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Mini CPE 1 > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

0
Q

Gram positive bacteria:

A

Have a thick peptidoglycan layer

Have a thick lipopolysaccharide (lipid) layer

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1
Q

True or false

bacteria are prokaryotic cells?

A

True

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2
Q

What cell structure prevents phagocytosis?

A

Capsule

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3
Q

What cell structure helps bacteria to adhere to mucous membranes?

A

Pili

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4
Q

What type of bacteria must have oxygen in order to grow?

A

Aerobe

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5
Q

What type of bacteria can grow in the presence or the absence of oxygen?

A

facilitative anaerobe

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6
Q

What type of bacteria grows only in the absence of oxygen?

A

Anaerobic

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7
Q

Most bacteria are:

A

Facilitative anaerobic

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8
Q

What is an example of basic nutrient media?

A

TSA (trypticase soy agar)

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9
Q

What is an example of differential/selective media?

A

MacConkeys agar and EMB agar

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10
Q

What is an example of an enriched media?

A

Blood agar

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11
Q

What can you say about a MAC plate that has clear colonies?

A

Non lactose fermenter

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12
Q

What best describes an exotoxin?

A

Produced within a bacterial cell and released into the environment

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13
Q

What best describes an endotoxin?

A

Part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria, toxin released when bacteria dies

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14
Q

What is the incubation of media time?

A

24-48 hrs at 35-37 C

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15
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

B lymphocyte

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16
Q

What phagocytizes bacteria?

A

Macrophage

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17
Q

What is important for the elimination of intracellular organisms?

A

Macrophage

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18
Q

What is a resistant stage of bacteria?

A

Capsule

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19
Q

What specimen is not considered to be sterile?

A

Urine in the bladder

voided urine specimen

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20
Q

What sites contain normal flora?

A

Skin
G.I. tract
mouth
GU tract

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21
Q

What is an example of artificial passive immunity?

A

Antitoxin for tetanus

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22
Q

What is an example of natural active immunity?

A

Getting a disease and recovering

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23
Q

True or false

bacteria reproduce by buddy

A

False

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24
Q

True or false

the ideal pH for bacterial growth is 6 to 6.5

A

False

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25
Q

True or false

microaerophilic bacteria grow in reduced oxygen and are incubated in a candlejar

A

True

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26
Q

True or false

an obligate pathogen will usually cause disease

A

True

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27
Q

True or false

catheterization is the best method for collecting a urine specimen for microbiology

A

False

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28
Q

True or false

a gas pak jar/pouch can be used to incubate plates anaerobically

A

True

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29
Q 
True or false 
microbiology specimens (cultures, slides, tubes, etc.) are classified as biohazardous waste
A

True

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30
Q

True or false

resolution is the ability to distinguish fine detail

A

True

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31
Q

True or false

if you can’t focus a microscope on 100 X and oil, it is okay to go back to 40 X

A

False

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32
Q

True or false

the final magnification when the 10X objective in place is 1000X

A

False

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33
Q

True or false

immersion oil is used with the 10X at subjective lens

A

False

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34
Q

True or false

when focusing on a slide you should start with the 40X objective in place

A

False

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35
Q

True or false

active immunity involves the transfer of antibody

A

False

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36
Q

True or false

passive immunity create long lasting immunity

A

False

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37
Q

Color of gram-positive bacteria

A

Purple

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38
Q

With like structure used for motility

A

Flagella

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39
Q

Complete lysis of RBC on BAP, clearing around colonies

A

Beta

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40
Q

Lysis of RBC on BAP

A

Gamma

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41
Q

Immunization containing bacterial antigens

A

Bacterin

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42
Q

Hospital acquired infection

A

Nosocomial

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43
Q

An intervertebrate insect that can transmit disease

A

Vector

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44
Q

When an organism exists continuously in a certain geographic location

A

Endemic

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45
Q

Immunization containing toxin antigens

A

Toxoid

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46
Q

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits bacteria

A

Fomite

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47
Q

A disease transmissible from animals to humans

A

Zoonotic

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48
Q

Preformed antibodies to a toxin

A

Antitoxin

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49
Q

Color of gram-negative bacteria

A

Pink

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50
Q

List the stains and the times for a Gram stain

A

Crystal violet one minute
grams iodine one minute
decolorizer until runoff is clear
safranin one minute

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51
Q

Opportunistic bacteria can produce disease if given the right opportunity. List the two main opportunities given in class that may result in an opportunistic infection.

