Instrument Stuff Flashcards

0
Q

Min takeoff WX

A

1/2 mile, 800m
OR
600RVR/200m with stipulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

To takeoff with RVR 600-1600, I need

A
Mission priority
Dual RVR (600 on all)
Centerline lights
Takeoff alternate
Fully qualified crew
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dept alternate within 30 min requires

A

Until 1 hour after TO, app mins (no less than 200-1/2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dept alternate within 2 hrs requires

A

For ETA +1 hr, 500-1 above lowest Appr (no less than 600-2 prec, 800-2 non prec).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When do I need to file an alternate

A

Destination is less than 2000-3(worst WX +- 1 hr)
OR
1000-2 if dual ILS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

WX for an alternate to qualify

A

500 above Appr mins and 2 miles OR Appr Vis if higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Also need alternate if

A

WX, winds, WX not reporting
Radar only
Unmonitored navaid
Lowest mins > 1500-3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an SDF

A

Like LOC, but wider course, less precise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GPS PPS (precise position service) is accurate to

A

9m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can I use GPS PPS for IFR navigation

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many satellites are needed for IFR navigation

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To fly RNAV terminal procedures,

A

CDI set to 1 nm

Must be pulled from current database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can I fly terminal procedures with an expired database

A

No, 217v1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which takes precedence, chart or database

A

Chart, 217v1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In terminal procedures, all distances in the FMS must be within

A

0.1 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FMS final approach course must be within

A

5 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When do I have to do cold WX altimeter correction

A

Below 0, everything inside FAF
Below 0 mountainous, everything
Below -30, everything

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Cat A through E speeds

A

166

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does MSA provide

A

1000 above highest within 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does ESA provide

A

1000 (2000 Mtn) within 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is TDZE

A

Highest in first 3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If no circling ceiling is published

A

Use HAA plus 100 rounded up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How far off can a straight in approach be

