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Mini CPE 1 > Vet Sci 2 > Flashcards

Vet Sci 2 Flashcards

0
Q

True or false

During absorption the drug will pass from the site of administration into systemic circulation

A

True

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1
Q

True or false

The dosage of the drug is the total amount of a given at one time, expressed in mls, cc’s, tablets, etc.

A

False

Dose

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2
Q

True or false

A/an enterostomy bypasses the oral cavity and esophagus and goes directly into the stomach from the outside of the body

A

False

Gastrotomy

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3
Q

True or false

a diagnostic indication for performing an abdominocentesis would be to evaluate peritoneal fluid

A

True

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4
Q

True or false

a common injection site for an epidural and a small animal is between L7 and S1

A

True

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5
Q

True or false

with a subconjunctival injection, the needle is placed in the anterior chamber of the eye

A

False

under the bulbar conjunctiva

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6
Q

True or false

one diagnostic indication for an intrathecal injection is to obtain CSF for evaluation and analysis

A

True

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7
Q

True or false

Lipophilic drugs are attached to the phospholipid cell membrane and are best given subcutaneously or intramuscularly

A

False

Orally

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8
Q

True or false

measurement for placement of an orogastric tube in a cat is from the tip of the nose to the last rib

A

False

10th or 11th rib

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9
Q

True or false

Fentanyl patches are an example of transdermal medication administration

A

True

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10
Q

The dosage interval BID for

A

Twice daily

Every 12 hours

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11
Q

True or false decreasing the dose of a drug for a specific breed or species will not cause a potential toxicity

A

True

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12
Q

True or false

absorption in distribution are included in the first phase of the pharmacokinetics of drugs?

A

True

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13
Q

What is the medical term for surgical puncture of a joint

A

Arthrocentesis

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14
Q

True or false

liver is the primary site of biotransformation of a drug

A

True

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15
Q

What is the medical term for the amount of blood passing through a tissue or organ

A

Tissue perfusion

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16
Q

True or false

Lateral saphenous vein should be saved for an indwelling catheter during a blood draw

A

False

cephalic vein

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17
Q

The prescription label for an offer ophthalmic ointment says it needs to be applied QID to OS. would you tell the owner that this means

A

Four times daily to the left eye

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18
Q

What is the maximum IM volume for large animals

A

10cc/site

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19
Q

What is the primary site of elimination in the body

A

Kidney

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20
Q

What concerns is are there when administering food or medications through and oro- or nasogastric tube

A

If the tube is passed incorrectly we could cause aspiration pneumonia
Epistaxis can result from placement of a NG tube

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21
Q

True or false

SQ is used for allergy testing in dogs

A

False

ID

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22
Q

True or false

head of the femur is not a commonly used side for an IO injection

A

True

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23
Q

When obtaining a fluid sample via the thoracocentesis it is important to place the needle

A

In the ventral 1/3 of the thorax

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24
Q

When performing an IC injection on a patient, what position should the patient be in

A

Right lateral recumbency

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25
Q

True or false latex gloves should be worn when administering chemotherapeutic drugs

A

True

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26
Q

What are indication for using oral forms of medication

A

Treating a specific G.I. disorder

Ease of at home administration

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27
Q

Protein binding, where a drug binds with a blood protein, happens during which phase of pharmacokinesis

A

Distribution

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28
Q

What is the dose range for an enema

A

5ml/lb of BW - 20ml/lb of BW

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29
Q

What are the “five rights” of medication administration

A 
Right route 
right drug 
right patient 
right dose 
right time
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30
Q

What are two secondary sites of elimination in the body

A

Sweat glands

liver

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31
Q

What is the medical term for the chemical component formed from biotransformation of a drug

A

Metabolites

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32
Q

What are two complications of a surgically placed feeding tube

A

Infection

dislodgment of tube

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33
Q

List the three preferred SQ injection sites and small animals

A

Lateral thorax
flank
scruff

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34
Q

List 2 indications for topical administration of a medication

A

Local anesthesia

flea and tick

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35
Q

Give 2 advantages of injectable medication administration

A

Works faster

less stress

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36
Q

What IM injection site is preferred at Bel-rea

A

Lumbar

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37
Q

Drug

A

Any chemical agent that when absorbed into system alters body function

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38
Q

Dosage

A

Amount of drug per unit of bodyweight

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39
Q

Dose

A

Amount of drug given at one time

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40
Q

Perfusion of tissues

A

The amount of blood passing through a tissue or organ (carrying O2 & Hgb)