A

Unusual location

host is compromised

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52
Q

Have one reason for heat fixing a slide prior to gram staining

A

Kills bacteria

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53
Q

Bacteria produce disease by one of two basic mechanisms they are:

A

Tissue invasion

Toxin production

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54
Q

The immune response has two branches. List the branch and the WBC important in that branch

A

Humoral immunity-B lymphocytes

Cellular immunity-T lymphocytes

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55
Q

The bacteria that stain as gram-positive cocci are

A

Streptococcus

Staphylococcus

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56
Q

The test to distinguish between staph. and strap. is

A

Catalase

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57
Q

The test to differentiate between pathogenic and nonpathogenic staph.:

A

Coagulase

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58
Q

The reagent for the catalase test is:

A

Hydrogen peroxide

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59
Q

The reagent for the coagulase test is:

A

Rabbit plasma

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60
Q

The media to detect H2S production is

A

KIA

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61
Q

What staph. are pathogenic and coagulase positive:

A

Staph. aureus

Staph. intermedius

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62
Q

Staph. Aureus:

A

Causes pyogenic infections
Is a common cause of bovine mastitis
Has a double zone of beta hemolysis
Is catalase positive

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63
Q

Strep. agalactiae:

A

Is a common cause of bovine mastitis

is beta hemolytic

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64
Q

Strep. equi:

A

Is catalase negative

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65
Q

Staph. intermediums/pseudintermedius in dogs causes:

A

UTI
otitis
pyoderma
mastitis

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66
Q

What bacteria are small gram positive rods:

A

Corynebacterium

Listeria

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67
Q

The bacteria in the genus Clostridium:

A

Produce exotoxins
form spores
are anaerobic

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68
Q

The bacteria in the genus bacillus are:

A

Large gram positive rods

spore formers

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69
Q

True or false

a positive coagulase test is cloudiness in the media

A

False

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70
Q

True or false

equine strangles is very contagious, can be prevented by immunization with a bacterin

A

True

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71
Q

True or false

MRSA stands for methicillin resistant Strep. agalactiae

A

False

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72
Q

True or false

the bacteria that causes anthrax is a spore former and aerobic

A

True

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73
Q

True or false

anthrax spores can be inhaled, ingested or enter through a break in the skin

A

True

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74
Q

True or false

cattle and sheep are very susceptible to the anthrax exotoxin

A

True

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75
Q

True or false

animals with anthrax die suddenly and many animal suffocate due to paralysis of respiratory muscles

A

False

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76
Q

True or false

tetanus antitoxin contains toxin antigens and is used to treat tetanus

A

False

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77
Q

True or false
diseases caused by clost. hemolyticum, Clost. novi, clost. chauvoei, clost. preferingens, Clost. septicum and Clost. tetani can be prevented by immunization

A

True

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78
Q

True or false

most cases of tetanus occur following ingestion of tetanus spores from the soil

A

False

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79
Q

True or false

waterfowl (esp. ducks) are susceptible to the botulism exotoxin

A

True

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80
Q

True or false

dogs, cats and horses are most susceptible to the tetanus exotoxin

A

False

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81
Q

True or false

tetanus in waterfowl is also called limberneck

A

False

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82
Q

True or false

potbellied pigs can be immunized for swine erysipelas

A

True

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83
Q 
True or false 
marine mammals (dolphins) can be immunized for Erysipelothrix
A

True

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84
Q

True or false

the skin form of swine erysipelas is called greasy pig disease

A

False

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85
Q

True or false

Listeria can cause food poisoning in people

A

True

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86
Q

True or false

flies are mechanical vectors that play a role in transmission of Corynebacterium psedotuberculosis

A

True

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87
Q

True or false

Clostridium perfringens causes clostridial enterotoxemia

A

True

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88
Q

Tetanus exotoxin blocks the release of _____ which then causes ___. The immunization for tetanus is a ____.

A

Blocks the function of inhibitory neurons
Muscle contraction
Toxoid

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89
Q

Botulism exotoxin blocks the ___ which then causes ___.

