Vet Sci 2 Flashcards

0
Q

True or false

During absorption the drug will pass from the site of administration into systemic circulation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

True or false

The dosage of the drug is the total amount of a given at one time, expressed in mls, cc’s, tablets, etc.

A

False

Dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or false

A/an enterostomy bypasses the oral cavity and esophagus and goes directly into the stomach from the outside of the body

A

False

Gastrotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or false

a diagnostic indication for performing an abdominocentesis would be to evaluate peritoneal fluid

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or false

a common injection site for an epidural and a small animal is between L7 and S1

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or false

with a subconjunctival injection, the needle is placed in the anterior chamber of the eye

A

False

under the bulbar conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or false

one diagnostic indication for an intrathecal injection is to obtain CSF for evaluation and analysis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or false

Lipophilic drugs are attached to the phospholipid cell membrane and are best given subcutaneously or intramuscularly

A

False

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false

measurement for placement of an orogastric tube in a cat is from the tip of the nose to the last rib

A

False

10th or 11th rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or false

Fentanyl patches are an example of transdermal medication administration

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The dosage interval BID for

A

Twice daily

Every 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or false decreasing the dose of a drug for a specific breed or species will not cause a potential toxicity

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or false

absorption in distribution are included in the first phase of the pharmacokinetics of drugs?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the medical term for surgical puncture of a joint

A

Arthrocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or false

liver is the primary site of biotransformation of a drug

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the medical term for the amount of blood passing through a tissue or organ

A

Tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false

Lateral saphenous vein should be saved for an indwelling catheter during a blood draw

A

False

cephalic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The prescription label for an offer ophthalmic ointment says it needs to be applied QID to OS. would you tell the owner that this means

A

Four times daily to the left eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the maximum IM volume for large animals

A

10cc/site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary site of elimination in the body

A

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What concerns is are there when administering food or medications through and oro- or nasogastric tube

A

If the tube is passed incorrectly we could cause aspiration pneumonia
Epistaxis can result from placement of a NG tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or false

SQ is used for allergy testing in dogs

A

False

ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false

head of the femur is not a commonly used side for an IO injection

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When obtaining a fluid sample via the thoracocentesis it is important to place the needle

