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VetNeuroJAR Flashcards

1
Q

How is the Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV) primarily transmitted?
A. Through contaminated water
B. Through the bite of infected mosquitos
C. Through contact with infected birds
D. Through contact with infected horses

A

B. Bite of infected (ornitophilic) mosquitos.

Culex tarsalis in North Am.
Genus Mansonia sp. in Argentina.

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of WEEV infection in horses?
A. Fever B. Anorexia C. Respiratory distress D. Encephalomyelitis

A

C. Respiratory distress

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3
Q

What was the approximate fatality rate of WEEV in horses during the 2023-2024 outbreak?
A. 100% B. 85% C. 50% D. Data unavailable in the source

A

D. Data unavailable.

It says “high”.

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4
Q

According to the phylogenetic analysis in the study, the WEEV strains from the 2023-2024 South America outbreak are:
A. Genetically similar to North American WEEV strains.
B. Likely part of a novel WEEV lineage.
C. Genetically diverse and unrelated to other WEEV strains.
D. Identical to strains from the 1982-1983 outbreak in Argentina.

A

B. Likely part of a novel WEEV lineage.

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5
Q

Which of the following neural autoantibodies was detected in the dogs diagnosed with IGTS?
A. LGl1
B. NMDAR
C. mGluR1
D. GABA-A-R

Kajin and Volk 2024

A

C) mGluR1

In 2 dogs.

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6
Q

What is the most common treatment for canine idiopathic generalized tremor syndrome (IGTS) in dogs?
A. Antibiotics
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Corticosteroids
D. Physical therapy

A

C) Corticosteroids.

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7
Q

What is the most common route of Neospora caninum infection in dogs?
A. Ingestion of infected tissue from intermediate hosts.
B. Ingestion of oocysts in feces.
C. Vertical transmission via the transplacental route.
D. Horizontal transmission through contact with infected dogs.

A

C) Vertical transmission.

Leads to the formation of bradyzoite cysts and clinical disease sporadically. A and B are also possible.

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8
Q

What was the median age of onset of clinical signs in the dogs studied?
A. 8 months B. 10 years C. 2.5 years D. 6 months

A

C) 2.5 years.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common clinical sign of adult-onset neosporosis in dogs?
A. Generalized myopathy B. Myelopathy C. Hepatomegaly D. Intracranial disease

A

C) Hepatomegaly

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10
Q

What percentage of dogs in the study experienced at least one relapse of neosporosis?
A. 100% B. 62% C. 38% D. 19%

A

19%.

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11
Q

What percentage of rabies-positive animals present Negri bodies in their brains?
A. 10 - 20%
B. 25 - 50%
C. 53.7 - 70%
D. 80 - 90%

A

C) 53.7 - 70%

They are unique to rabies, and have different sizes (1-27 microm) and shape.

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12
Q

What type of virus is the rabies virus?
A. DNA virus
B. RNA virus
C. Retrovirus
D. Adenovirus

A

b) RNA virus

Belongs to the genus Lyssavirus and family Rhabdoviridae.

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13
Q

What is the gold standard for rabies antigen detection?
A. Hematoxylin and eosin (HE) stain
B. Seller’s stain
C. Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
D. Direct fluorescent antibody test (dFAT)

A

d) Direct fluorescent antibody test (dFAT)

HE and Seller’s stain: unable to distinguish Negri bodies from Negri-like inclusion bodies, therefore no longer recommended.

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14
Q

In the study discussed in the source, which area of the brain was found to have the highest prevalence of Negri bodies?
A. Cerebrum
B. Thalamus
C. Brainstem
D. Hippocampus

A

d) Hippocampus (87.14%)

Followed by cerebrum (70%), and thalamus (2.86%). No detection in the brainstem.

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15
Q

What was the most common MRI finding in dogs with SRMA in the study?
A. Meningeal contrast enhancement
B. Spinal cord parenchymal T2-W hyperintensity
C. Paravertebral muscle changes
D. Hemorrhage

A

C) Paravertebral muscle changes (56.6%)

Followed by meningeal contrast enhancement (31.7%) and spinal cord parenchymal T2-W hyperintensity (28.3%).