A

Release of acetylcholine

Muscle paralysis

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90
Q

Diamond skin disease

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

91
Q

Circling disease

A

Listeria monocytogenes

92
Q

Toxin of this bacteria causes paralysis, culture grows anaerobically, major cause of death in ducks

A

Clostridium botulinum

93
Q

Toxin of this bacteria causes muscle rigidity, culture grows anaerobically

A

Clostridium Tetani

94
Q

Red water disease, seen in areas with high concentrations of liver flukes

A

Clostridium haemolyticum

95
Q

GPCOC, Catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, important cause of pneumonia in primates and guinea pigs

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

96
Q

Black leg disease, toxin of this bacteria is histotoxic

A

Clostridium chauvoei

97
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) in sheep and goats

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

98
Q

Pigeon fever in horses

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

99
Q

Bacteria can cause diarrhea in animals and people, can be diagnosed with a fecal cytology, look for large rods with endospores, “safety pins”

A

Clostridium perfringens

100
Q

Black disease, infectious necrotic hepatitis

A

Clostridium novyi

101
Q

Group C strep.

A

Streptococcus equi

102
Q

Test of that shows an arrowhead of hemolysis when positive

A

CAMP test

103
Q

Following an immunization for brucellosis what two things are done to the cows ear

A

Orange tag on the right ear

tattoo the right ear

104
Q

Antibiotic that can kill bacteria

A

Bacteriocidal

105
Q

Antibiotic that inhibits replication

A

Bacteriostatic

106
Q

Antibiotic effective against only gram positive or only gram negative bacteria

A

Narrow spectrum

107
Q

Antibiotic defective against some gram positive and some gram negative bacteria

A

Broad spectrum

108
Q

Antibiotic required for an immunosuppressed animal

A

Bacteriocidal

109
Q

Antibiotic susceptibility test disc diffusion

A

Kirby Bauer

110
Q

Media of choice for antibiotic susceptibility testing

A

Mueller Hinton

111
Q

Antibiotic susceptibility test that uses different concentrations of antibiotics

A

BMB

112
Q

Antibiotic susceptibility test that determines lowest concentration of antibiotic

A

MIC

113
Q

True or false
Bacterial drug resistance develops with repeated use of an antibiotic, but is usually not passed on to future generations of bacteria

A

False

114
Q

True or false

Dogs should be immunized for brucellosis prior to being bred

A

False

115
Q

True or false

Brucella abortus is zoonotic

A

True

116
Q

True or false

Female calves should be immunized for brucellosis at 18 months right before breeding

A

False

4 to 12 months

117
Q

True or false

Lyme disease is usually diagnosed by serology

A

True

118
Q

True or false
Leptospira bacteria are shed in the urine of reservoirs hosts like rats and other rodents and can enter a host via mucous membranes and abrated skin

A

True

119
Q

True or false

dogs with leptospirosis have renal and hepatic involvement

A

True

120
Q

True or false

leptospirosis is more common during years of drought

A

False

121
Q

The immunization for lepto in dogs is a ___ way vaccine and includes:

A 
4
pomona
icterohaemorrhagiae
grippotyphosa
canicola
122
Q

Give the name of a general, all-purpose fungal media

A

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

123
Q

Give the name of the fungal media used to dermatophyte mold

A

Dermatophyte media

124
Q

Give the incubation temperature dermatophyte media

A

Room temp

125
Q

Give the color change of dermatophyte media for a positive dermatophyte culture

A

Blue

126
Q

Give the common name for the infection caused by a dermatophyte mold

A

Ringworm

127
Q

Give genus and species name for the most common dermatophyte mold that causes ringworm

A

Microsporum canis

128
Q

Give the common name for the light source used as an initial screening test for microsporeum canis

A

Woods lamp

129
Q

What stain is used to study mold?

A

Lactophenol cotton blue stain

130
Q

Mold spores are also called

A

Conidia

131
Q

Give the genus and species of the yeast that is a common cause of otitis

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

132
Q

Found in the Southwest US

A

Coccidiodes

133
Q

Found in major river valleys, especially soil enriched with bat and Bird feces

A

Histoplasma

134
Q

Found east of Mississippi River

A

Blastomyces

135
Q

Rose pickers disease

A

Sporothrix

136
Q

What is another name for a Kirby Bauer antibiotic susceptibility test?

A

Disc diffusion

137
Q

Get the name of the media used for Kirby Bauer test

A

Mueller-Hinton agar

138
Q

What do you use to streak a plate for an antibiotic susceptibility test and what kind of a pattern would you use?

