Micro Flashcards
0
Q
Gram positive bacteria:
A
Have a thick peptidoglycan layer
Have a thick lipopolysaccharide (lipid) layer
1
Q
True or false
bacteria are prokaryotic cells?
A
True
2
Q
What cell structure prevents phagocytosis?
A
Capsule
3
Q
What cell structure helps bacteria to adhere to mucous membranes?
A
Pili
4
Q
What type of bacteria must have oxygen in order to grow?
A
Aerobe
5
Q
What type of bacteria can grow in the presence or the absence of oxygen?
A
facilitative anaerobe
6
Q
What type of bacteria grows only in the absence of oxygen?
A
Anaerobic
7
Q
Most bacteria are:
A
Facilitative anaerobic
8
Q
What is an example of basic nutrient media?
A
TSA (trypticase soy agar)
9
Q
What is an example of differential/selective media?
A
MacConkeys agar and EMB agar
10
Q
What is an example of an enriched media?
A
Blood agar
11
Q
What can you say about a MAC plate that has clear colonies?
A
Non lactose fermenter
12
Q
What best describes an exotoxin?
A
Produced within a bacterial cell and released into the environment
13
Q
What best describes an endotoxin?
A
Part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria, toxin released when bacteria dies
14
Q
What is the incubation of media time?
A
24-48 hrs at 35-37 C
15
Q
What produces antibodies?
A
B lymphocyte
16
Q
What phagocytizes bacteria?
A
Macrophage
17
Q
What is important for the elimination of intracellular organisms?
A
Macrophage
18
Q
What is a resistant stage of bacteria?
A
Capsule
19
Q
What specimen is not considered to be sterile?
A
Urine in the bladder
voided urine specimen
20
Q
What sites contain normal flora?
A
Skin
G.I. tract
mouth
GU tract
21
Q
What is an example of artificial passive immunity?
A
Antitoxin for tetanus
22
Q
What is an example of natural active immunity?
A
Getting a disease and recovering
23
Q
True or false
bacteria reproduce by buddy
A
False
24
True or false
| the ideal pH for bacterial growth is 6 to 6.5
False
25
True or false
| microaerophilic bacteria grow in reduced oxygen and are incubated in a candlejar
True
26
True or false
| an obligate pathogen will usually cause disease
True
27
True or false
| catheterization is the best method for collecting a urine specimen for microbiology
False
28
True or false
| a gas pak jar/pouch can be used to incubate plates anaerobically
True
29
```
True or false
microbiology specimens (cultures, slides, tubes, etc.) are classified as biohazardous waste
```
True
30
True or false
| resolution is the ability to distinguish fine detail
True
31
True or false
| if you can't focus a microscope on 100 X and oil, it is okay to go back to 40 X
False
32
True or false
| the final magnification when the 10X objective in place is 1000X
False
33
True or false
| immersion oil is used with the 10X at subjective lens
False
34
True or false
| when focusing on a slide you should start with the 40X objective in place
False
35
True or false
| active immunity involves the transfer of antibody
False
36
True or false
| passive immunity create long lasting immunity
False
37
Color of gram-positive bacteria
Purple
38
With like structure used for motility
Flagella
39
Complete lysis of RBC on BAP, clearing around colonies
Beta
40
Lysis of RBC on BAP
Gamma
41
Immunization containing bacterial antigens
Bacterin
42
Hospital acquired infection
Nosocomial
43
An intervertebrate insect that can transmit disease
Vector
44
When an organism exists continuously in a certain geographic location
Endemic
45
Immunization containing toxin antigens
Toxoid
46
An inanimate object that harbors and transmits bacteria
Fomite
47
A disease transmissible from animals to humans
Zoonotic
48
Preformed antibodies to a toxin
Antitoxin
49
Color of gram-negative bacteria
Pink
50
List the stains and the times for a Gram stain
Crystal violet one minute
grams iodine one minute
decolorizer until runoff is clear
safranin one minute
51
Opportunistic bacteria can produce disease if given the right opportunity. List the two main opportunities given in class that may result in an opportunistic infection.