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16
Q

Which of the following clinical signs was significantly associated with the presence of T2-W spinal cord hyperintensity and hemorrhage in dogs with SRMA?
A. Pyrexia
B. Cervical hyperesthesia
C. Paresis/Paralysis
D. Relapse

A

C) Paresis/paralysis

All dogs with paresis/paralysis had identifiable spinal cord parenchymal lesions or meningeal enhancement.

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17
Q

According to the study, which of the following is a possible reason for the lower prevalence of meningeal contrast enhancement observed compared to previous studies?
A. The use of only a single T1-W series obtained immediately post-contrast
B. The higher proportion of low-field MRI studies in the current study
C. The lack of a post-processing subtraction technique
D. The inclusion of dogs with milder disease in the current study

A

A) The use of only a single T1-W post op.

Several were only examined in the sagittal plane.

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18
Q

What is the suspected reason for hemorrhage in dogs with SRMA?
A. Trauma
B. Intervertebral disc disease
C. Neoplasia
D. Rupture of vessels secondary to severe inflammation

A

D) Rupture of vessels secondary to severe inflammation

And/or thrombosis. Other differential dx are trauma, IVDD, neoplasia…

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19
Q

Effect of midline shift on survivaltimewith structural brain dz dx onMRI

What was the primary objective of the research study discussed in the article?
A. To compare the effectiveness of different treatment protocols for structural brain disease in dogs.
B. To evaluate the impact of midline shift on survival time in dogs with structural brain disease diagnosed using MRI.
C. To determine the prevalence of structural brain lesions in different dog breeds.
D. To investigate the correlation between midline shift and the development of seizures in dogs.

A

B) To evaluate the impact of midline shift on survival time in dogs with structural brain disease diagnosed using MRI.

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20
Q

According to the study, what is the median survival time for dogs with structural brain disease who present with a midline shift?
A. 241 days B. 34.5 days C. 90 days D. 1460 days

A

B) 34.5 days.

Compared with 241 days in dogs without midline shift.

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21
Q

Which of the following imaging findings was NOT found to be a significant factor contributing to an increased risk of death in dogs with structural brain disease?
A. Midline shift
B. Foramen magnum herniation
C. Brain edema
D. Ventriculomegaly

A

All except A

Foramen magnum herniation, brain edema and ventriculomegaly did not achieve significance.

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22
Q

What was one of the limitations of the study acknowledged by the authors?
A. The study was prospective in nature, leading to potential bias in data collection.
B. A greater proportion of dogs with neoplasia and midline shift were euthanized within 24 hours of diagnosis, potentially skewing survival times.
C. The study included a large and diverse cohort of dogs with various diagnoses.
D. Standardized imaging and treatment protocols were strictly adhered to throughout the study.

A

B) A greater proportion of dogs were euthanized within 24 hours.

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23
Q

What was the primary treatment approach for the dog’s condition?
A. Antibiotics
B. Surgery
C. Immunosuppressive therapy
D. Physical therapy

Clinical signs, diagnostic imaging, histopathology and outcome in a dog with meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown origin and concurrent involvement of the cauda equina and left sciatic nerve

A

c) Immunosuppressive therapy.

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24
Q

What was a significant finding regarding the dog’s MUO that was highlighted in the case report?
A. The dog’s breed was not typically associated with MUO.
B. The dog’s condition did not respond to immunosuppressive treatment.
C. The dog’s MUO involved the peripheral nervous system (PNS), specifically the sciatic nerve.
D. The dog did not experience any relapses after the initial diagnosis.

Clinical signs, diagnostic imaging, histopathology and outcome in a dog with meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown origin and concurrent involvement of the cauda equina and left sciatic nerve

A

C. The dog’s MUO involved the peripheral nervous system (PNS), specifically the sciatic nerve.

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25
Q

What is the most common treatment regimen for MUO in dogs?
A. Long-term glucocorticosteroid application.
B. A combination of procarbazine and prednisone.
C. Mycophenolate mofetil and corticosteroids.
D. Parenteral cytarabine in conjunction with long-term glucocorticosteroids.

A

D. Parenteral cytarabine in conjunction with long-term glucocorticosteroids.

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT a challenge hindering the understanding of MUO in dogs?
A. The ambiguity regarding whether all MUO subtypes constitute a single disease entity or represent distinct diseases with varying etiopathogenesis.
B. Uncertainties regarding the autoimmune nature of these diseases or the potential involvement of an infection triggering and initiating excessive inflammation.
C. A lack of reliable diagnostic biomarkers to establish the diagnosis of MUO or distinguish between subtypes.
D. The significantly higher prevalence of MUO in cats compared to dogs.

