VIP V3 Flashcards

0
Q

Need IP in command for

A

DV1, AF2, FLOTUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Augmented crew is

A

1 AC, 2 pilots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Need backup at ADW for

A

All top 5 missions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An experienced AC has

A

50 hours or 5 missions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can an MP-FP fly top 5

A

CONUS yes, Intl no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Basic FDP

A

16 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Basic FDP no autopilot

A

12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tactical duty day

A

14 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AC can ask OG to extend duty day by

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Augmented FDP

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Augmented FDP no autopilot

A

16 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Augmented FDP tactical

A

18 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Training FDP

A

16 hours. Complete mission related events first 12 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Crew duty time

A

Add 45 min (16+45 or 24+45).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CDT/FDP begin

A

1 hr after alert or show time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max deadhead

A

24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

No alcohol within

A

12 hrs takeoff or Bravo show time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ambien DNIF for

A

6 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Min ground time

A

15 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PIC may waive min ground time to

A

12 hours. Need 8 hrs sleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Latest alert is

A

6 hrs after expected. AC can waive to 8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Standby force must be tasked

A

18 hrs prior to LFA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Max Standby force

A

48 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Standby force A can launch in

A

1 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Standby force B can launch in
3 hrs
25
Standby force C can launch in
Enter crew rest in 2 hrs. Max 72 hrs.
26
MEL waiver is
OG. Tell AMC A3V
27
One time flight with pax waiver authority is
AMC A3
28
An MP or higher must be in either seat for
TO and land
29
An AC or higher will land in left seat if
Emergency Cat 2/3 Airfield requires waiver
30
On missions with pax, are right seat landings allowed
Only by IP or above
31
Need shoulder harness on for
Taxi, takeoff, land
32
Sat phones cannot be used
Below 10' or in IMC
33
PM call outs non precision
100 above Minimums Runway in sight Missed app point
34
PM call outs precision
100 above | Land or continue or GA
35
Descent below 100' on cat 1 or 2 requires
Red side row or red termination lights
36
To call "land" must be
+- 5 knots and 1/2 dot
37
PM call deviations of
Heading 5 knots 100'
38
Min runway
5000'
39
Min runway for TO
CFL
40
Min runway for landing
Land dist from 50' over threshold
41
Min runway width
98'
42
Min taxi width
49'. Need fillets turning 49 to 49.
43
Min dist for 180 degree turn
120'
44
Max wind
50 kts
45
Max tailwind
15 kts
46
Max crosswind man cat 2
10 kts
47
Max crosswind Autoland
25 kts
48
If RSC, cleared portion of runway must be
25' plus gear offset (12').
49
Taxi wingtip clearance must be
25/10/10'
50
BWC moderate
No pattern
51
BWC severe
No TO or land. Waiver is OG.
52
After bird strike, land as soon as
Conditions permit
53
TCAS RA means you must file a
HATR
54
For TO, set rad alt to
Emer return mins or 600 for VMC
55
For land, set rad alt to
HAT
56
What weather is required
175, mission package, or verbal for local
57
Secure launch is for
Unstable countries. Identified by TWG. TACC reviews 4 hours prior.
58
VFR departures will not be flown in lieu of
Obstacle clearance planning
59
Are VFR departures allowed if aircraft cannot depart IFR
Yes.
60
OCS starts at
USAF/USN 0. | Others 35'.
61
For OEI IFR departure, use
SDP or min climb gradient (subtract 48').
62
When TO weather is below landing mins
Dept alternate required.
63
Min TO RVR
600' or 200m. Need 2 RVR, centerline lights, all transmissometers are controlling.
64
Non mission essential takeoff mins
1600' RVR or 1/2 SM
65
Can I use cat 2/3 mins for dept alternate
No
66
Dept alternate within 30 min requires
Approach mins +1 hour (at least 200-1/2).
67
Dept alternate within 1 hr requires
500-1 above lowest approach +1 hour. Min 600-2 precision 800-2 non precision
68
File 2 alternates when
Vis less than prec approach. Ceiling or Vis less than non prec. Winds out limits.
69
Always file alternate
OCONUS (unless intratheater less than 3 hrs).
70
A remote island is
No alternate within 2 hrs. Can use 1+15 holding in lieu of alternate
71
Weather required at remote island
Winds in limits for 2 hours | Non prec mins for 2 hours
72
Can I fly in severe turb or moderate Mtn wave
No
73
If in moderate or greater turb
Seatbelt sign on
74
Severe icing and freezing rain are
Prohibited
75
If deiced, do a visual inspection
5 min before departure
76
Thunderstorm avoidance criteria
20 above 230, 10 below, 2000' above
77
If 0C or colder
Cold WX altimeter correction in FIH
78
Avoid volcanic activity by
20 NM
79
Avoid lightning by
Avoid 5000' or within 8 degrees of freezing level
80
Snow event at ADW means
Hangar launch
81
Stations time is
30 min prior
82
Min O2
1000 PSI
83
Above FL 410
One pilot on oxygen
84
A delay happens when
DV party ready to move and aircraft not ready
85
Oceanic materials stay in Stan Eval for
3 months
86
Use due regard only
To protect aircraft
87
Fly a precision approach if available
At night
88
Special accredited does not require
Terps review
89
If ALS Inop
Add 1/2 mile to mins
90
Minimums for ILS or PAR
200 and 1/2
91
Min circling WX cat D
600 and 2
92
Can use VNAV DA at
WGS 84 fields only
93
Do not execute approach if
WX below mins before enroute descent
94
Can I continue a cat 2 if it goes below mins
No
95
Cat 2 min RVR
1200 and HAT 100
96
Cat 3 RVR
3A 700 | 3B 300
97
Never land
Pressurized
98
Hot reps go to
OGO
99
Can I do multiple approaches with pax
No | MEP yes
100
Touch and gos require
An IP | 300 and 3/4
101
Can I do a stop and go
No
102
Min runway for touch and go
6000
103
Can I simulate an EP in the aircraft
No
104
Out and backs must use
Mil or joint fields
105
RNP 10 requires
2 LRN systems
106
North of 70 degrees use
Grid procedures
107
EROPS Definition
Greater than 60 min from adequate airport at SE drift down speed and alt
108
C32 is _____ minute EROPS compliant
180
109
Logon to CPDLC _____ minutes prior to oceanic entry
15-45
110
Reserve fuel
45 min at max endurance 10,000'
111
Remote island reserve
2+00. Includes 1+15 holding
112
Fuel for EROPS
To fly from ETP SE at 10,000'
113
If greater than 60 min from suitable alternate, you need
An ETP
114
Do not use JP8+_____
100
115
Fuel for APU, start, taxi, TO
900#
116
Enroute reserve fuel
1500#
117
Alternate fuel
2500#
118
Min fuel at landing
4500#