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41
Q

Metabolites

A

A chemical component formed from biotransformation of a drug

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42
Q

Primary site of biotransform

A

Liver

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43
Q

Secondary site of biotransform

A

Lungs
skin
intestinal track

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44
Q

Primary site of elimination

A

Kidneys

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45
Q

Secondary site of elimination

A

Liver
lungs
sweat
mammary glands

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46
Q

Meds that never go SQ

A

Whole blood
hypertonic solutions
oil-based medications

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47
Q

Lack of resistance a.k.a. vulnerability

A

Susceptibility

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48
Q

Enhances activation and proliferation of T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes and NKC

A

Helper T cells

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49
Q

Vaccine that is made up of parts of the virus

A

Subunit vaccine

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50
Q

Protein that circulates in the bloodstream, becomes active during times of infection, causes lysis of bacterial cells

A

Complement

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51
Q

Foreign protein

A

Antigen

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52
Q

Type of subunit vaccine with genetically engineered DNA

A

Immunogenicity

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53
Q

Ability to provoke an immune response

A

Immunogenicity

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54
Q

Protien released by the infected cell, protects the surrounding cells by making a protective coat

A

Interferon

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55
Q

Vaccine in which the pathogen is a similar antigen but incapable of causing disease

A

Heterologous vaccine

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56
Q

The body mounts an immune response to the presence of an antigen

A

Active immunity

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57
Q

Protein that attaches to iron, transports iron into bone marrow, depletes the antigen of iron that they need to survive

A

Transferrin

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58
Q

Headed T cell function, control immune response

A

Suppressor T cells

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59
Q

Memory antibody, secreted when exposed to an antigen for the second time

A

IgM

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60
Q

Product developed to stimulate immunity against a disease

A

Vaccine

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61
Q

Disease producing organism

A

Pathogen

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62
Q

Killed vaccines that contains two or more antigens related organisms

A

Polyvalent vx

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63
Q

Immunity produced by administration of a preformed antibody

A

Passive immunity

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64
Q

What protects an animal from disease causing pathogens

A

Immunity

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65
Q

Vx that contains a live organism that will replicate in the body selected to stimulate immunity without causing disease

A

Modified life vaccine

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66
Q

Injection of a vaccine for the purpose of inducing immunity

A

Vaccination

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67
Q

Killer T cells, attach to antigenic cells and destroy them directly

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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68
Q

First antibody made by newborns in response to an antigen

A

IgG

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69
Q

Body’s response to a foreign protein

A

Antibody

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70
Q

Vx in which organisms have been killed or inactivated by chemical or physical agents

A

Killed vaccine

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71
Q

Antibody produced in response to an allergic reaction

A

IgE

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72
Q

True or false

during phagocytosis adherence is the movement of white blood cells into the area of inflammation

A

False

chemotaxis

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73
Q

True or false

Lymph from the digestive system is known as chyle

A

True

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74
Q

True or false

an example of passive immunity is vaccination

A

False

clostrium

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75
Q

True or false
specific immunity is the ability of the body to target and destroy specific antigens and is also known as innate immunity

A

False

adaptive

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76
Q

True or false

a mild fever (under 103°F) is normal for about 24 hours following a vaccination

A

True

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77
Q

True or false

killed vaccines should be avoided in pregnant animals

A

False

MLV

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78
Q

True or false

dogs will have protective antibodies three weeks after receiving in injectable Bordetella vaccine

A

True

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79
Q

True or false

puppies should have their first distemper combo vaccine at 10 weeks of age

A

False

6-8 weeks

80
Q

True or false

the spleen is considered a secondary lymphatic organ

81
Q

True or false

Humoral immunity is also referred to as “antibody mediated” immunity

82
Q

Organisms have been killed or in activated by chemical or physical agents

A

Killed vaccine

rabies

83
Q

Type of subunit vaccines where the immunoprotective proteins from the pathogen are removed and inserted into an avirulent vector

A

DNA-based

west Nile equine

84
Q

Contains a live organism that has been attenuated so it will stimulate immunity without causing disease

A

Modified live

distemper

85
Q

Type of killed vaccine that contains two or more antigens from related organisms

A

Polyvalent

Leptospirosis

86
Q

Type of vaccine that is made up of parts of a vaccine

A

Subunit

FeLV

87
Q

Type of vaccine in which the pathogen is a similar antigen but will not cause disease

A

Heterologous

Cow Pox

88
Q

Occurs within minutes of exposure to antigen, often caused by vaccines

A

Immediated hypersensitivity

89
Q

Inflammatory reaction, antibody antigen complexes become trapped and endothelium

A

Immune complex reaction

90
Q

Antibodies form against the body’s own blood or tissue cells

A

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

91
Q

Inflammatory reaction (like a TB test) that happens over a period of time

A

Delayed hypersensitivity

92
Q

List the five mechanisms of phagocytosis

A 
Chemotaxis 
adherence 
ingestion 
digestion 
killing
93
Q

List the six components of the canine distemper vaccine

A 
Distemper 
hepatitis/adenovirus 
leptospirosis 
parainfluenza 
parvovirus 
_+/- Corona
94
Q