A

D. The significantly higher prevalence of MUO in cats compared to dogs.

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27
Q

What cytokine is found in significantly increased serum levels in dogs with MUO, particularly those with GME?
A. IFN-γ.
B. IL-10.
C. IL-31.
D. CX3CL1.

A

C) IL-31.

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28
Q

Which of the following is NOT a proposed advantage of a patient-specific therapy for future MUO treatments?
A. Precision medicine: By understanding the unique characteristics of the pet’s autoimmune CNS disease, medications and interventions could be customized.
B. Optimized efficacy: Personalized therapy takes into account the specific factors contributing to the autoimmune response and the stage of the disease, increasing the likelihood of a more effective treatment outcome.
C. Minimized side effects: Tailoring therapy to the individual patient might help minimize unnecessary exposure to medications, reducing the risk of adverse effects.
D. Standardized Treatment: Creating a single treatment protocol that is used for all MUO cases regardless of individual patient characteristics

A

D. Standardized Treatment: Creating a single treatment protocol that is used for all MUO cases regardless of individual patient characteristics

29
Q

What type of MRI sequence is susceptibility-weighted imaging (SWI)?
A. Spin echo
B. Gradient echo
C. Inversion recovery
D. Diffusion-weighted

A

B) Gradient echo!!!

30
Q

What effect does gadolinium (Gd) administration have on the appearance of susceptibility artifacts in the brain?
A. Gd does not affect the appearance of susceptibility artifacts
B. Gd increases the size and number of susceptibility artifacts
C. Gd makes susceptibility artifacts more difficult to distinguish from lesions
D. Gd causes new susceptibility artifacts to appear

Effect of gadolinium contrast medium administration on susceptibility-weighted imaging of the canine brain

A

A. Gd does not affect the appearance of susceptibility artifacts

31
Q

According to the study, what effect did Gd have on the signal intensity of white matter (WM) in the brain?
A. Gd decreased WM signal intensity
B. Gd did not affect WM signal intensity
C. Gd increased WM signal intensity
D. The effect of Gd on WM signal intensity varied unpredictably

Effect of gadolinium contrast medium administration on susceptibility-we

A

C. Gd increased WM signal intensity

Revisar pq no puedo ver el paper completo

32
Q

In the study, how was the degree of signal intensity difference between pre- and post-Gd SWI classified?
A. On a scale of 1-5
B. As mild, moderate, or severe
C. As present or absent
D. On a scale of 0-2

Effect of gadolinium contrast medium administration on susceptibility-weighted imaging of the canine brain

A

Buscar

33
Q

What were the two most likely diagnoses given the cat’s MRI results?
A. Lymphoma and metastatic disease
B. Cholesterol granuloma and fungal granuloma
C. Two separate meningiomas with concurrent subdural fluid accumulation
D. Cystic meningiomas and subdural hematoma

Subdural fluid accumulation with two meningiomas in a cat

A
34
Q

What type and grade of meningiomas were identified in the cat?
A. Anaplastic, Grade III
B. Atypical, Grade II
C. Fibrous, Grade I
D. Clear cell, Grade I

Subdural fluid accumulation with two meningiomas in a cat

A
35
Q

What imaging technique was used to diagnose hyperostosis of the skull adjacent to one of the masses?
A. Radiography
B. Ultrasound
C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
D. Computed Tomography (CT)

Subdural fluid accumulation with two meningiomas in a cat

A
36
Q

According to the study, which of the following is a possible explanation for the subdural fluid accumulation?
A. Intradural infiltration of neoplastic cells leading to fluid secretion.
B. Ruptured blood vessels causing a subdural hematoma.
C. Blockage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow at the arachnoid villi.
D. Inflammation of the meninges leading to a subdural empyema.

A
37
Q

What is a major obstacle to developing successful brain tumor treatments?
A. Lack of funding for research
B. The blood-brain barrier
C. Tumor size
D. Patient age

A

B) The BBB

38
Q

What is a common characteristic of canine and human brain tumors?
A. They are always malignant.
B. They share similar clinicopathologic and molecular features.
C. They are easily treatable with surgery.
D. They are caused by viral infections.

