Oral Exam Flashcards

0
Q

Max rudder travel

A

65 degrees w tiller

7 degrees w pedals

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1
Q

Max Operating altitude

A

42000

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2
Q

What model engines

A

PW2040

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3
Q

When is pitot static heat activated

A

Engine start

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4
Q

Max altitude for APU bleed air

A

17000

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5
Q

What are the 6 power sources

A
L generator
R generator
APU generator
HDG
Ext power
Batteries. 30 min
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6
Q

Aircraft dimensions

A

155’ long
60’ nose gear to main gear
135’ wingspan

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7
Q

How much space for 180 degree turn

A

120’

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8
Q

Nose gear strut extension

A

0.5” to 5.5”

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9
Q

Main gear strut extension

A

3 fingers

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10
Q

Passenger oxygen masks last for

A

22 minutes

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11
Q

Passenger masks auto deploy at

A

14000’

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12
Q

PBE lasts for

A

15 minutes

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13
Q

Total fuel in L, R, and C tanks

A

75,600

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14
Q

Fuel in forward aux

A

7123

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15
Q

Fuel in aft aux

A

9101

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16
Q

Total aux fuel

A

16224

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17
Q

All fuel tanks total

A

91824

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18
Q

Where is DC fuel pump

A

Left wing. For APU. If AC power, L Fwd AC pump runs

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19
Q

3 causes Fuel Configuration Light

A
  1. Imbalance more than 1800
  2. Useable fuel less than 2200
  3. More than 1200 in C tank with pumps off
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20
Q

Tell me about C fuel pumps

A

Only run w more than 50% N2
2x more power
Run w fueling station door open

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21
Q

Can you suction feed from C tank

A

No

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22
Q

Where is the SPR

A

Right wing

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23
Q

Can I manually fuel the aircraft

A

Wing yes, center no

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24
Q

What indicates a fuel leak

A

More than 1000 imbalance in less than 30 min

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25
Q

What is the max fuel temp

A

49C

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26
Q

Min fuel temp

A

3 degrees above freeze or -45C, whichever is higher

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27
Q

Which ILS receiver functions on stby power?

A

Center

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28
Q

What are marker beacons powered by

A

Stby power

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29
Q

How long does IRS alignment take

A

10 min

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30
Q

When do you have to do extended alignment and how long does it take

A

70 to 78 degrees N or S. 17 min.

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31
Q

How long does fast align take? When can I do it?

A

30 sec. If less than 18 hrs since full alignment.

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32
Q

What powers each IRU

A

L IRU - L AC XFER BUS
R IRU - R AC BUS
C IRU - C AC BUS
HOT BATTERY IS DC BACKUP

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33
Q

Which IRU only has 5 min in DC power

A

R IRU

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34
Q

Can I realign IRS in the air

A

No

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35
Q

What is ATT mode on IRS

A

Fly level 30 sec to align. Provides heading and attitude

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36
Q

Max altitude APU generator

A

42000

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37
Q

Max altitude APU bleed air

A

17000

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38
Q

APU fault light

A

Fuel (valve disagree, blinks on start)
Fire
Fault
**immediate shutdown

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39
Q

What is needed to start APU

A

Aircraft battery

APU battery

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40
Q

APU run light

A

APU on speed. Blinks twice on start for self test if circuitry.

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41
Q

APU starter duty cycle

A

3 attempts in 60 min. 5 min cooling between each.

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42
Q

How long does APU run bleed air cooling automatically during shutdown

A

60-120 sec

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43
Q

Can I cancel APU shutdown if run light still on?

A

Yes. Select start

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44
Q

Does battery switch off turn off APU

A

Ground- yes. Still does cooldown.

Flight- no.

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45
Q

Why is it bad to kill APU with battery switch

A

You lose fire protection during cooldown.

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46
Q

What model engine

A

PW 2040

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47
Q

What drives engine accessories

A

N2 rotor

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48
Q

What prevents engine limit exceedences

A

Electric engine control (EEC)

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49
Q

What are primary engine indications on upper EICAS

A

EPR, N1, EGT

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50
Q

What are secondary engine indications?

