Other Bacteria Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Organisms not seen in gram stain. (11)

A

“These Little Microbes May Unfortunately Lack Color But Are Everywhere.”
1. Treponema
2. Leptospira
3. Mycobacteria
4. Mycoplasma
5. Ureaplasma
6. Legionella
7. Rickettsiae
8. Chlamydia
9. Bartonella
10. Anaplasma
11. Erlichia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most important virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that inhibits leukocyte migration.

A

Cord factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Stage of Syphilis where aneurysms appear.

A

Tertiary Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Term used in an influenzae like symptoms a few hours after receiving penicillin in patients with syphilis.

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mixture of antibodies combining with the cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin complex in non-treponemal tests for syphilis.

A

Reagin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sexually transmitted organism causing suppurative inguinal adenitis known as buboes.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1-L3
( this is lymphogranuloma venereum LGV )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vector for epidemic typhus.

A

Human body louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causative agent of a chronic genital ulcer that when sampled, showed pleomorphic bacilli present in the cytoplasm of macrophages and neutrophils demonstrated by Giemsa or Wright’s stain.

A

Klebsiella granulomatis
- this is a case of granuloma inguinale or donovanosis. The pleomorphic bacilli in leukocytes are known as Donovan bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Route of transmission of granuloma inguinale.

A

Sexual transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Primary reservoir of leptospirosis.

A

Rats

DOC is Doxycycline for prophylaxis and mild infection.
DOC is Penicillin for severe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Etiology of Syphilis.

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is needed for direct visualization of T. pallidum?

A

Darkfield microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The ulcer seen in primary Syphilis.

A

Chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristic of Syphilis ulcers.

A

Painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lesions seen in secondary Syphilis.

A

Maculopapular rash on palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wart like lesions seen in secondary Syphilis.

A

Condyloma lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Predominant WBC in Syphilis infiltrates.

A

Plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hutchinson’s triad in congenital syphilis?

A
  1. Notched teeth
  2. 8th nerve deafness
  3. Interstitial keratitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do you call the unilateral sternoclavicular enlargementin congenital syphilis?

A

Higoumenakis Sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What sensory pathology is seen in neurosyphilis?

A

Tabes dorsalis
( from affectation of the dorsal columns)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What part of the spinal cord is most affected in neurosyphilis?

A

Posterior columns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ophthalmologic findings in neurosyphilis?

A

Argyll-Robertson pupil or the “Prostitute’s Pupil”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In neurosyphilis, the pupil will constrict to ________ but not to light.

A

Accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cardiovascular complication of tertiary syphilis.

A

Aortitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Characteristic appearance of aortitis in tertiary syphilis.

A

Tree bark appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cardiovascular involvement in tertiary syphilis causes destruction of what blood vessel?

A

Vasa vasorum ( the vessel that supply the aorta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What population is at greatest risk for symptomatic neurosyphilis?

A

Patient with untreated HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common presentation of meningovascular syphilis?

A

Stroke syndrome involving the MCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Description of the nose in classic stigmata of congenital syphilis.

A

Saddle nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Description of the shins in classic stigmata of congenital Syphilis.

A

Saber shins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Description of the molars in classic stigmata of congenital syphilis?

A

Mulberry molars ( molars with multiple , poorly-developed cusps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mostly widely -used screening tests for syphilis?

A

RPR and VDRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Standard non-treponemal test for CSF examination?

A

VDRL (Superior to RPR for CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drug of choice for all stages of syphillis ?

A

Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Reaction of mild hypotension fever, chills, tachycardia experienced after treating syphilis?

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Stage of syphilis most associated with the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Secondary Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What causes the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Release of lipoproteins by dying T. pallidum bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which tests for syphilis will remain positive for life even with adequate treatment?

A

Treponemal tests (FTA-ABS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the largest medically important bacteria?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Animal reservoirs of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

White-footed mouse and White tailed Deer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

A

Bite from deer tick (Ixodes tick)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Classic skin lesion in 1st stage of Lyme disease?

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cardiovascular pathology in 2nd stage of Lyme disease?

A

Myocarditis (AV block)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the only spirochete that can be visualized using dyes in light microscopy?

A

Borrelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What two stains can be used to visualize Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Wright stain, Giemsa stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

First line treatment of Lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What causes relapsing fever?

A

Borrelia recurrentis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What spirochete is described as having Sheperds crook appearance?

A

Leptospira interogans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ophthalmic finding in leptospirosis?

A

Conjuctival suffusion (redness without exudates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Triad of Weil Syndrome.

A
  1. Jaundice
  2. Bleeding
  3. AKI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Most common cause of death in Weil Syndrome?