A

B) They share similar clinicopathologic and molecular features.

39
Q

What is the EPR effect?
A. A type of brain surgery
B. A side effect of chemotherapy
C. The enhanced permeability and retention effect observed in solid tumors
D. A type of brain imaging technique

A

C. The enhanced permeability and retention effect observed in solid tumors

40
Q

What are oncolytic viruses (OV)?
A. Viruses that cause brain tumors
B. Viruses that can selectively infect and kill tumor cells
C. Viruses that are used in vaccines
D. Viruses that are used to treat bacterial infections

A

B. Viruses that can selectively infect and kill tumor cells

41
Q

What is a potential advantage of using OV for brain tumor therapy?
A. They are inexpensive to produce.
B. They do not cause any side effects.
C. They can cross the blood-brain barrier easily.
D. They can stimulate a systemic antitumor immune response.

A

D. They can stimulate a systemic antitumor immune response.

42
Q

What is the function of the STING protein?
A. It inhibits the growth of tumor cells.
B. It repairs damaged DNA in cells.
C. It acts as a sensor of cellular stress and promotes an immune response.
D. It helps to deliver drugs across the blood-brain barrier.

A

C. It acts as a sensor of cellular stress and promotes an immune response.

43
Q

What is the primary advantage of DCE-MRI over DSC-MRI for analyzing canine brain tumors?
A. DCE-MRI is less expensive.
B. DCE-MRI requires a shorter anesthesia time.
C. DCE-MRI is better suited for absolute quantification and permeability measurements.
D. DCE-MRI is more readily available in veterinary settings.

Dynamic contrast enhanced high field MRI for canine primary intracranial neoplasia

A

C. DCE-MRI is better suited for absolute quantification and permeability measurements.

44
Q

What were the key findings related to Ktrans and rBF values in meningiomas compared to normal brain parenchyma?
A. Meningiomas showed significantly lower Ktrans and rBF values.
B. Meningiomas showed significantly higher Ktrans and rBF values.
C. Meningiomas showed no significant difference in Ktrans and rBF values.
D. Meningiomas showed higher Ktrans values but lower rBF values.

Dynamic contrast enhanced high field MRI for canine primary intracranial neoplasia

A

B. Meningiomas showed significantly higher Ktrans and rBF values.

45
Q

Why might meningiomas demonstrate higher Ktrans and rBF values compared to normal brain tissue?
A. Meningiomas are highly vascularized and lack the blood-brain barrier, leading to increased contrast leakage.
B. Meningiomas have lower VEGF expression, reducing neovascularization and permeability.
C. Meningiomas grow slowly, allowing for mature and structured blood vessels that limit contrast extravasation.
D. Meningiomas are typically located within the brain parenchyma, protected by the blood-brain barrier.

Dynamic contrast enhanced high field MRI for canine primary intracranial neoplasia

A

A. Meningiomas are highly vascularized and lack the blood-brain barrier, leading to increased contrast leakage.

46
Q

What is a significant limitation of the study’s findings?
A. The study lacked a control group for comparison.
B. The sample size of non-meningeal tumors was small, potentially affecting the generalizability of results.
C. The study relied solely on qualitative analysis, neglecting quantitative measurements.
D. The researchers did not perform histopathological confirmation of tumor types.

Dynamic contrast enhanced high field MRI for canine primary intracranial neoplasia

A

B. The sample size of non-meningeal tumors was small, potentially affecting the generalizability of results.

47
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of systemic amyloidosis in animals?
A. AL amyloidosis
B. AA amyloidosis
C. ApoA-IV amyloidosis
D. Fibrinogen Aα-chain amyloidosis

Classification of amyloidosis and protein misfolding disorders in animals 2024

A

B. AA amyloidosis

48
Q

Which amyloid protein is typically NOT detected in animals?
A. Apolipoprotein E (ApoE)
B. Apolipoprotein A-IV (ApoA-IV)
C. Clusterin
D. Serum amyloid P-component (SAP)

Classification of amyloidosis and protein misfolding disorders in animals 2024

A

B. Apolipoprotein A-IV (ApoA-IV)

49
Q

Which of the following statements about AA amyloidosis is FALSE?
A. The precursor protein SAA is an acute-phase protein synthesized in the liver.
B. Amyloid fibril formation is commonly triggered by supersaturation of circulating SAA.
C. Rats commonly develop AA amyloidosis.
D. Familial AA amyloidosis has been reported in some canine and feline breeds.