A

N2, FF, Oil temp press quant, vib

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51
Q

Amber engine indications are inhibited on TO or GA for

A

5 min. 10 min single engine

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52
Q

When does stby engine indicator turn on

A

Both EICAS computers fail
Both EICAS CRTs fail
AC power loss

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53
Q

Max thrust reduction for DTO takeoff

A

25%

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54
Q

What operates Spar and Eng valves

A

Fuel control switches

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55
Q

Oil Pressure Relief valve at

A

425 PSI

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56
Q

Starter cuts out at

A

50% N2

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57
Q

Starting fuel flow is

A

600 lbs/hr

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58
Q

Engine starter duty cycle

A

3 starts less than 2 min run down to 0% N2, then 15 min cooling.
If greater than 2 min, 4 min max once and then 15 min cooling.

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59
Q

What is inflight start envelope

A

It displays on EICAS

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60
Q

When will reverse thrust work

A

On ground in Idle

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61
Q

EGT limit for engine start

A

570C

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62
Q

Min N2 on start for ignition and fuel

A

18%

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63
Q

Position fuel control switch to run at

A

18% N2 below 9500’

24% N2 above 9500’

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64
Q

Abort start if EGT fails to rise within

A

20 sec of RUN

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65
Q

Abort start if N1

A

Fails to rise with EGT

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66
Q

Abort start if N2

A

Fails to stabilize at idle within 120 sec

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67
Q

Do not advance thrust beyond required for taxi until oil temp reaches

A

50C

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68
Q

Loss of pressure/rapid D boldface

A

OXYGEN MASKS ON/100%

CREW COMMUNICATIONS ESTABLISH

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69
Q

Dual engine failure boldface

A

ENGINE START SELECTORS (BOTH) FLT
THRUST LEVERS (BOTH) IDLE
FUEL CONTROL SWITCHES (BOTH) CUTOFF, then RUN

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70
Q

Aborted engine start boldface

A

FUEL CONTROL SWITCH (AFFECTED SIDE) CUTOFF

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71
Q

Unscheduled stab trim boldface

A

STABILIZER TRIM CUTOUT SWITCHES CUTOUT

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72
Q

Fuel temp is measured in the

A

R tank

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73
Q

Center tank scavenge system transfers fuel to the

A

L tank

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74
Q

How is fuel transferred from aux tanks

A

Bleed air pressure from L duct

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75
Q

When will Aux fuel transfer start

A

Less than 39,300 in C tank. Stops if C tank fills to 41600

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76
Q

Can the IDG be reset

A

No

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77
Q

DRIVE LIGHT indicates

A

IDG oil temp high or press low

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78
Q

When is HDG activated

A

Both L and R AC Systems fail

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79
Q

What drives HDG

A

L system or PTU

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80
Q

Is it normal to see BATT DISCHARGE with HDG

A

Yes. Until batt voltage matches HDG output

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81
Q

What does HDG power

A
Capt instr transfer bus
L AC transfer bus
R AC transfer bus
AC stby bus
DC stby bus
Batt bus 
Hot batt bus
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82
Q

What does battery power

A

Batt bus- if switch on
Hot batt bus- all the time
Stby AC bus- thru inverter
Stby DC bus

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83
Q

How long does battery power last inflight

A

90 minutes (or 30 min)