There are many causes of vaccine failure. list three

A

Age
stress
maternal interference

95
Q

There are many reasons to vaccinate our pets. name one

A

Protection against transmitted zoonotic disease

96
Q

Name one disadvantage to using a killed vaccine

A

Requires more frequent revaccinations

97
Q

4 things to check prior to administration

A

Right pt
Right dose
Right route
Right drug

98
Q

Biotransformation

A

Happens in the liver

99
Q

Eliminations of Drugs

100
Q

Orogastric tube

A

Stomach tube through the mouth

Measure from mouth to the 13th rib

101
Q

Nasogastric tube

A

Through the nose into the stomach

Measure from nose to the 13th rib

102
Q

Endotracheal tube

A

Placed via the mouth into the trachea

Used for anesthesia

103
Q

IV

A

Intravascular
Best
Fastest absorption

104
Q

PO

A

Oral

Slowest absorption

105
Q

Rectal

A

Slow absorption

106
Q

IP

A

Intraperitoneal

Immediate absorption

107
Q

IC

A

Intracardiac
Not used often
Fast absorption

108
Q

IM

A

Intramuscular
Intermediate absorption
CAREFUL OF THE SCIATIC NERVE

109
Q

IM locations

A

Longissimus dorsi
Biceps femoris
Iliocostalis

110
Q

SQ

A

Subcutaneous
Intermediate absorption
Most often used - next to IV

111
Q

IO

A

Intraosseous
Fast absorption
Not common to use

112
Q

IO in birds

A

Pneumatic bones

Can administer O2 this way

113
Q

IO Locations

A

Greater tubercle of the humerus
Trochanteric fossa of the femur
Tibial crest

114
Q

IN

A

Intranasal

Bordetella, FIP, Strangles (Step equi), local anesthesia

115
Q

Proteins

A

Tissue building

116
Q

Lipids

A

Insulation, absorption, protection

Lipoic Acid – leafy green vegetable

117
Q

Carbohydrates

A

Soluble

Insoluble – corn, carrots, pumpkin, some vegetables

118
Q

Taurine

A

Essential in cats

Deficiency can cause blindness

119
Q

H2O in the body

A

Transportation

Solubility

120
Q

Antioxidants

A

Substance that can scavenge “free radicals”
Vitamins – C, E, A
Flavonoids

121
Q

Dietary Fiber

A

Increases fecal bulk

122
Q

Essential Fatty Acids

A

Prevent allergies

123
Q

Vitamin K

A

Blood clotting cascade

124
Q

Calcium

A

Bone growth
Macromineral
- required in diet in percentage amounts

125
Q

Vitamin D

A

Bone growth

126
Q

Leptospirosis

A

Bacterin

Polyvalent vx

127
Q

Distemper

A

Modified live vx
Given SQ
- right front limb distal to the midscapula

128
Q

Rabies

A

Killed vx

  • advantage
  • -less of abortion
  • -easier storage
  • disadvantage
  • adjuvant
  • -increases exposure time
  • -cheaper
  • -increases immunogenicity
  • anaphylaxis
129
Q

Where and how is rabies given?

A

SQ

Right hind limb distal to hip joint

130
Q

Bordetella

A

Intranasal vx

Can be IM

131
Q

Cow/Smallpox

A

Heterologous vx

132
Q

FeLV

A

Subunit vx

133
Q

Where and how is FeLV given?

A

SQ

Left hind limb distal to the hip joint

134
Q

Natural Killer Cells

A

Lymphocytes that have the ability to kill infected tissue cells and tumor cells

135
Q

4 Signs of Inflammation

A 
Redness
Heat
Swelling 
Pain
\+/- loss of function
136
Q

Active Immunity

137
Q

Passive Immunity

138
Q

Spleen functions

A

Blood storage
Removal of foreign material by macrophages
Filtration and removal of dread/dying RBCs

139
Q

Transferrin

A

Antimicrobial protein that binds to iron and moves it into bone marrow
Not available for use by the pathogen

