A

Intussusception

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56
Q

Wheel-shaped RNA virus?

A

Rotavirus

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57
Q

Complication associated with rotavirus vaccination?

A

Intussusception

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58
Q

Is rotavirus enveloped?

A

No

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59
Q

Two major antigens of influenza?

A

Hemagglutinin (H)
Neuraminidase (N)

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60
Q

What subtype of Influenza A caused the swine flu?

A

H1N1

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61
Q

What subtype of Influenza A caused the avian flu?

A

H5N1

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62
Q

Antigenic mutation that can cause a pandemic?

A

Antigenic Shifts

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63
Q

Antigenic mutation that can cause a epidemic ?

A

Antigenic Drifts

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64
Q

Antigenic mutation that is slow and progressive?

A

Antigenic Drifts

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65
Q

Antigenic mutation that is sudden ?

A

Antigenic Shifts

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66
Q

Family of Influenza?

A

Orthomyxovirus

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67
Q

Hemagglutinin binds to this to facilitate endocytosis?

A

Sialic acid

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68
Q

MOA of zanamivir and oseltamivir in influenza infection?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors ( inh the release of virus)

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69
Q

Anti-influenza drugs that inhibits viral coating ?

A

Amantadine & Rimantadine

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70
Q

Family of Measles?

A

Paramyxovirus

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71
Q

Histopathologic findings in measles infection?

A

Warthin-Finkeldey Bodies

(Grape -like clusters or Mulberry)

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72
Q

Pathognomonic enanthem in measles?

A

Koplik spots

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73
Q

Supplementation that can reduce measles severity?

A

Vitamin A

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74
Q

Surface protein responsible for production of Warthin-Finkeldey cells in measles?

A

Surface F protein (Fusion)

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75
Q

Measles aka ____________.

A

Rubeola

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76
Q

Fatal late sequelae associated with measles infection?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

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77
Q

Most common complication of Measles?

A

Otitis media

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78
Q

Most common life threatening complication of measles?

A

Pneumonia from secondary bacterial infection

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79
Q

Complication of measles in immunocompromised patients with high mortality rates ?

A

Giant cell pneumonia

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80
Q

Does measles immunity confer lifelong immunity?

A

Yes

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81
Q

Mode of transmission of measles ?

A

Respiratory route ( inhalation droplets)

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82
Q

Most characteristic feature of Mumps ?

A

Salivary gland swelling

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83
Q

Most common CNS involvement of Mumps?

A

Aseptic meningitis

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84
Q

Paramyxovirus that can cause pancreatitis?

A

Mumps

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85
Q

Most important cause of bronchiolitis in infants?

A

Parainfluenza

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86
Q

Most common influenza complication of parainfluenza virus ?

A

Otitis media

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87
Q

Monoclonal antibody used to prevent RSV pneumonia in premature infants .

A

Palivizumab (antibody against fusion protein of RSV)

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88
Q

Genus of the rabies virus?

A

Lyssaviridae

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89
Q

Family of the rabies virus?

A

Rhabdoviridae

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90
Q

Shape of the rabies virus ?

A

Bullet-shaped

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91
Q

Histopathologic finding in rabies?

A

Negri bodies

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92
Q

Location of negri bodies in the CNS?

A

Hippocampal pyramidal cells &
Cerebellar Purkinje cells

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93
Q

Genome of coronavirus ?

A

Single stranded positive sense RNA

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94
Q

Four main structural proteins of coronavirus?

A

Spike
Membrane
Envelope
Nucleocapsid

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95
Q

Structural protein of coronavirus important for host attachment.

A

Spike protein

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96
Q

Geographic origin of beta variant of SARS-CoV2

A

South Africa

97
Q

Geographic origin of delta variant of SARS-CoV2?

A

India

98
Q

Geographic origin of omicron variant of SARS-CoV2?

A

South Africa & Botswana

99
Q

Geographic origin of alpha variant of SARS-CoV2?

A

United kingdom

100
Q

Receptor coronavirus uses to bind to the respiratory tract.

A

ACE 2

101
Q

Most reliable diagnostic test for dengue?

A

Paired Acute & Convalescent Sera

102
Q

Vector for dengue?

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

103
Q

Non-specific test for capillary fragility in dengue?

A

Tourniquet test

104
Q

CBC finding suggesting hemoconcentration in dengue l

A

Increased hematocrit

105
Q

Hepatitis virus associated with cryoglobulins.