Classification of amyloidosis and protein misfolding disorders in animals 2024

A

C. Rats commonly develop AA amyloidosis.

50
Q

Which staining method is recommended for the histological detection of amyloid?
A. Hematoxylin and eosin
B. Alkaline Congo red
C. Potassium permanganate
D. Thioflavin T

Classification of amyloidosis and protein misfolding disorders in animals 2024

A

B. Alkaline Congo red

51
Q

What is the primary finding of the study regarding the use of urinary dipsticks for assessing protein and glucose levels in canine cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Urinary dipsticks are a reliable and accurate alternative to standard biochemistry methods.
B. Urinary dipsticks consistently overestimate protein levels and underestimate glucose levels.
C. Urinary dipsticks are unreliable for estimating both protein and glucose levels.
D. Urinary dipsticks can be used as an initial screening test for protein levels, but not for glucose levels.

Accuracy of urinary dipstick for glucose and protein determination in canine cerebrospinal fluid

A

C. Urinary dipsticks are unreliable for estimating both protein and glucose levels.

52
Q

According to the study, what is a potential clinical implication of using urinary dipsticks for cerebrospinal fluid analysis in dogs?
A. Falsely elevated protein levels could lead to misdiagnosis of inflammatory conditions.
B. Falsely low glucose levels could result in delayed treatment of infectious diseases.
C. The alkaline pH of cerebrospinal fluid could interfere with the accuracy of urinary dipstick readings.
D. The drip method used with urinary dipsticks is less accurate than the dip method.

Accuracy of urinary dipstick for glucose and protein determination in canine cerebrospinal fluid

A

C. The alkaline pH of cerebrospinal fluid could interfere with the accuracy of urinary dipstick readings.

53
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of the study acknowledged by the authors?
A. The small sample size may have influenced the results.
B. The use of different anesthesia protocols could have affected cerebrospinal fluid values.
C. The study did not include a control group of healthy dogs.
D. The lack of blinding of the evaluator could have introduced bias.

Accuracy of urinary dipstick for glucose and protein determination in canine cerebrospinal fluid

A

A. The small sample size may have influenced the results.

54
Q

What is the primary tool recommended for screening and selection against Chiari-like Malformation (CM) and Syringomyelia (SM) in Cavalier King Charles Spaniels?
A. Computed Tomography (CT)
B. Facial Recognition Software
C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
D. Clinical Signs

The effect of MRI-based screening and selection on the prevalence of syringomyelia

A

C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

55
Q

According to the study, what is the minimum fluid-filled cavity (FFC) size in millimeters (mm) that was considered indicative of SM in affected Cavalier King Charles Spaniels?
A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.3 mm
C. 0.5 mm
D. 2 mm

The effect of MRI-based screening and selection on the prevalence of syringomyelia

A

C. 0.5 mm

56
Q

What impact does breeding with two SM-affected parents have on the likelihood of producing affected offspring, compared to breeding with unaffected parents?
A. Decreases the odds ratio by 3.08
B. No significant change in the odds ratio
C. Increases the odds ratio by 1.89
D. Increases the odds ratio by 3.08

The effect of MRI-based screening and selection on the prevalence of syringomyelia

A

D. Increases the odds ratio by 3.08

57
Q

What was the mean prevalence of SM in Cavalier King Charles Spaniels born between 2015 and 2019?
A. 38%
B. 27%
C. 46%
D. 70%

The effect of MRI-based screening and selection on the prevalence of syringomyelia

A

B. 27%

58
Q

Which of the following biomarkers exhibited elevated levels in the cerebrospinal fluid of dogs with Meningoencephalitis of Unknown Origin (MUO)?
A. Amyloid-β
B. Tau, Neurofilament light chain (NfL), and Neuron-specific enolase (NSE)
C. Only NfL
D. None of the above

On the utility of cerebrospinal fluid biomarkers in canine neurological disorders

A

B. Tau, Neurofilament light chain (NfL), and Neuron-specific enolase (NSE)

59
Q

According to the study, which group of dogs showed a significant decrease in Amyloid-β 1-42 levels in their cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Dogs with myelopathies
B. Dogs with brain tumors and MUO
C. Epileptic control dogs
D. All of the above

On the utility of cerebrospinal fluid biomarkers in canine neurological disorders

A

B. Dogs with brain tumors and MUO

60
Q

What limitation of the study is acknowledged by the authors?
A. The study only included dogs of specific breeds.
B. The lack of a healthy control group, with dogs diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy serving as controls.
C. The study relied solely on MRI for diagnosing brain tumors.
D. The use of outdated biomarker analysis techniques.