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84
Q

What powers each autopilot for auto land

A

L- L AC bus
C- battery standby system
R-R AC bus

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85
Q

3 times load shedding happens

A

Engine start- when GND selected
Generator loss
Overload

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86
Q

What order does load shedding follow

A

Galley
Utility buses
Individual equipment

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87
Q

How long are emergency lights powered for

A

15 min

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88
Q

Passenger masks auto deploy at

A

14000

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89
Q

What powers RAT

A

Hot Battery Bus

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90
Q

When will RAT auto deploy

A

80 kts ground speed

With dual engine failure below 50% N2

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91
Q

Min speed for RAT

A

130

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92
Q

Engine start Selector held in GND until

A

50% N2

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93
Q

What is load shed for engine start

A

Utility buses

R recirc fan

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94
Q

Is there a time limit for igniters

A

No

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95
Q

Where is fuel temp measured

A

Right tank

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96
Q

Will wing anti ice operate on ground

A

No

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97
Q

What slats does wing anti ice reach

A

The first 3 of 5

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98
Q

Window Heat Inop Light

A

Switch off
Overheat
Fault

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99
Q

Auto seatbelt sign on when

A

Gear not up
Flaps not up
Below 10000
Oxygen masks out

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100
Q

Outflow valve automatically closes above

A

11000

Returns to norm at 9500

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101
Q

Pressurization Auto Inop Light

A

Both controllers failed

Man mode selected

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102
Q

Pressure Auto rate selector index mark

A

500’ climb 300’ descent

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103
Q

Pressure Auto rate selector min

A

50’ climb 30’ descent

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104
Q

Pressure Auto rate selector max

A

2000’ climb 1200’ descent

105
Q

Max cabin differential

A

8.6 +or- 0.5

106
Q

Max PSID for Takeoff or Landing

A

0.125

107
Q

Equipment smoke light

A

FLT deck supply fan turns off
Recirc fan turns off
Overboard exhaust valve opens
Packs to high flow

108
Q

CAB ALT Light

A

Exceeds 10000. Light off at 8500

109
Q

CAB ALT Light with high alt landing

A

Cabin exceeds 14650. Light out at 11,800

110
Q

Pack off Light

A

Pack is off
Loss of air
Pack overheat

111
Q

Pack Inop Light

A

Excessive outlet temp- pack will go full cold

Fault- pack valve will freeze

112
Q

Pack Control Selector in Stby at N regulates

A

75 degrees

113
Q

Caution system inhibited on takeoff

A

From 80 knots until first of 400’ or 20 sec

On abort TO, inhibit removed at 75 knots

114
Q

Warning system inhibited on takeoff

A

From rotation until 20 sec or 400’ , whichever is first

115
Q

When will I get ATT disagree

A

3 degree pitch or roll difference

116
Q

When will pitch limit indicator show up

A

Flaps extended

117
Q

When does HSI compass change to true

A

Above 73 N and 60 S

118
Q

Failed SG will blank

A

EFIS displays

119
Q

Failed IRU will blank

A

HDG, ATT, ALT

120
Q

Captain RDMI gets input from

A

R side

121
Q

How many ADC

A

2

122
Q

How many IRU

A

3

123
Q

How many SG

A

3

124
Q

How many ILS

A

3

125
Q

How many FCC

A

3

126
Q

How many FMC

A

2

127
Q

What does EFI Alt control

A

Symbol Gen
ILS
Radio Alt

128
Q

Autopilot controls

A

Aileron
Elevator
Rudder- only in multi AP approach

129
Q

How can approach mode be cancelled after glide slope intercept

A

GA button OR

Disengage AP and turn both FD switches off

130
Q

Can ASA change below 200’

A

Yes. Only to indicate No Autoland

131
Q

The aircraft will capture LNAV regardless of heading if

A

Within 2.5 NM

132
Q

Max angle to capture localizer

A

120 degrees

133
Q

ASA comes on below

A

1500’

134
Q

When is GA mode armed

A

When flaps extended or GS captured

135
Q

When does GA mode stop being armed

A

2 sec past RA 5’

136
Q

What does GA mode command

A

Vref+5 and 2000 fpm

137
Q

What powers norm brakes

A

Right hydraulic system.

138
Q

What powers alternate brakes

A

Left system. No auto brakes.

139
Q

What powers reserve brakes

A

Right system standpipe. Anti skid and auto brakes are functional.

140
Q

BRAKE SOURCE light

A

Both norm and alt brake pressures low. With reserve selected, accumulator is only power for brakes

141
Q

FIRE light

A

Engine, APU, wheel well or cargo fire

142
Q

CONFIG light for takeoff

A

Flaps
Park brake
Spoilers
Stab trim

143
Q

CONFIG for landing

A

Gear not down AND-
Flaps 25 or 30
Thrust idle less than 800’