Unusual location
| host is compromised
52
Have one reason for heat fixing a slide prior to gram staining
Kills bacteria
53
Bacteria produce disease by one of two basic mechanisms they are:
Tissue invasion
| Toxin production
54
The immune response has two branches. List the branch and the WBC important in that branch
Humoral immunity-B lymphocytes
| Cellular immunity-T lymphocytes
55
The bacteria that stain as gram-positive cocci are
Streptococcus
| Staphylococcus
56
The test to distinguish between staph. and strap. is
Catalase
57
The test to differentiate between pathogenic and nonpathogenic staph.:
Coagulase
58
The reagent for the catalase test is:
Hydrogen peroxide
59
The reagent for the coagulase test is:
Rabbit plasma
60
The media to detect H2S production is
KIA
61
What staph. are pathogenic and coagulase positive:
Staph. aureus
| Staph. intermedius
62
Staph. Aureus:
Causes pyogenic infections
Is a common cause of bovine mastitis
Has a double zone of beta hemolysis
Is catalase positive
63
Strep. agalactiae:
Is a common cause of bovine mastitis
| is beta hemolytic
64
Strep. equi:
Is catalase negative
65
Staph. intermediums/pseudintermedius in dogs causes:
UTI
otitis
pyoderma
mastitis
66
What bacteria are small gram positive rods:
Corynebacterium
| Listeria
67
The bacteria in the genus Clostridium:
Produce exotoxins
form spores
are anaerobic
68
The bacteria in the genus bacillus are:
Large gram positive rods
| spore formers
69
True or false
| a positive coagulase test is cloudiness in the media
False
70
True or false
| equine strangles is very contagious, can be prevented by immunization with a bacterin
True
71
True or false
| MRSA stands for methicillin resistant Strep. agalactiae
False
72
True or false
| the bacteria that causes anthrax is a spore former and aerobic
True
73
True or false
| anthrax spores can be inhaled, ingested or enter through a break in the skin
True
74
True or false
| cattle and sheep are very susceptible to the anthrax exotoxin
True
75
True or false
| animals with anthrax die suddenly and many animal suffocate due to paralysis of respiratory muscles
False
76
True or false
| tetanus antitoxin contains toxin antigens and is used to treat tetanus
False
77
True or false
diseases caused by clost. hemolyticum, Clost. novi, clost. chauvoei, clost. preferingens, Clost. septicum and Clost. tetani can be prevented by immunization
True
78
True or false
| most cases of tetanus occur following ingestion of tetanus spores from the soil
False
79
True or false
| waterfowl (esp. ducks) are susceptible to the botulism exotoxin
True
80
True or false
| dogs, cats and horses are most susceptible to the tetanus exotoxin
False
81
True or false
| tetanus in waterfowl is also called limberneck
False
82
True or false
| potbellied pigs can be immunized for swine erysipelas
True
83
```
True or false
marine mammals (dolphins) can be immunized for Erysipelothrix
```
True
84
True or false
| the skin form of swine erysipelas is called greasy pig disease
False
85
True or false
| Listeria can cause food poisoning in people
True
86
True or false
| flies are mechanical vectors that play a role in transmission of Corynebacterium psedotuberculosis
True
87
True or false
| Clostridium perfringens causes clostridial enterotoxemia
True
88
Tetanus exotoxin blocks the release of _____ which then causes ___. The immunization for tetanus is a ____.
Blocks the function of inhibitory neurons
Muscle contraction
Toxoid
89
Botulism exotoxin blocks the ___ which then causes ___.