A

Hepatitis C

106
Q

Mechanism for antigenic variation in HCV.

A

Lack 3’-5’ exonuclease ( no proofreading ability of its envelope proteins)

107
Q

Genome of Hepatitis C.

A

Positive sense RNA

108
Q

Most common route of transmission of HCV

A

Direct percutaneous exposures to blood

109
Q

Cause of third disease.

A

Rubella
(Rubellla)

110
Q

Other names of Rubella?

A

German Measles , Third disease , 3- day measles

111
Q

Classic location of lymphadenopathy in Rubella?

A

Posterior auricular

112
Q

Congenital heart disease associated with congenital rubella infection?

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

113
Q

Receptor responsible for viral tropism EBV?

A

CD21

114
Q

Receptor responsible for viral tropism of CMV?

A

Integrins (Heparan Sulfate)

115
Q

Receptor responsible for viral tropism of Parvovirus B19?

A

P antigen

116
Q

Receptor responsible for viral tropism of Rhinovirus ?

A

ICAM-1

117
Q

The only DNA viruses that acquire their envelope from host cell nuclear membrane?

A

Herpes viruses (others are derived from cell membrane)

118
Q

What virus can serpiginous or dendritic ulcers of the cornea?

A

HSV-1

119
Q

What lobe is most commonly affected in Herpes encephalitis?

A

Temporal lobes ( Bilaterally)

120
Q

Painful vesicles on fingers seen in dentists from HSV-1 infection?

A

Herpetic whitlow

121
Q

Is HSV enveloped or naked?

A

Enveloped

122
Q

Where are cowdry bodies seen in herpes infections?

A

Intranuclear

123
Q

Early manifestation of PRIMARY HSV-1 infection?

A

Gingivostomatitis

124
Q

Common manifestation of reactivation of HSV-1 infection?

A

Herpes labialis (cold sores)

125
Q

Where does HSV-1 stay latent ?

A

Trigeminal ganglion

126
Q

HSV-2 stays latent in ____________.

A

Lumbosacral ganglia

127
Q

Which HSV most commonly cause genital herpes?

A

HSV-2

128
Q

Findings on Tzanck smear of HSV lesions?

A

Multinucleated giant cells

129
Q

What is Human Herpes virus 1 ?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

130
Q

Specific cranial nerve that can be affected by VZV ?

A

Cranial Nerve V1

131
Q

What causes shingles?

A

Varicella Zoster Reactivation

132
Q

Findings on Tzanck smear of VZV lesions?

A

Multinucleated giant cells

133
Q

Specific cells seen on peripheral blood smear during EBV infection?

A

Downey Type II atypical CD8+ T cells

134
Q

Antigen produced by EBV when the virus is actively replicating?

A

Viral capsid antigen

135
Q

Antigen from EBV in latent infection?

A

Epstein -barr nuclear antigen

136
Q

Subtypes of Hodgkins lymphoma strongly associated with EBV?

A

Mixed cellularity and lymphocyte depleted

137
Q

Virus involved in primary CNS lymphoma?

A

EBV

138
Q

Where is EBV latent?

A

B cells

139
Q

Which human herpes virus is associated with nasopharyngeal CA?

A

HHV-4 or EBV

140
Q

Feared traumatic complication after EBV infection?

A

Splenic rupture

141
Q

Rapid diagnostic test for EBV?

A

Monospot test

142
Q

Esophagitis with punched out ulcerations can be caused by what virus?

A

HSV-1

143
Q

Esophagitis with linear ulcerations can be caused by what virus?

A

CMV

144
Q

Non-specific inclusion bodies seen in CMV?

A

Owl’s eye inclusions

145
Q

Most common congenital infection in developed world?

A

CMV

146
Q

DNA of CMV is linear or circular?

A

Linear

147
Q

Is CMV enveloped?

A

Yes

148
Q

Finding of CMV retinitis on fundoscopy?

A

Cotton-wool spots

149
Q

CD4 count is likely ________ if disseminated CMV infection occurs.

A

<50

150
Q

Herpes virus associated with febrile seizures?

A

Roseola (HHV -6 )

151
Q

Roseola is also known as?

A

Exanthema subitum / Sixth Disease

152
Q

What symptoms comes first in roseola?

A

Fever

153
Q

What causes kaposi sarcoma?

A

HHV-8

154
Q

What does HHV-8 inactivate to cause kaposi ?

A

Rb tumor suppressor protein

155
Q

The only DNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm?