144
Q

SPEED BRAKES light

A

Speed brakes out AND-
RA 800 to 15
Landing flaps selected

145
Q

ALT ALERT light

A

200 to 500 off MCP altitude

146
Q

How to disarm auto brakes

A

MASS

Man brakes
Spoiler up
Switch disarm or off
Advance power

147
Q

When is RTO armed

A

85 knots

148
Q

When do auto brakes engage

A

Idle
Wheel spin up
1 degree pitch

149
Q

DTO 1 and DTO 2 reductions

A

91% and 81%

150
Q

Derated CLB 1 and 2

A

92% and 85%

151
Q

What is needed for a bleed air valve to open

A

Switch on
Bleed supply
Bleed demand

152
Q

HI STAGE light

A

Too much pressure, valve closes, cannot be reset

153
Q

BLEED light

A

Temperature excessive. Valve closed. Can be reset

154
Q

Isolation valve powered by

A

Standby AC and DC

155
Q

How many fans in FWD E and E cooling

A

3- supply, alt supply, aux

156
Q

How many fans in aft E and E cooling

A

2

157
Q

What happens if recirc fan fails

A

Pack switches to high flow

158
Q

How many cooling zones are there

A
  1. Lowest determines output of pack. Rest use trim air
159
Q

When does pressurization enter cruise mode

A

Level for 1 min. Stays until alt changes by 500’

160
Q

How many HF radios

A

3

161
Q

How many HF antennae

A

1

162
Q

RTU FAIL

A

Radio failure

163
Q

RTU PANEL

A

RTU fail

164
Q

No HF transmissions within

A

200’ of fuel

165
Q

HF tuning takes

A

Max 15 sec

166
Q

Altimeter reminder light

A

900 to 300’

167
Q

Where does input for Capt RDMI come from

A

R side

168
Q

What powers standby ADI

A

Stby DC bus

169
Q

What bus detects fire

A

Battery

170
Q

What bus fights fire

A

Hot battery

171
Q

What does pulling a fire handle do

A
FAGSHB
Fuel- eng and spar valves 
Arms bottles
Generator
Silence bell
Hydraulic pump
Bleed air valve
172
Q

How many fire loops in engine

A

2 in engine. 1 overheat loop in strut

173
Q

Crew action for wheel well fire

A

Put gear down

174
Q

What does RAT power

A

C hydraulics for aileron, elevator, rudder

175
Q

4 ways to trim

A

Electric
Alternate
Autopilot
Mach speed

176
Q

Can I trim ailerons with autopilot

A

No. Yoke doesn’t move

177
Q

STAB TRIM light

A

Trim running half rate

178
Q

UNSCHED STAB TRIM

A

Uncommanded movement. Use Cutout switches or move yoke

179
Q

How many spoilers

A

12

180
Q

Which spoilers are ground only

A

4 and 9

181
Q

What Hyd system powers R aileron

A

C and L

182
Q

What spoilers do C hydraulics power

A

1 and 12

183
Q

What spoilers do R hydraulics power

A

2,4,6,7,9,11

184
Q

RUDDER RATIO light

A
Failure
L hydraulics fail
L ADC fail
**avoid large inputs above 160kts
**if L Hyd normal, max cross 15kts
185
Q

Auto speed brakes require arming AND

A

Ground
Idle
Hydraulic pressure to gear truck tilt

186
Q

AUTO SPEEDBRAKE light

A

Do not arm handle

187
Q

Thrust reverser deploy also deploys

A

SPEEDBRAKE

188
Q

What powers flap power drive units

A

L Hyd or PTU or electric motors

189
Q

How many positions do slats have

A
  1. TO land and up
190
Q

Max derated TO

A

75%

191
Q

What does L Hyd system power

A

Gear flaps steering HDG yaw damper

192
Q

When does PTU come on

A

When L pump press low. Powered by R system

193
Q

HYD RSVR light

A

Low bleed pressure or quantity less than 50%

194
Q

HYD SYS PRESS

A

Low pressure in system

195
Q

HYD PRESS Light

A

Pump output press low

196
Q

HYD OVHT light

A

Pump temp high

197
Q

Hydraulic EICAS message RF at

A

75% quantity

198
Q

L standpipe fluid for

A

PTU

199
Q

C standpipe fluid for

A

RAT

200
Q

R standpipe fluid for

A

Reserve brakes

201
Q

PTU powers

A

Slat/flap, gear, steering, HDG

202
Q

RAT powers

A

C flight controls

203
Q

RAT deploys when

A

Armed when above 80 kts
Both engines under 50% N2
Switch- hot batt bus

204
Q

Speed for RAT power

A

Above 130 kts. Will get green press light

205
Q

Gear retraction time

A

25 sec

206
Q

Gear truck tilt

A

9.6 degrees

207
Q

Alt Gear ext uses L Hyd fluid and

A

DC pump from hot batt bus. Doors stay down

208
Q

Auto brakes require

A

One IRS

209
Q

ANTI SKID light

A

Failure or power loss

210
Q

LEADING EDGE light

A

Slat asymmetry or disagree

211
Q

TRAILING EDGE light

A

Flap asymmetry or disagree.