140
Q

LN: Submandibular

A

Palpable

Under jaw bone

141
Q

LN: Prescapular

A

Palpable

Behind shoulder blade

142
Q

LN: Axillary

A

NOT palpable

Armpit

143
Q

LN: Inguinal

A

NOT palpable

Groin area

144
Q

LN: Popliteal

A

Palpable

In the hind leg

145
Q

Lymph System Functions

A

Filtration
Transports dietary lipids
Transports protein

146
Q

Immunoglobulins: IgA

A

Able to pass into tissues

Attaches to ag directly at the site

147
Q

Immunoglobulins: IgG

A

Passed from mom to neonate in colostrum

First immunoglobulin produced in response to a foreign invasion

148
Q

Nervous Tunic

149
Q

Vascular Tunic

A

Posterior segment

  • tapedum lucidium
  • choroid
150
Q

Fibrous Tunic

A

Outermost layer

151
Q

Cornea

A

Structure found in the anterior portion
Focuses images
Corneal ulcers

152
Q

Corneal ulcers

A

Pain
Blpharospasm
Keratitis
Tx: conjunctival flap

153
Q

Corneoscleral junction

A

Where the cornea and sclera meet

154
Q

Vitreous Humor

A

Thick jelly like substance found in the posterior portion

155
Q

Aqueous Humor

A

Produced by the Ciliary Process
Serous fluid
Found in the anterior portion

156
Q

Sclera

A

White of the eyeball

157
Q

Lens

A 
Focuses images
Suspensory
Ligaments
-holds lens in place
-also attached to the ciliary body
158
Q

Canthus

A

Areas where the eyelids meet

  • Lateral
  • Medial
159
Q

Nasolacramal Duct

A

Duct between the eyes and nose
Tears form from the eye to the sinus
-lacramal puncta

160
Q

Entropion

A

Inward deviation of the eyelid

  • corneal abreasions
  • Keratitis
  • -inflammation of the cornea
  • –“steamy eye”
161
Q

Ectropion

A

Outward deviation of the eyelid

-bloodhounds, bull dogs

162
Q

Enophthalmos

A 
Inward turning of the eyeball
-sinking of the eyeball
Caused by acute corneal pain
Absorption of post-orbital fat
Dehydration
Anterior uveitis
163
Q

“Cherry Eye”

A

Protrusion of the gland of the 3rd eyelid

164
Q

Nictitating Membrane

A

3rd eyelid

165
Q

Photoreceptors: Rods

A

Interpreting shapes

166
Q

Photoreceptors: Cones

A

interpreting color

167
Q

Mydriasis

A

Dilated pupil

168
Q

Myosis

A

Constricted pupil

169
Q

Anisocoria

A

Pupils of unequal size

170
Q

Ophthalmoscope

A

Used to examine the fundus of the eyes

  • also will see
  • -choroid
  • -optic disc
171
Q

Schiotz Tonometery

A

Dx glaucoma
-tx with miotic drops and maybe cryosurgery
Normal range
-12-24 mmHg

172
Q

Menace Test

A

Bring something to eye quickly and see if they blink

If so, positive result

173
Q

Chalazion

A

Blocked Meibomian gland

-tx with warm compress

174
Q

Tapedum Lucidium

A

Reflective layer in the back of eye

Aids in night vision

175
Q

Synechia

A

Adhesion of the iris to either the cornea or lens

176
Q

Pannus

A

Autoimmune disorder where pigment is deposited on the surface of the cornea

177
Q

Pannus tx

A

Keratectomy

Keep out of UV light

178
Q

Epiphora

A

Overflow of tears onto the fur

179
Q

Accomodation

A

Contraction and relaxation of the suspensory ligament

180
Q

Copora Nigra

A

Extension of the iris to protect from direct sunlight

181
Q

Blepharospasm

A

Sudden, involuntary spasm of the eyelids

182
Q

Hypopyon

A

Pus in the anterior chamber

183
Q

Pectin

A

Thin, ribbon like structure extending from the choroid into the vitreous humor in BIRDS

184
Q

Photoemulsification

A

Surgery treatment of cataracts

185
Q

Tests Performed

A

Gross exam

Pupillary light reflex (PLR) test

186
Q

Scirmer Tear Test

A

Dx test to determine if pt has KCS

  • keratoconjunctivitis sicca
  • normal reading - 17-22 mm in 1 minute
187
Q

Flourescein Test

A

Drops of flourescein dye into eye

  • green dye
  • see if it comes out the nose
188
Q

Mydriatic Drops

A

Dilates pupils

189
Q

Periodental Probe

A

measuring gingival sulcus

190
Q

Extraction Forceps

A

Used to chip off pieces of tartar

Pulls teeth

191
Q

Hand Scaler

A

Removes tartar/plaque from the crown of the tooth

192
Q

Periodontal Curette

A

Removes subgingival tartar/plaque

193
Q

Carnasial Teeth

A

Premolar 4
Upper and lower
Has 3 roots

194
Q

Permanent Teeth

A

In by 4-6 months

-can be up to 9 months

195
Q

At what ages do we commonly vaccinate puppies?

A

6-8 weeks
12 weeks
16 weeks

196
Q

Give the location of canine vaccine admin

A

SQ, right front limb distal to mid-scapula

197
Q

Give the location of rabies vaccine admin

A

SQ, right hind limb distal to hip

198
Q

Give the location of a FeLV vaccination

A

Left hind limb distal to hip joint

Mini CPE 1 (8 decks)

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