A

Respiratory failure from massive pulmonary hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where are leptospires most present in acutr stage of leptospirosis ?

A

Blood (leptospiremic stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where can leptospires be cultured from during the immune phase of leptospirosis?

A

Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most common chest radiographic finding in severe leptospirosis?

A

Snow-flake lesions (patchy bilateral alveolar pattern)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Preferred diagnostic test for leptospirosis in those with clinical evidence of infection?

A

Lepto MAT (Microscopic Agglutination Test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Vector of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Dermacentor Tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Vector of Endemic typhus?

A

Fleas

58
Q

Vector of epidemic typhus ?

A

Human body louse

59
Q

Causative agent of epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii
(P= ePidemic)

60
Q

Causative agent of endemic typhus?

A

Rickettsia typhi

61
Q

Rickettsia spp. cannot produce what two factors?

A
  1. CoA
  2. NAD+
    (Hence, they are obligate intracellular)
62
Q

Stain used to visualize Rickettsia.

A

Giemsa stain

63
Q

Organism that causes relapsing fever.

A

Borrelia recurrentis

64
Q

Rickettsial infection that causes a rash which starts at the wrist then spreads to the trunk.

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

65
Q

What causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetti

66
Q

Coxiella burnetti causes what disease?

A

Q fever

67
Q

Atypical bacteria that can cause pneumonia from aerosolized spores in cattle placenta.

A

Coxiella burnetti

68
Q

What component in Mycobacterium cell walls is responsible for their acid fastness.

A

Mycolic acid

69
Q

Which serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis are associated with neonatal conjunctivitis ?

A

D-K

70
Q

Which serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis are associated with trachoma blindness?

A

A, B, C

71
Q

Which serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis are associated with lymphogranuloma venerem?

A

L1, L2,L3

72
Q

What stage of C. trachomatis enters the cell?

A

Elementary body

73
Q

What stage of C. trachomatis replicates intracellularly?

A

Reticulate body

74
Q

What stain can be used to visualize C. trachomatis?

A

Giemsa stain

75
Q

Neonatal pneumonia from C. trachomatis presents with what type of cough?

A

Staccato cough

76
Q

What bacteria can cause atypical pneumonia transmitted from bird droppings?

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

77
Q

Rickettsial disease that presents with morulae in neutrophils?

A

Anaplasmosis

78
Q

Rickettsial disease that presents with morulae in monocytes?

A

Ehrlichiosis

79
Q

What agglutination test is used to diagnose Rickettsial infection?

A

Well-Felix Test

80
Q

Most common cause of atypical pneumonia in young adults ?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

81
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia is the only bacteria with _____ in its cell membrane.

A

Cholesterol

82
Q

What hematologic abnormality can be seen with M. pneumonia infections?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

83
Q

What antibodies are associated with M. pneumonia infections?

A

Cold agglutinins (IgM)

84
Q

What is responsible for acid fastness of Mycobacteria?

A

Long chain mycolic acids in their cell walls

85
Q

Oxygen requirement of Mycobacteria?

A

Obligate aerobes

86
Q

What virulence factor of M. tuberculosis inhibits leukocyte migration?

A

Cord Factor

87
Q

Cord factor allows Mycobacterium tuberculosis to clump in what formation?

A

Serpentine formation

88
Q

A positive PPD Test is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

89
Q

Pathologic hallmark of M. tuberculosis infections?

A

Caseating granulomas

90
Q

Fatsest growinh mycobacterium?

A

M. fortuitum

91
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of M. tuberculosis?

A

Culture

92
Q

Risk for developing MAC infections in HIV increases when CD4 count is below what value?

A

100 /uL

93
Q

Which type of Leprosy infection is seen in those with deficient cell-mediated immunity?

A

Lepromatous

94
Q

Peripheral nerve classically affected by leprosy?

A

Ulnar nerve

95
Q

Mycobacterium that appears like packs of cigars on culture media?

A

M. Leprae

96
Q

Treatment of the lepromatous form of leprosy?

A

Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazimine

(DR C Lepromatous Leprosy)

97
Q

Treatment of the tuberculoid form of leprosy?

A

Rifampicin + Dapsone

(DR tuberculoid Leprosy)

98
Q

Which mycobacterium causes skin infections in aquarium handlers?

A

Mycobacteria marinum

99
Q

Which mycobacterium causes cervical lymphadenitis in children?

A

Mycobacteria scrofulaceum

100
Q

A Ghon complex that heals and calcifies.

A

Ranke Complex

101
Q

Cytokine necessary to prevent TB reactivation?

