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Respiratory > Viral Diseases of the Respiratory tract > Flashcards

Viral Diseases of the Respiratory tract Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of the common cold? Second most common?

A

Rhinovirus

Coronavirus

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2
Q

What is the virus that causes pneumonia and bronchiolitis in young children?

A

RSV

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3
Q

What is the cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

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4
Q

What does adenovirus cause?

A

Common cold and pharyngitis in children

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5
Q

What does HSV usually cause?

A

Gingivostomatitis in children; pharyngotonsillitis in adults

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6
Q

What does human cytomegalovirus cause usually?

A

Mono-like disease or pneumonia in transplant pts

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7
Q

What does human metapneumovirus usually cause?

A

LRTI in children

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8
Q

What is the enveloped status, and genetic makeup of coronavirus?

A

Enveloped

+ssRNA

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9
Q

What type of virus is SARS and MERS?

A

Coronavirus

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10
Q

What is the animal reservoir for SARS? MERS?

A 
SARS= bats
MERS= camels
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11
Q

What are the ssx for SARS and MERS?

A

Fever
Cough
SOB
ARDS

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12
Q

What is the severity of SARS? MERS?

A

SARS need hospitalization

MERS = asymptomatic to ARDS

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13
Q

What is the fatality rate of SARS? MERS?

A 
SARS = 10%
MERS = 36%
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14
Q

How long do the ssx of the flu last?

A

3-5 days peaks

Fatigue and weakness x2-6 weeks

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15
Q

What is the incubation period for the flu?

A

1-4 days

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16
Q

What is the contagious period for the flu?

A

5-7 days post ssx.

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17
Q

What are the indications for treatment of the flu with oseltamivir?

A

within 48 hours of onset

Have risk factors

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18
Q

What is the MA of oseltamivir?

A

Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor, serving as a competitive inhibitor of the activity of the viral neuraminidase (NA) enzyme upon sialic acid, found on glycoproteins on the surface of normal host cells. By blocking the activity of the enzyme, oseltamivir prevents new viral particles from being released through the cleaving of terminal sialic acid on glycosylated hemagglutinin and thus fail to facilitate virus release

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19
Q

Children under what age are at risk for complications from the flu?

A

Under 2 yo

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20
Q

Adults over what age are at risk for complications from the flu?

A

65

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21
Q

Pregnant women and women how many weeks postpartum are at increased risk for complications from the flu?

A

2 weeks postpartum

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22
Q

What medical conditions (generally) pose an increased risk for the development of complications from the flu?

A

Lung or heart disease

Kidney or liver disease

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23
Q

People younger than what age taking daily ASA are at increased risk for flu complications? What is the primary complication concerned here?

A

Younger than 19

Reye’s syndrome

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24
Q

What is the MOA of zanamivir?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

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25
Q

What are the two M2 protein (ion channel) inhibitors for influenza type A?

A

Amantadine

Rimantadine

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26
Q

What is the route of administration for zanamivir? Oseltamivir?

A 
Zanamivir = inhalation
Oseltamivir = oral
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27
Q

What is the pattern of pneumonia from influenza as compared to one from a bacterial infection following flu infection?

A

Bacterial following = biphasic

Primary = progressively worse

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28
Q

What is the average onset for pneumonia from influenza as compared to one from a bacterial infection following flu infection?

A 
Bacterial = 7 days following initial ssx
Flu = 1-4 days
29
Q

What are the culture results of pneumonia from influenza as compared to one from a bacterial infection following flu infection?

A

bacterial - bacteria

viral = PMNs

30
Q

What is the usual CXR pattern of infiltrates with flu pneumonia?

A

Interstitial pattern

31
Q

What is the fatality rate of pneumonia from the flu virus?

A

50%

32
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of H. influenzae?

A

gram negative rods

33
Q

What group of people is the live attenuated vaccine for the flu appropriate for?

A

healthy, non-pregnant 2-49 year olds

34
Q

What group of people is the recombinant vaccine for the flu appropriate for?

A

18-49

35
Q

What group of people is the inactivated, IM vaccine for the flu appropriate for?

A

anyone older than 6 months

36
Q

What group of people is the inactivated SQ vaccine for the flu appropriate for?

A

18-64

37
Q

What is the makeup of the trivalent and quadrivalent flu vaccines?

A

2 A + 1 B
or
2 A + 2 B

38
Q

What is the cell culture based vaccine? Who is this indicated for?

A

Flucelvax

greater than 18 yo

39
Q

What is the high dose flu vaccine? In whom is this indicated?

A

Fluzone

Greater than 65

40
Q

What is the intradermal vaccine for the flu? Who gets this?

A

Fluzone ID quadrivalent

18-64

41
Q

What is the recombinant flu vaccine? Who gets this? How is this administered? How is this made?

A

Flublok
18 yo or older
IM
Insect eggs

42
Q

What is the classic histological finding for herpes?

A

“owl eyes” Giant cells on tzanck smear

43
Q

What is the classic histological finding for papillomavirus?

A

Clear cells

44
Q

What is the classic histological finding for poxvirus?

A

Molluscum bodies

45
Q

What is the family and genetic material for cytomegalovirus?

A

Herpesviridae

dsDNA

46
Q

Where does cytomegalovirus replicate?

A

Mucosal epithelium

47
Q

Where is cytomegalovirus latent?

A

Monocytes

48
Q

What is the common risk factor for the development of CMV?

A

Immunosuppression from transplant

49
Q

What is the usual ssx of CMV in immunocompetent individuals?

A

Asymptomatic to mono-like

50
Q

What are the usual ssx of CMV in HIV patients?

A

CMV retinitis

Pneumonitis

51
Q

What are the usual ssx of CMV in neonates?

A

CMV inclusion disease

52
Q

What are the usual ssx of CMV in transplant recipients?

A

CMV pneumonitis

Gastritis

53
Q

What percent of mothers with a new CMV infection will transmit the virus to the fetus?

A

37%

54
Q

What percent of mothers with an old CMV infection will transmit the virus to the fetus?

A

1%

55
Q

Does breast milk contain CMV in infectious mothers?

A

yes

56
Q

What are the usual postnatal infectious etiologies of CMV?

A

Saliva or genital secretions

Toys

57
Q

Is CMV sexually transmittable?

A

yes

58
Q

What part of RBC transfusions contain CMV? How do you get rid of this issue?

A

Leukocytes

Leukoreduced RBCs

59
Q

True or false: CMV in bone marrow transplant recipients are usually due to transmission via the graft

A

false– usually due to patient’s latent infection

60
Q

What are the usual ssx of CMV transmission from transplants?

A
  • Spiking fever 40 to below 3
  • Malaise
  • Pneumonitis
  • Hepatitis
  • Thrombocytopenia
61
Q

What are the 2 antivirals that can be used to treat CMV?

A

ganciclovir

Valganciclovir

62
Q

What is the MOA of ganciclovir and Valganciclovir?

A

DNA polymerase

63
Q

How do you prevent CMV infection? (3)

A
  • Match donors
  • Antiviral prophylaxis
  • Monitor for viremia, then give antivirals
64
Q

What is the MOA of foscarnet? What is this used for?

A

Inhibition of DNA polymerase

CMV

65
Q

True or false: Disseminated CMV does not show vesicular rashes in infants

A

True

66
Q

What is the main complication from varicella?

A

Pneumonitis

67
Q

What does EBV cause?

A

Mono

68
Q

What is HHV8?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Respiratory (34 decks)

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