A

30 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does A-NA mean

A

Doesn’t qualify as an alternate- WX not reporting, un monitored navaid, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
What two declared distances do I use?
TORA | LDA
25
Can I do LPV
No, requires WAAS
26
How is a fly over waypoint depicted on an approach
It's circled
27
Altimeter tolerance at ground checkpoint
75'
28
Heading indicator tolerance
5 deg
29
VOR ground checkpoint tolerance
4 deg
30
DME tolerance
1/5 mile or 3%, whichever is greater
31
The OCS at AF and Navy fields starts at _____. Others start at _______
0, 35'
32
Where is trouble T info on Jepps
Back of airfield diagram
33
Close in obstacles are below
200'
34
Close in obstacles are a factor if within
500', technique in 11-217
35
2 types of IFR departures
ODP | SID
36
Types of ODP departurs
Routing, climb gradient, low close in obstacles, sector departure, VCOA, RTRL
37
T/F. Comply with ODP prior to the SID
True, unless cleared otherwise
38
How do I know there's an ODP
Trouble T
39
Can I use non standard WX min
No, but if you can be above the ceiling OEI by the departure end, that is a legal dept method
40
Can I fly VCOA at night?
No, need NVGs
41
When can I do VCOA
"Climb in visual conditions" twice
42
What is the radius for VCOA?
Published, from geographic center, or use remain within dist
43
VCOA construction is based on bank angle
23 deg at 250 Kts
44
Can I create my own RTRL?
No
45
What is a diverse vector area
Vectors on dept can be issued below MVA
46
When can I do a diverse dept
No SID or trouble t
47
How do I do a diverse dept
400', then turn on course and climb 200'/nm
48
What if there is no SID, no ODP, and diverse dept not authorized?
Call AMC terps
49
What if I can't make a OEI climb gradient?
1. Delay msn, download, etc 2. Subtract 48' (ops sup approval) 3. SDP
50
RNAV departures must be checked in FMS to be within
5 deg and 0.1 nm
51
Holding time at or below 14000'
1 min
52
Standard hold turn direction
Right
53
Can I hold over a tacan
No
54
3 parts of holding instruction
Direction Fix EFC
55
If approaching clearance limit fix, begin to slow
3 min before
56
FAA max hold speeds
0-6 200 6-14 230 Above 14 265 **230 is 210 in NY and DC
57
Established in holding when
Initial passage of holding fix
58
Max bank angle in holding
30, or 3 deg per sec, or FD
59
If heading is within ______ of inbound holding course, turn in direction of holding
70 deg
60
Max teardrop in holding
45 deg from outbound course
61
You are conveniently aligned to teardrop if
Within 45 deg of teardrop course
62
Begin timing outbound when
Outbound abeam, or wings level outbound
63
Runway edge lights are yellow for the
Last 2000'
64
Centerline lights are white until
Last 3000', alt red and white | Last 1000', red
65
Hold short of ILS crit area if WX less than
800/2
66
If only one pilot at controls, must be on oxygen above
350
67
One pilot always on oxygen above
410
68
WX for an alternate to be required
2000-3 | Can be 1000-2 if 2 independent prec approaches
69
Other conditions req an alternate
``` WX not reporting Winds out of limits Un monitored navaid Radar only Lowest approach mins greater than 1500-3 ```
70
WX for an alternate to qualify
1000 or 500 above | 2 or 1 above
71
Can I have a GPS only alternate
Yes, only if destination is not also GPS only
72
Do I need fuel for approach and missed approach at primary airport
Only if using Vis only
73
How much fuel reserve do I need
4500 lbs. (10% of flight time up to 45 min).
74
Do I have to meet IFR climb gradients for a VFR dept
Yes. 11202v3
75
Min altitude to start a turn
400'
76
Does published climb gradient factor in low close in obstacles
No
77
What are my options if I cannot meet a OEI climb gradient
SDP OR Subtract 48'
78
What climb gradient is required on vectors
Highest published
79
Avoid volcanic ash by
50nm
80
Avoid forecast or reported severe
Icing | Turb
81
Approval authority to land in bird severe
OG
82
If unable to display altimeter setting
Get OG approval to fly below 180
83
Do not begin enroute descent if
Below Vis for straight in | Below ceiling and Vis for circle
84
Advise ATC if cold weather altimeter correction exceeds
80'
85
When to do cold WX altimeter correction
Below 0- inside FAF Below 0 mountainous- all Below -30- all
86
Do I comply with an RA on a PRM breakout
Yes
87
Report gear down prior to
Threshold
88
How many LRNS for overwater
2
89
When must I do a time check
On the ground
90
If lost comm, what approach can I fly
Any
91
Descend at least how many FPM?
500'
92
When can I level off without telling ATC
10000' | 2500' prior to B, C, D
93
What is established on course
Half full scale deflection, 5 degrees for NDB, full scale LOC
94
3 things you must read back to ATC
Headings Altitudes Altimeters
95
Do I have to report "descending via" on each new frequency
Yes
96
Max allowable difference between database course and published course
5 deg
97
When do I not fly a proc turn?
``` Straight in No PT routing Established holding Radar vectors Timed approach ```
98
Procedure turns can be flown up to _____ kts, max recommended speed _______ kts
250, 200
99
Max teardrop on procedure turn
30 deg
100
On a 45/180, how long do I fly out on the 45
1:15, cat C or D, from start of turn
101
When can I descend to the min TAA altitude
Crossing TAA boundary, cleared for approach
102
Formula for 3 deg glide slope VVI
(GS X 10) / 2 | 1300 / 2 = 650
103
Required components of an ILS
Glide slope, LOC, outer marker
104
Range of glide slope
10 nm
105
Range of LOC
18 nm
106
If one dot low or two dots high
Descend to LOC mins
107
Can a middle marker be the sole means to identify a MAP
No
108
PAR/ASR transmission requirements
1 min vectored to final 15 sec ASR final 5 sec PAR final
109
What do I need in sight to fly a visual approach
Airport or preceding aircraft
110
Weather mins for a visual
1000 and 3
111
All ILS PRM breakouts will be
Hand flown
112
Do I respond to an RA on an ILS PRM
Yes
113
When can I depart circling MDA
Intercepting normal glide path
114
When can I side step
Landing runway in sight, ASAP, usually inside FAF.
115
When does the controller have to issue climb out instruction for a touch and go
Prior to FAF
116
Three times to go missed approach
Runway environment not in sight Told to Not in safe position to land
117
ICAO procedures are based on bank angle
Standard or 25, whichever is less
118
ICAO established on course
Half full scale or 5 deg on NDB
119
ICAO beginning of OCS
16'
120
What is an omnidirectional departure
Like a diverse dept. can be standard, specified turn alt, specified climb gradient, or sector dept.
121
Two types of ICAO SIDS
Straight (within 15 deg) | Turning
122
Max speed on departure, ICAO cat C
265
123
Can I use holding entry for procedure turns in ICAO
No
124
What is the ICAO entry sector
Plus or minus 30 deg
125
Max approach speed ICAO CAT C
240
126
Max teardrop in ICAO racetrack
30
127
Max time on teardrop heading ICAO racetrack
1:30
128
Can parallel entries on a racetrack turn direct to the facility
No, must intercept inbound course
129
What do I need to keep in sight on ICAO circle
"Runway environment"
130
Max speed ICAO circle Cat D
205
131
3 ICAO holding entries
Parallel Offset Direct
132
Which leg do I time for ICAO Hold patterns
Outbound