On the utility of cerebrospinal fluid biomarkers in canine neurological disorders

A

B. The lack of a healthy control group, with dogs diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy serving as controls.

61
Q

What potential future applications do the authors suggest for the investigated cerebrospinal fluid biomarkers?
A. Routine diagnostic screening for all canine neurological disorders.
B. Replacement of MRI as the primary diagnostic tool for brain tumors.
C. Disease monitoring, early pathology detection in neurogenetic conditions, and development of blood-based biomarker assays.
D. None of the above

On the utility of cerebrospinal fluid biomarkers in canine neurological disorders

A

C. Disease monitoring, early pathology detection in neurogenetic conditions, and development of blood-based biomarker assays.

62
Q

What is the most prevalent neurological condition affecting French Bulldogs?
a) Epilepsy
b) Meningitis
c) Intervertebral Disc Herniation (IVDH)
d) Spinal Cord Trauma

Gut feelings: gastrointestinal signs in French bulldogs undergoing spinal surgery

A

c) Intervertebral Disc Herniation (IVDH)

63
Q

Which of the following gastrointestinal signs was most frequently observed in French Bulldogs who underwent surgery for IVDH?
a) Vomiting
b) Regurgitation
c) Diarrhea
d) Hematochezia

Gut feelings: gastrointestinal signs in French bulldogs undergoing spinal surgery

A

c) Diarrhea

64
Q

What was the mean duration of hospitalization post-surgery for French Bulldogs who developed GI signs?
a) 2.2 days
b) 3.7 days
c) 4.6 days
d) 7 days

Gut feelings: gastrointestinal signs in French bulldogs undergoing spinal surgery

A

c) 4.6 days

65
Q

According to the study, which factor was associated with the development of GI signs in French Bulldogs post-surgery?
a) Length of anesthesia
b) Neurological severity
c) Breed of the dog
d) Neuroanatomical location of IVDH

Gut feelings: gastrointestinal signs in French bulldogs undergoing spinal surgery

A

c) Breed of the dog

66
Q

Which segmental reflexes were determined to have an acceptable level of agreement between observers?
A. Biceps, triceps, patellar, and cranial tibial
B. Extensor carpi radialis, withdrawal, patellar, and cranial tibial
C. Gastrocnemius, withdrawal, triceps, and extensor carpi radialis
D. Biceps, triceps, gastrocnemius, and patellar

Intraobserver and interobserver agreement of 8 segmental reflexes in healthy dogs

A

B. Extensor carpi radialis, withdrawal, patellar, and cranial tibial

67
Q

Which two reflexes are widely accepted as the most reliable?
A. Cranial tibial and gastrocnemius
B. Patellar and withdrawal
C. Triceps and extensor carpi radialis
D. Biceps and triceps

Intraobserver and interobserver agreement of 8 segmental reflexes in healthy dogs

A

B. Patellar and withdrawal

68
Q

What factor affecting the interobserver agreement of the reflexes was identified in previous studies?
A. Breed of the dog
B. Experience level of the observer
C. Ambient temperature
D. Sex of the dog

Intraobserver and interobserver agreement of 8 segmental reflexes in healthy dogs

A

B. Experience level of the observer

69
Q

What potential explanation is offered for the high level of agreement observed for the cranial tibial and extensor carpi radialis reflexes?
A. The response is easily elicited due to the large size of the muscles involved.
B. The observed motor response may be due to an idiomuscular response rather than a true reflex arc.
C. The location of the tendons makes them easy to isolate and percuss.
D. These reflexes have a lower threshold for elicitation compared to other reflexes.

Intraobserver and interobserver agreement of 8 segmental reflexes in healthy dogs

A

B. The observed motor response may be due to an idiomuscular response rather than a true reflex arc.

Neuro (14 decks)

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