Load relief system not operating

212
Q

Max alt flaps

A

20

213
Q

With alt flaps at 20, slats will be

A

In landing position

214
Q

BRAKE TEMP light

A

Temp is 5 or above

215
Q

Terrain dotted green

A

2000 below to 500 below

216
Q

Terrain dotted amber

A

500 below to 2000 above

217
Q

Terrain dotted red

A

More than 2000 above

218
Q

Terrain caution

A

40-60 sec from impact

219
Q

Terrain warning

A

20-30 sec from impact

220
Q

PARK BRAKE light

A

Park brake valve not open

221
Q

LEADING EDGE light

A

Slat asymmetry or disagree

222
Q

TRAILING EDGE light

A

Flap asymmetry or disagree.

Load relief system not operating

223
Q

Max alt flaps

A

20

224
Q

With alt flaps at 20, slats will be

A

In landing position

225
Q

BRAKE TEMP light

A

Temp is 5 or above

226
Q

Terrain dotted green

A

2000 below to 500 below

227
Q

Terrain dotted amber

A

500 below to 2000 above

228
Q

Terrain dotted red

A

More than 2000 above

229
Q

Terrain caution

A

40-60 sec from impact

230
Q

Terrain warning

A

20-30 sec from impact

231
Q

PARK BRAKE light

A

Park brake valve not open

232
Q

How should engine stack look after engine start

A

1,2,3,6,10

233
Q

4 times to abort an engine start

A

Oil press fails to rise prior to RUN
EGT fails to rise 20 sec after RUN
N1 fails to rise with EGT
N2 fails to stabilize at idle 120 sec after RUN

234
Q

Reject after 80 knots for

A

Fire
Eng failure
Predicted windshear
Aircraft not going to fly

235
Q

When will ignition operate in AUTO

A

Slats extended

Eng anti ice on

236
Q

What does CONT ignition do

A

Continuos power to one igniter. Required for severe turbulence

237
Q

What does FLT ignition do

A

Powers both igniters. Dual engine failure.

238
Q

EPR corrections for wing anti ice use

A

Valve position

239
Q

EPR corrections for engine anti ice use

A

Switch position

240
Q

Max PSIG decrease when checking oxygen

A

100

241
Q

Set heading reference true if N or S of

A

82 degrees

242
Q

PWS is enabled

A

Thrust levers set for takeoff OR

Below 2300’

243
Q

Alerts listed in priority

A

Wind shear immed alert warning
GPWS immed alert warning
GPWS look ahead warning
Wind shear predictive warning

244
Q

GS can be inhibited below

A

1000 AGL

245
Q

AUTO BRAKES light

A

System disarmed or Inop

246
Q

When are RAs inhibited on TCAS

A

500’

247
Q

Windshear recovery procedure

A

Disengage auto throttle and autopilot. GA switch. Max power. 15 degrees pitch. Speed brakes in.

248
Q

Reactive windshear is active below

A

1500’

249
Q

Predictive windshear issues alerts below

A

1200’

250
Q

Predictive windshear cautions are inhibited from

A

80 kts to 400’

251
Q

Predictive windshear warnings are inhibited from

A

100 kts to 50’

252
Q

What systems does ASA monitor

A
FAIRI
FCC
Autopilot
IRS
Radar Alt
ILS
253
Q

Equipment SMOKE light

A

Smoke in fwd equipment cooling ducts

254
Q

ALTN equipment cooling switch

A
  1. Selects Alt supply fan
  2. Activates aux fan if both supply fans fail
  3. Opens overboard exhaust valve if L recirc fan not operating
255
Q

OVHT equipment cooling light

A
ILBSSS
Insufficient airflow
L recirc fan not operating and overboard exhaust valve closed
Both aft cooling fans Inop 
Selected supply fan not operating
Smoke in DV stateroom
Smoke detected and ALTN not selected
256
Q

Max N1 to pull out of parking

A

35%

257
Q

RA- aircraft will enter collision airspace within

A

20-30 sec

258
Q

TA- aircraft will enter collision airspace within

A

35-40 sec

259
Q

RAs are inhibited below

A

1000 AGL