A

In the ventral 1/3 of the thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
When performing an IC injection on a patient, what position should the patient be in
Right lateral recumbency
25
True or false latex gloves should be worn when administering chemotherapeutic drugs
True
26
What are indication for using oral forms of medication
Treating a specific G.I. disorder | Ease of at home administration
27
Protein binding, where a drug binds with a blood protein, happens during which phase of pharmacokinesis
Distribution
28
What is the dose range for an enema
5ml/lb of BW - 20ml/lb of BW
29
What are the "five rights" of medication administration
``` Right route right drug right patient right dose right time ```
30
What are two secondary sites of elimination in the body
Sweat glands | liver
31
What is the medical term for the chemical component formed from biotransformation of a drug
Metabolites
32
What are two complications of a surgically placed feeding tube
Infection | dislodgment of tube
33
List the three preferred SQ injection sites and small animals
Lateral thorax flank scruff
34
List 2 indications for topical administration of a medication
Local anesthesia | flea and tick
35
Give 2 advantages of injectable medication administration
Works faster | less stress
36
What IM injection site is preferred at Bel-rea
Lumbar
37
Drug
Any chemical agent that when absorbed into system alters body function
38
Dosage
Amount of drug per unit of bodyweight
39
Dose
Amount of drug given at one time
40
Perfusion of tissues
The amount of blood passing through a tissue or organ (carrying O2 & Hgb)
41
Metabolites
A chemical component formed from biotransformation of a drug
42
Primary site of biotransform
Liver
43
Secondary site of biotransform
Lungs skin intestinal track
44
Primary site of elimination
Kidneys
45
Secondary site of elimination
Liver lungs sweat mammary glands
46
Meds that never go SQ
Whole blood hypertonic solutions oil-based medications
47
Lack of resistance a.k.a. vulnerability
Susceptibility
48
Enhances activation and proliferation of T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes and NKC
Helper T cells
49
Vaccine that is made up of parts of the virus
Subunit vaccine
50
Protein that circulates in the bloodstream, becomes active during times of infection, causes lysis of bacterial cells
Complement
51
Foreign protein
Antigen
52
Type of subunit vaccine with genetically engineered DNA
Immunogenicity
53
Ability to provoke an immune response
Immunogenicity
54
Protien released by the infected cell, protects the surrounding cells by making a protective coat
Interferon
55
Vaccine in which the pathogen is a similar antigen but incapable of causing disease
Heterologous vaccine
56
The body mounts an immune response to the presence of an antigen
Active immunity
57
Protein that attaches to iron, transports iron into bone marrow, depletes the antigen of iron that they need to survive
Transferrin
58
Headed T cell function, control immune response
Suppressor T cells
59
Memory antibody, secreted when exposed to an antigen for the second time
IgM
60
Product developed to stimulate immunity against a disease
Vaccine
61
Disease producing organism
Pathogen
62
Killed vaccines that contains two or more antigens related organisms
Polyvalent vx
63
Immunity produced by administration of a preformed antibody
Passive immunity
64
What protects an animal from disease causing pathogens
Immunity
65
Vx that contains a live organism that will replicate in the body selected to stimulate immunity without causing disease
Modified life vaccine
66
Injection of a vaccine for the purpose of inducing immunity
Vaccination
67
Killer T cells, attach to antigenic cells and destroy them directly
Cytotoxic T cells
68
First antibody made by newborns in response to an antigen
IgG
69
Body's response to a foreign protein
Antibody
70
Vx in which organisms have been killed or inactivated by chemical or physical agents
Killed vaccine
71
Antibody produced in response to an allergic reaction
IgE
72
True or false | during phagocytosis adherence is the movement of white blood cells into the area of inflammation
False | chemotaxis
73
True or false | Lymph from the digestive system is known as chyle
True
74
True or false | an example of passive immunity is vaccination
False | clostrium
75
True or false specific immunity is the ability of the body to target and destroy specific antigens and is also known as innate immunity
False | adaptive
76
True or false | a mild fever (under 103°F) is normal for about 24 hours following a vaccination