A

Poxviridae

156
Q

In what infection do you expect to find Guarnieri bodies?

A

Small pox

157
Q

Distribution of small pox ?

A

Centrifugal

158
Q

Only DNA viruses without icosahedral symmetry?

A

Poxviridae

159
Q

Where the Guarnieri bodies found in the cell?

A

Intracytoplasmic

160
Q

What allows poxvirus to replicate in the cytoplasm ?

A

DNA- dependent RNA polymerase

161
Q

Inclusion bodies seen in molluscum contagiosum?

A

Henderson- Paterson bodies

162
Q

Serologic marker to indicate likelihood of transmission of Hep B?

A

HBeAg

163
Q

Description of DNA of Hepatitis B?

A

Incomplete circular dsDNA

164
Q

Having this antigen means patient is currently infected ?

A

HBsAg

165
Q

What antibodies are seen during the window period of Hep B infection?

A

Anti-HBc IgM

166
Q

What glomerulonephritis can hepatitis B cause? (2)

A
  1. Membranous GN
  2. Membranoproliferative GN
167
Q

Vascular manifestation of Hepatitis B infection ?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

168
Q

Family of Hepatitis B?

A

Hepadnavirus

169
Q

What Hepa B marker indicates low transmissibility?

A

Anti-HBe

170
Q

Genome of Parvoviridae?

A

Single stranded DNA

171
Q

Disease caused by Parvovirus B19 in children?

A

Fifth disease/ Erythema infectiosum

172
Q

Disease caused by Parvo B19 in fetuses?

A

Hydrops fetalis

173
Q

Appearance of rash in fifth disease?

A

Slapped cheek rash

174
Q

What antigen does parvovirus B19 target?

A

P antigen found on erythroid progenitor cells

175
Q

Is Parvovirus enveloped?

A

No

176
Q

Is Adenovirus enveloped?

A

No

177
Q

Genitourinary manifestation of adenovirus?

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

178
Q

Which part of the respiratory tract can HPV infect?

A

True vocal cords

179
Q

Morphologic hallmark of HPV infected cells ?

A

Koilocytic atypia ( epithelial cells with perinuclear halos)

180
Q

E7 protein of HPV binds and inhibits __________ protein.

A

Rb tumor suppressor protein

181
Q

E6 protein of HPV binds and inhibits __________.

A

P53

182
Q

Most common cause of cervical CA?

A

HPV 16 infection ( more than half attributed on HPV 16)

183
Q

HPV subtypes associated with cervical CA?

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, 33

184
Q

What causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

A

JC Polyoma Virus

185
Q

What causes hemorrhagic cystitis in transplant patients?

A

BK polyoma virus

( JC on my brain (CNS), BK on my Bladder)

186
Q

Is BK virus enveloped?

A

No

187
Q

What drug increases risk of developing PML? (2)

A
  1. Rituximab
  2. Natalizumab
188
Q

What 2 cells are responsible for carrying HIV through the BBB?

A

Monocytes & Macrophages

189
Q

Most common CNS complication of AIDS?

A

AIDS -dementia complex

190
Q

Matrix protein of HIV ?

A

p17

191
Q

Capsid protein of HIV?

A

p24

192
Q

Regulatory protein of HIV that transcriptionally activates viral genes?

A

Tat

193
Q

Mutation that can cause resistance to HIV?

A

Homozygous CCR5 mutation

194
Q

Coreceptor responsible for HIV entry into macrophages?

A

CCR5

195
Q

CD4 count criteria for AIDS?

A

Less than 200

196
Q

Enzymes that pol gene of HIV encodes ? (3)

A
  1. Reverse transcriptase
  2. Aspartate protease
  3. Integrase
197
Q

Env gene of HIV encodes? (2)

A

Surface antigens
1. gp120
2. gp41

198
Q

Gene that encodes for p24 and p17 in HIV?

A

gag

199
Q

Coreceptor responsible for HIV entry into T-cells?

A

CXCR4

200
Q

HIV glycoprotein that binds to CD4?

A

gp120

201
Q

Transmembrane protein of HIV for synctia formation?

A

gp41

202
Q

Drug that binds to HIVs gp41?

A

Enfuvirtide

203
Q

HIV gp160 protein is cleaved into what 2 envelope glycoproteins?

A

gp41 & gp120

204
Q

CD 4 count to expect in CMV retinitis?