Release of acetylcholine
| Muscle paralysis
90
Diamond skin disease
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
91
Circling disease
Listeria monocytogenes
92
Toxin of this bacteria causes paralysis, culture grows anaerobically, major cause of death in ducks
Clostridium botulinum
93
Toxin of this bacteria causes muscle rigidity, culture grows anaerobically
Clostridium Tetani
94
Red water disease, seen in areas with high concentrations of liver flukes
Clostridium haemolyticum
95
GPCOC, Catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, important cause of pneumonia in primates and guinea pigs
Streptococcus pneumoniae
96
Black leg disease, toxin of this bacteria is histotoxic
Clostridium chauvoei
97
Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) in sheep and goats
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
98
Pigeon fever in horses
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
99
Bacteria can cause diarrhea in animals and people, can be diagnosed with a fecal cytology, look for large rods with endospores, "safety pins"
Clostridium perfringens
100
Black disease, infectious necrotic hepatitis
Clostridium novyi
101
Group C strep.
Streptococcus equi
102
Test of that shows an arrowhead of hemolysis when positive
CAMP test
103
Following an immunization for brucellosis what two things are done to the cows ear
Orange tag on the right ear
| tattoo the right ear
104
Antibiotic that can kill bacteria
Bacteriocidal
105
Antibiotic that inhibits replication
Bacteriostatic
106
Antibiotic effective against only gram positive or only gram negative bacteria
Narrow spectrum
107
Antibiotic defective against some gram positive and some gram negative bacteria
Broad spectrum
108
Antibiotic required for an immunosuppressed animal
Bacteriocidal
109
Antibiotic susceptibility test disc diffusion
Kirby Bauer
110
Media of choice for antibiotic susceptibility testing
Mueller Hinton
111
Antibiotic susceptibility test that uses different concentrations of antibiotics
BMB
112
Antibiotic susceptibility test that determines lowest concentration of antibiotic
MIC
113
True or false
Bacterial drug resistance develops with repeated use of an antibiotic, but is usually not passed on to future generations of bacteria
False
114
True or false
| Dogs should be immunized for brucellosis prior to being bred
False
115
True or false
| Brucella abortus is zoonotic
True
116
True or false
| Female calves should be immunized for brucellosis at 18 months right before breeding
False
| 4 to 12 months
117
True or false
| Lyme disease is usually diagnosed by serology
True
118
True or false
Leptospira bacteria are shed in the urine of reservoirs hosts like rats and other rodents and can enter a host via mucous membranes and abrated skin
True
119
True or false
| dogs with leptospirosis have renal and hepatic involvement
True
120
True or false
| leptospirosis is more common during years of drought
False
121
The immunization for lepto in dogs is a ___ way vaccine and includes:
```
4
pomona
icterohaemorrhagiae
grippotyphosa
canicola
```
122
Give the name of a general, all-purpose fungal media
Sabouraud's dextrose agar
123
Give the name of the fungal media used to dermatophyte mold
Dermatophyte media
124
Give the incubation temperature dermatophyte media
Room temp
125
Give the color change of dermatophyte media for a positive dermatophyte culture
Blue
126
Give the common name for the infection caused by a dermatophyte mold
Ringworm
127
Give genus and species name for the most common dermatophyte mold that causes ringworm
Microsporum canis
128
Give the common name for the light source used as an initial screening test for microsporeum canis
Woods lamp
129
What stain is used to study mold?
Lactophenol cotton blue stain
130
Mold spores are also called
Conidia
131
Give the genus and species of the yeast that is a common cause of otitis
Malassezia pachydermatis
132
Found in the Southwest US
Coccidiodes
133
Found in major river valleys, especially soil enriched with bat and Bird feces
Histoplasma
134
Found east of Mississippi River
Blastomyces
135
Rose pickers disease
Sporothrix
136
What is another name for a Kirby Bauer antibiotic susceptibility test?
Disc diffusion
137
Get the name of the media used for Kirby Bauer test
Mueller-Hinton agar
138
What do you use to streak a plate for an antibiotic susceptibility test and what kind of a pattern would you use?
Tip of cotton swab
| streak three overlapping sections
139
How do you measure the zones of inhibition on a Kirby Bauer test and what are the units of measure?
Measure the diameter of the zone of inhibition in millimeters
140
MacConkey's agar is in example of differential/selective media. what does it select for and differentiate between?