True
77
True or false | killed vaccines should be avoided in pregnant animals
False | MLV
78
True or false | dogs will have protective antibodies three weeks after receiving in injectable Bordetella vaccine
True
79
True or false | puppies should have their first distemper combo vaccine at 10 weeks of age
False | 6-8 weeks
80
True or false | the spleen is considered a secondary lymphatic organ
True
81
True or false | Humoral immunity is also referred to as "antibody mediated" immunity
True
82
Organisms have been killed or in activated by chemical or physical agents
Killed vaccine | rabies
83
Type of subunit vaccines where the immunoprotective proteins from the pathogen are removed and inserted into an avirulent vector
DNA-based | west Nile equine
84
Contains a live organism that has been attenuated so it will stimulate immunity without causing disease
Modified live | distemper
85
Type of killed vaccine that contains two or more antigens from related organisms
Polyvalent | Leptospirosis
86
Type of vaccine that is made up of parts of a vaccine
Subunit | FeLV
87
Type of vaccine in which the pathogen is a similar antigen but will not cause disease
Heterologous | Cow Pox
88
Occurs within minutes of exposure to antigen, often caused by vaccines
Immediated hypersensitivity
89
Inflammatory reaction, antibody antigen complexes become trapped and endothelium
Immune complex reaction
90
Antibodies form against the body's own blood or tissue cells
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
91
Inflammatory reaction (like a TB test) that happens over a period of time
Delayed hypersensitivity
92
List the five mechanisms of phagocytosis
``` Chemotaxis adherence ingestion digestion killing ```
93
List the six components of the canine distemper vaccine
``` Distemper hepatitis/adenovirus leptospirosis parainfluenza parvovirus _+/- Corona ```
94
There are many causes of vaccine failure. list three
Age stress maternal interference
95
There are many reasons to vaccinate our pets. name one
Protection against transmitted zoonotic disease
96
Name one disadvantage to using a killed vaccine
Requires more frequent revaccinations
97
4 things to check prior to administration
Right pt Right dose Right route Right drug
98
Biotransformation
Happens in the liver
99
Eliminations of Drugs
Kidneys
100
Orogastric tube
Stomach tube through the mouth | Measure from mouth to the 13th rib
101
Nasogastric tube
Through the nose into the stomach | Measure from nose to the 13th rib
102
Endotracheal tube
Placed via the mouth into the trachea | Used for anesthesia
103
IV
Intravascular Best Fastest absorption
104
PO
Oral | Slowest absorption
105
Rectal
Slow absorption
106
IP
Intraperitoneal | Immediate absorption
107
IC
Intracardiac Not used often Fast absorption
108
IM
Intramuscular Intermediate absorption CAREFUL OF THE SCIATIC NERVE
109
IM locations
Longissimus dorsi Biceps femoris Iliocostalis
110
SQ
Subcutaneous Intermediate absorption Most often used - next to IV
111
IO
Intraosseous Fast absorption Not common to use
112
IO in birds
Pneumatic bones | Can administer O2 this way
113
IO Locations
Greater tubercle of the humerus Trochanteric fossa of the femur Tibial crest
114
IN
Intranasal | Bordetella, FIP, Strangles (Step equi), local anesthesia
115
Proteins
Tissue building
116
Lipids
Insulation, absorption, protection | Lipoic Acid -- leafy green vegetable
117
Carbohydrates
Soluble | Insoluble -- corn, carrots, pumpkin, some vegetables
118
Taurine
Essential in cats | Deficiency can cause blindness
119
H2O in the body
Transportation | Solubility
120
Antioxidants
Substance that can scavenge "free radicals" Vitamins -- C, E, A Flavonoids
121
Dietary Fiber
Increases fecal bulk
122
Essential Fatty Acids
Prevent allergies
123
Vitamin K
Blood clotting cascade
124
Calcium
Bone growth Macromineral - required in diet in percentage amounts
125
Vitamin D
Bone growth
126
Leptospirosis
Bacterin | Polyvalent vx
127
Distemper
Modified live vx Given SQ - right front limb distal to the midscapula
128
Rabies
Killed vx - advantage - -less of abortion - -easier storage - disadvantage - adjuvant - -increases exposure time - -cheaper - -increases immunogenicity - anaphylaxis
129
Where and how is rabies given?
SQ | Right hind limb distal to hip joint
130
Bordetella
Intranasal vx | Can be IM
131
Cow/Smallpox
Heterologous vx
132
FeLV
Subunit vx
133
Where and how is FeLV given?
SQ | Left hind limb distal to the hip joint
134
Natural Killer Cells