A

TNF-a

102
Q

TB infection of the vertebrae?

A

Pott’s disease

103
Q

Caseating granuloma near the pleura in primary TB?

A

Ghon focus

104
Q

Hilar lymphadenopathy + Ghon foci in primary TB?

A

Ghon complex

105
Q

Vitamin to administer with isoniazid .

A

Pyridoxine ( Vitamin B6)

106
Q

Anti TB drug that inhibits mycolic acid production.

A

Isoniazid

(Mysoniazid)

107
Q

Anti TB drug that blocks arabinosyl transferase?

A

Ethambutol

(arab si etham)

108
Q

Anti-TB drug associated with Hyperuricemia?

A

Pyrazinamide

109
Q

Most serious side effect of Ethambutol?

A

Optic neuritis

Ethambutol (Eyes )

110
Q

Mutation in this Mtb gene causes Isoniazid resistance?

A

KatG (catalase peroxidase)

111
Q

What activates Isoniazid?

A

KatG ( Catalase Peroxidase)

112
Q

Anti-TB drug that causes red-orange discoloration of body fluids?

A

Rifampin (Red-orange)

113
Q

The Quantiferon gold assay measures ______________?

A

IFN-gamma levels released from Th1-cells

114
Q

Does a PPD test cross-react with previous BCG vaccine?

A

Yes

115
Q

Does a Quantiferon Gold Assay cross react with previous BCG vaccine?

A

No

116
Q

Characteristic of Syphilis?

A

Penicillin remains to be the best treatment of choice for syphilis. It is given for all stages.

117
Q

Smoker suffering from sharp chest pain, fever, and audible friction rub. What’s your clinical impression?

A

Tuberculosis pericarditis

118
Q

Causative agent of relapsing fever?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi ( tick borne relapsing fever)

119
Q

Q fever is diagnosed by ______________.

A

Serologic means: IFA (Immunofluorescence antibody) using C. burnetti antigen

120
Q

Causative agent.

A

Leptospira interrogans

121
Q

Infection of the lymph nodes , liver, spleen, kidney, bone marrow, myocardium.
Clinical picture consists of fever, chills, headache, myalgia, dizziness, backache, followed by nausea, vomiting, and bradycardia.

A

Leptospirosis

122
Q

Severe form of this disease can progress to fever, jaundice, and renal failure and hemorrhagic manifestations leading to hepatorenal failure.

A

Leptospirosis

123
Q

How is leptospirosis acquired?

A

Penetration of skin exposed to contaminated water.

124
Q

Predominant organism in cat bites?

A

Pasteurella multocida

125
Q

Ghon lesion is seen in __________.

A

Primary tuberculosis

126
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Tuberculosis in adults. (4)

A
  1. Dry cough, low grade afternoon fever
  2. Emaciated (thin & weak)
  3. Harsh breath sounds
  4. Increased upper lung fields densities on xray
127
Q

Positive tuberculin test means?

A

Latent infection , Infection in the past.

128
Q

Layer of tubercle ( TB granuloma) where TB bacilli is isolated and cultured.

A

Central zone

129
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

From malaise, fever,sore throat, , non-productive cough
To productive cough with blood tinged sputum

130
Q

Lab findings of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A
  1. Mild leukocytosis
  2. CXR: pulmonary consolidation
131
Q

Treatment of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Treated with Tetracycline & Erythromycin

132
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is diagnosed through _______________.

A

Serology

133
Q

Pathophysiology of Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Cell wall defective

134
Q

More malignant and progressive type of Leprosy?

A

Negative lepromin test

135
Q

Laboratory procedure to establish leprosy diagnosis?

A

Skin biopsy

136
Q

A case with vesicle at anorectal area , ulcerated, painful lymphadenopathies in inguinal and rectal areas. What’s your clinical impression?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

137
Q

A case where papule or vesicular lesions which ulcerates and leads to suppurative inguinal lymphadenitis (buboes).

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

138
Q

Signs of successful treatment of Lymphogranuloma venereum ?

A

Complete healing os suppurative adenitis

139
Q

Describe Hansen’s Disease? (3)

A
  1. Clawing deformity of both hands
  2. Reduced sensation at small patches of skin
  3. Macular rashes without sensation
140
Q

What’s your clinical impression on a patient with foul smelling vaginal discharge due to overgrowth of anaerobes , decreased lactobacilli, increased vaginal pH?

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

141
Q

What’s your clinical impression on a patient having whitish gray color vaginal discharge adherent to vaginal wall but none on cervical os. Positive clue cells, no PMN cells seen.

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

142
Q

Treatment of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole BID for 7 days