Selects for: GNROD
| differentiates between: lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters
141
Lactose fermenting bacteria show ____ (color) colonies and non-lactose fermenting bacteria show ____ (color) on MacConkeys.
Pink
| Clear
142
True or false
| Blood agar is an example of selective/enrichment agar
False
143
True or false
Gram-negative bacteria stained pink because the cell wall contains a high concentration of peptidoglycan, therefore they decolorize
False
144
True or false
| Endotoxins are part of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria
True
145
What is the name of the first test run on a GNROD?
Oxidase test
146
Is the oxidase test run using bacteria from blood agar or MacConkeys agar?
Blood agar
147
Which enteric GNROD is encapsulated and grows mucoid, slimy colonies
Klebsiella
148
Which enteric GNROD swarms blood agar?
Proteus
149
Which enteric GNROD is found in the intestinal tract do reptiles?
Salmonella
150
Which enteric GNROD causes the plague?
Yersinia pestis
151
List the 5 genus names of the small gram positive rods.
```
Corynebacterium
Listeria
Erysipclothrix
Arcanobacterium
Rhodococcus
```
152
List the 2 genus names of the large gram negative rods.
Bacillus
| Clostridium
153
Reagent for catalase test
H2O2
154
Agar slant used for H2S production
KIA
155
Test that is inoculated by only stabbing the agar
Motility
156
Test that runs hot pink when positive
Urease
157
Test that bubbles when positive
Catalase
158
Agar slant that is inoculated by stabbing and streaking
KIA
159
Test that shows black pigment when positive
H2S production
160
Test that shows cloudiness along stab line when negative
Motility
161
Gram-positive bacteria stain (color)
Blue-purple
162
Gram negative bacteria stain (color)
Pink-red
163
True or false
| gram negative bacteria get decolorized by the decolorizer in a Gram stain
True
164
True or false
| all the reagents in a Gram stain are left on the slide for one minute
False
165
True or false
| a small rod shaped bacteria that looks oval is called coccobacillus
True
166
True or false
| bacteria on a Gram stain slide are examined using the 4X and 10X objective lenses
False
167
True or false
| bacteria are incubated at 30 to 35°C
False
168
True or false
| bacteria that grow only in the absence of oxygen are called facilitative anaerobes
False
169
When looking at a stain slide the condenser should be in the ____ position.
Up/lifted
170
We use immersion oil to increase _____.
Resolution
171
Give the genus name of the bacteria that causes anthrax
Bacillus
172
What is the shape of bacillus
Rods
173
Vector
An invertebrate insect that transmits disease through its bite
174
Fomite
An inanimate object contaminated with a pathogen
175
Nosocomial Infection
Hospital acquired infection/disease
176
Incubation Period
Time frame initial infection time until clinical signs appear
- Most bacteria: 2-5 days
- Most viruses: 3 days-2 weeks
177
Endemic
Organism prevails continuously in a certain geographic location
Disease is constantly present in certain geographic locations
178
Epidemic
Sudden outbreak or number of increase cases
179
Pandemic
An epidemic occurring over a wide area
Crossing international lines
Infecting a large number of people
180
Reservoir
A permanent place to reside
Human, animal, soil, water, etc
Rodents -- plague
White footed mouse -- lyme disease
181
Carrier
An infected individual who is potential source of infection for others
May or may not be symptomatic
182
Humoral Immunity
Involves B lymphs
Recognize ag and produce ab -- binds to a specific ag
Some become memory cells -- aide in vx
183
Cellular Immunity
Involves T lymphs
Fight off dz
3 functions:
1. Elimination of intracellular organism (viruses)
2. Elimination of abnormal cells (cancer)
3. Hypersensitivity reactions (anaphylaxis)
184
Basic nutrient media
General all purpose media
Cheap
Ex: Trypticase Soy Agar (TSA)
185
Enriched media
```