Lymphocytes that have the ability to kill infected tissue cells and tumor cells
135
4 Signs of Inflammation
``` Redness Heat Swelling Pain +/- loss of function ```
136
Active Immunity
Vx
137
Passive Immunity
Colostrum
138
Spleen functions
Blood storage Removal of foreign material by macrophages Filtration and removal of dread/dying RBCs
139
Transferrin
Antimicrobial protein that binds to iron and moves it into bone marrow Not available for use by the pathogen
140
LN: Submandibular
Palpable | Under jaw bone
141
LN: Prescapular
Palpable | Behind shoulder blade
142
LN: Axillary
NOT palpable | Armpit
143
LN: Inguinal
NOT palpable | Groin area
144
LN: Popliteal
Palpable | In the hind leg
145
Lymph System Functions
Filtration Transports dietary lipids Transports protein
146
Immunoglobulins: IgA
Able to pass into tissues | Attaches to ag directly at the site
147
Immunoglobulins: IgG
Passed from mom to neonate in colostrum | First immunoglobulin produced in response to a foreign invasion
148
Nervous Tunic
Retina
149
Vascular Tunic
Posterior segment - tapedum lucidium - choroid
150
Fibrous Tunic
Outermost layer
151
Cornea
Structure found in the anterior portion Focuses images Corneal ulcers
152
Corneal ulcers
Pain Blpharospasm Keratitis Tx: conjunctival flap
153
Corneoscleral junction
Where the cornea and sclera meet
154
Vitreous Humor
Thick jelly like substance found in the posterior portion
155
Aqueous Humor
Produced by the Ciliary Process Serous fluid Found in the anterior portion
156
Sclera
White of the eyeball
157
Lens
``` Focuses images Suspensory Ligaments -holds lens in place -also attached to the ciliary body ```
158
Canthus
Areas where the eyelids meet - Lateral - Medial
159
Nasolacramal Duct
Duct between the eyes and nose Tears form from the eye to the sinus -lacramal puncta
160
Entropion
Inward deviation of the eyelid - corneal abreasions - Keratitis - -inflammation of the cornea - --"steamy eye"
161
Ectropion
Outward deviation of the eyelid | -bloodhounds, bull dogs
162
Enophthalmos
``` Inward turning of the eyeball -sinking of the eyeball Caused by acute corneal pain Absorption of post-orbital fat Dehydration Anterior uveitis ```
163
"Cherry Eye"
Protrusion of the gland of the 3rd eyelid
164
Nictitating Membrane
3rd eyelid
165
Photoreceptors: Rods
Interpreting shapes
166
Photoreceptors: Cones
interpreting color
167
Mydriasis
Dilated pupil
168
Myosis
Constricted pupil
169
Anisocoria
Pupils of unequal size
170
Ophthalmoscope
Used to examine the fundus of the eyes - also will see - -choroid - -optic disc
171
Schiotz Tonometery
Dx glaucoma -tx with miotic drops and maybe cryosurgery Normal range -12-24 mmHg
172
Menace Test
Bring something to eye quickly and see if they blink | If so, positive result
173
Chalazion
Blocked Meibomian gland | -tx with warm compress
174
Tapedum Lucidium
Reflective layer in the back of eye | Aids in night vision
175
Synechia
Adhesion of the iris to either the cornea or lens
176
Pannus
Autoimmune disorder where pigment is deposited on the surface of the cornea
177
Pannus tx
Keratectomy | Keep out of UV light
178
Epiphora
Overflow of tears onto the fur
179
Accomodation
Contraction and relaxation of the suspensory ligament
180
Copora Nigra
Extension of the iris to protect from direct sunlight
181
Blepharospasm
Sudden, involuntary spasm of the eyelids
182
Hypopyon
Pus in the anterior chamber
183
Pectin
Thin, ribbon like structure extending from the choroid into the vitreous humor in BIRDS
184
Photoemulsification
Surgery treatment of cataracts
185
Tests Performed
Gross exam | Pupillary light reflex (PLR) test
186
Scirmer Tear Test
Dx test to determine if pt has KCS - keratoconjunctivitis sicca - normal reading - 17-22 mm in 1 minute
187
Flourescein Test
Drops of flourescein dye into eye - green dye - see if it comes out the nose
188
Mydriatic Drops
Dilates pupils
189
Periodental Probe
measuring gingival sulcus
190
Extraction Forceps
Used to chip off pieces of tartar | Pulls teeth
191
Hand Scaler
Removes tartar/plaque from the crown of the tooth
192
Periodontal Curette
Removes subgingival tartar/plaque
193
Carnasial Teeth
Premolar 4 Upper and lower Has 3 roots
194
Permanent Teeth
In by 4-6 months | -can be up to 9 months
195
At what ages do we commonly vaccinate puppies?
6-8 weeks 12 weeks 16 weeks
196
Give the location of canine vaccine admin
SQ, right front limb distal to mid-scapula
197
Give the location of rabies vaccine admin
SQ, right hind limb distal to hip
198
Give the location of a FeLV vaccination
Left hind limb distal to hip joint