A

<50

205
Q

CD4 count to expect in cryptococcal meningoencephalitis?

A

<200

206
Q

CD4 count to expect in PCP pneumonia?

A

<200

207
Q

CD4 count to expect in esophageal candidiasis?

A

<500

208
Q

CCR5 inhibitor that inhibits HIV entry into macrophages?

A

Maraviroc

209
Q

Function of Nef protein in HIV?

A

Down regulation of CD4 and MHC-1

210
Q

What to suspect in HIV patient with ring enhancing lesion on cranial CT.

A

Cerebral toxoplasmosis

211
Q

Most common cause of CAP in HIV patients?

A

Strep pneumonia

212
Q

Viral infections associated with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

HIV & Hepatitis C

213
Q

Cause of adult T-cell leukemia?

A

HTLV - Human T-cell lymphotropic virus

214
Q

CNS disease that can be prevented with a vaccine ?

A

Japanese B encephalitis

215
Q

Epidemiologic features of measles?

A
  1. Highly contagious
  2. No animal reservoir
  3. Lifelong immunity
216
Q

Most commonly used to detect viral RNA in clinical specimens?

A

RT-PCR

217
Q

Ability of the immune system to recognize self-antigens versus non-self antigen?

A

Tolerance

218
Q

TORCH infection with mental retardation, microcephaly, deafnes?

A

Congenital rubella

219
Q

Genital Herpes is caused by ____________?

A

HSV2

220
Q

Gross pathologic change caused by the herpes simplex virus is caused by?

A

Resultant necrosis from cytolytic infection

221
Q

Key pathological features of dengue hemorrhagic fever? (4)

A
  1. Increased vascular permeability
  2. Plasma leakage into interstitial space
  3. Increased vasoactive cytokines
  4. Shock
222
Q

Why does second dengue infection have higher fatality rate than the first?

A

Preexisting dengue antibody formed complex with the virus promoting infection to more mononuclear cells.

223
Q

How is dengue treated and controlled?

A

Fluid replacement therapy

224
Q

Cardinal pathogenic feature of HIV infection?

A

Depletion of T lymphocytes (CD4)

225
Q

Best predictor of long term clinical outcome HIV infection.

A

Plasma viral load

226
Q

Predominant cause or morbidity and mortality among patients with late-stage HIV infection?

A

Opportunistic Infections

227
Q

Major target cell of EBV?

A

B lymphocytes

228
Q

Has direct cytotoxic activity and can kill infected cells?

A

CD8 T helper cells

229
Q

Primary target cell of HIV ?

A

T lymphocytes (CD4)

230
Q

Negative sense RNA ? (3)

A
  1. Antisense
  2. RNA - dependent RNA polymerase
  3. Cannot encode proteins , must be converted to mRNA first
231
Q

Mobile and transferable segments of bacterial DNA “jumping genes”.

A

Transposons

232
Q

Reason for call to clean up water-holding receptacles and plant containers close to homes?

A

Mosquito breeds in this water and travel to homes

233
Q

Enhanced 4s Strategy: Action Barangay Kontra Dengue in Communities (4S)

A
  1. Search and Destroy
  2. Seek early consultation
  3. Self-protection measures
  4. Say yes to fogging only during outbreaks
234
Q

MCC viral infection in reproductive system?

A

HPV

235
Q

Describe Poliovirus? (5)

A
  1. Childhood disease
  2. High grade fever
  3. Patchy areas of flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy
  4. Destruction of Lower Motor Neurons
  5. Global campaign to eradicate disease (WHO)
236
Q

Describe Infectious Mononucleosis? (6)

A
  1. EBV
  2. Malaise , headache, fatigue and sore throat
  3. Lymphadenopathy & splenomegaly
  4. Elevated SGOT, SGPT, ALP, Bilirubin
  5. Elevated WBC , lymphocytic predominance - large atypical T lymphocytes
  6. Recovery after 4-5 weeks
237
Q

Has malignant transformation and Aka as Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

EBV

238
Q

Describe Hemorrhagic Dengue? (3)

A
  1. Fever, muscle, bone pain, then bleeding , shock and eventually death
  2. Probably due to second dengue infection with a different serotype as previous infection
  3. Key feature is increased vascular permeability
239
Q

Describe Herpes progenitalis? (3)

A
  1. Multiple painful lesions of grouped vesicles on suprapubic area
  2. Sexually transmitted
  3. Tzanck Smear

Microbiology (9 decks)

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