Basic nutrient agar with addition of extra nutrients to make media "enriched"
Better for picky bacteria
Ex: Blood Agar
Enriched with 5% sheep blood
Used to read hemolysis
```
186
Enriched media - Beta
Complete clearing around colonies on plate
187
Enriched media - Alpha
Incomplete clearing around the colonies
| Greenish/brown around colonies
188
Enriched media - Gamma
No hemolysis around colonies
| No color change around colonies
189
Selective media
Selects for growth of a certain group of bacteria while inhibiting other from growing
Ex: PEA Agar - selective for Gram Positive bacteria (Staph aureus)
190
Differential/Selective media
Differential contains an indicator that is visibly changed by metabolic activity of bacteria
Selective for the growth of a certain group of bacteria and inhibits others
Ex: MacConkey's Agar
191
MacConkeys Agar
Selects (enteric) GNRODS
Differentiates between Lactose Fermenters and Nonlactose fermenters
LF GNRODS -- show pink colonies
NLF GNRODS -- are colonies
192
Selective/enrichment media
Usually a broth
| Used for fecal cultures
193
Other media
Thioglycollate broth -- grows most bacteria
| Muellar-Hinton Agar -- used for antibiotic susceptibility testing
194
Isolation Streaking
Pattern used to grow individual isolated colonies
Gtt of liquid, roll swab, sterilize loop in flame
Scoop the bacteria and streak 1/3 of plate
Resterilize and with part of the streaked area, grab more and streak another 1/3 of plate
Resterilize and streak til the end
195
Label Plate
Date
Pt name
Specimen
196
Incubate
At 35-37 degree C
Upside down
For 24 hours if not wait 48 hours
-- Some can take up to 5 days
197
Gram's Stain
Crystal Violet -- 1 min
Gram's Iodine -- 1 min
Decolorizer --use until slide runs clear
Safranin -- 1 min
198
Replication: Binary Fission
Grow rapidly
| Cell divides on it's own
199
Thioglycollate Broth
Aerobes at the top
Anaerobes at the top
Facultative anaerobes throughout but mostly at the top
Microaerophilics just below the surface
200
Normal Flora
Normal bacteria in an animals that does NOT cause disease
201
Pathogens
Are diseases
2 types
-opportunistic pathogens
-obligate pathogens
202
Opportunistic pathogens
Unusual locations
-E. coli is normal but if in bladder -- cystitis
Host is compromised
-very young, very old, stress, antibiotics, etc
203
Obligate pathogens
If present on or in animal will usually cause disease
204
True or false
| Horses and humans are very susceptible to tetanus and should be immunized with tetanus toxoid.
True
205
True or false
| Psittacosis is caused by Chlamydophila
True
206
Give another name for psittacosis in psittacine birds
Parrot fever
207
True or false
| The vector that transmits the plague is a tick
False
| Flea
208
Other than the reservoir host, the domestic animal is susceptible to the plague?
Cats
209
True or false
| The coggins test is used to diagnose bangs dz
False
210
True or false
| Staphylococcus is a gram positive cocci that is catalase negative
False
| Positive
211
True or false
| Bordetella is a GNROD that causes infectious tracheobronchitis or kennel cough
True
212
True or false
| Limberneck in ducks is caused by Clostridium tetani.
False
| Botulinum
213
Complete lysis with clearing around a colony describes _____ hemolysis.
Beta
214
Strangles
Streptococcus equi
215
Circling dz
Listeria monocytogenes
216
Lyme dz
Borrelia burgdorferi
217
Tropical canine pancytopnia
Ehrlichia canis
218
Turberculosis
Mycobacterium spp
219
Plague
Yersinia pestis
220
RMSF/tick fever
Rickettsia rickettsii
221
CSD (cat scratch dz)
Bartonella henselae
222
Pigeon fever
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
223
Thrush (horses)
Fusobacterium spp
224
True or false
| Malassezia is the common yeast that causes otitis in dogs
True
225
Give the genus and species of the most common cause of ringworm in dogs and cats.
What kind of organism is this?
Microsporum canis
| Mold
226
Give the name of the light source used as an initial screen for dermatophytosis.
Woods lamp