A

Tip of cotton swab

streak three overlapping sections

139
Q

How do you measure the zones of inhibition on a Kirby Bauer test and what are the units of measure?

A

Measure the diameter of the zone of inhibition in millimeters

140
Q

MacConkey’s agar is in example of differential/selective media. what does it select for and differentiate between?

A

Selects for: GNROD

differentiates between: lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters

141
Q

Lactose fermenting bacteria show ____ (color) colonies and non-lactose fermenting bacteria show ____ (color) on MacConkeys.

A

Pink

Clear

142
Q

True or false

Blood agar is an example of selective/enrichment agar

A

False

143
Q

True or false
Gram-negative bacteria stained pink because the cell wall contains a high concentration of peptidoglycan, therefore they decolorize

A

False

144
Q

True or false

Endotoxins are part of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria

A

True

145
Q

What is the name of the first test run on a GNROD?

A

Oxidase test

146
Q

Is the oxidase test run using bacteria from blood agar or MacConkeys agar?

A

Blood agar

147
Q

Which enteric GNROD is encapsulated and grows mucoid, slimy colonies

A

Klebsiella

148
Q

Which enteric GNROD swarms blood agar?

A

Proteus

149
Q

Which enteric GNROD is found in the intestinal tract do reptiles?

A

Salmonella

150
Q

Which enteric GNROD causes the plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

151
Q

List the 5 genus names of the small gram positive rods.

A 
Corynebacterium 
Listeria
Erysipclothrix
Arcanobacterium
Rhodococcus
152
Q

List the 2 genus names of the large gram negative rods.

A

Bacillus

Clostridium

153
Q

Reagent for catalase test

A

H2O2

154
Q

Agar slant used for H2S production

A

KIA

155
Q

Test that is inoculated by only stabbing the agar

A

Motility

156
Q

Test that runs hot pink when positive

A

Urease

157
Q

Test that bubbles when positive

A

Catalase

158
Q

Agar slant that is inoculated by stabbing and streaking

A

KIA

159
Q

Test that shows black pigment when positive

A

H2S production

160
Q

Test that shows cloudiness along stab line when negative

A

Motility

161
Q

Gram-positive bacteria stain (color)

A

Blue-purple

162
Q

Gram negative bacteria stain (color)

A

Pink-red

163
Q

True or false

gram negative bacteria get decolorized by the decolorizer in a Gram stain

A

True

164
Q

True or false

all the reagents in a Gram stain are left on the slide for one minute

A

False

165
Q

True or false

a small rod shaped bacteria that looks oval is called coccobacillus

A

True

166
Q

True or false

bacteria on a Gram stain slide are examined using the 4X and 10X objective lenses

A

False

167
Q

True or false

bacteria are incubated at 30 to 35°C

A

False

168
Q

True or false

bacteria that grow only in the absence of oxygen are called facilitative anaerobes

A

False

169
Q

When looking at a stain slide the condenser should be in the ____ position.

A

Up/lifted

170
Q

We use immersion oil to increase _____.

A

Resolution

171
Q

Give the genus name of the bacteria that causes anthrax

A

Bacillus

172
Q

What is the shape of bacillus

A

Rods

173
Q

Vector

A

An invertebrate insect that transmits disease through its bite

174
Q

Fomite

A

An inanimate object contaminated with a pathogen

175
Q

Nosocomial Infection

A

Hospital acquired infection/disease

176
Q

Incubation Period

A

Time frame initial infection time until clinical signs appear

  • Most bacteria: 2-5 days
  • Most viruses: 3 days-2 weeks
177
Q

Endemic

A

Organism prevails continuously in a certain geographic location
Disease is constantly present in certain geographic locations

178
Q

Epidemic

A

Sudden outbreak or number of increase cases

179
Q

Pandemic

A

An epidemic occurring over a wide area
Crossing international lines
Infecting a large number of people

180
Q

Reservoir

A

A permanent place to reside
Human, animal, soil, water, etc
Rodents – plague
White footed mouse – lyme disease

181
Q

Carrier

A

An infected individual who is potential source of infection for others
May or may not be symptomatic

182
Q

Humoral Immunity

A

Involves B lymphs
Recognize ag and produce ab – binds to a specific ag
Some become memory cells – aide in vx

183
Q

Cellular Immunity

A

Involves T lymphs
Fight off dz
3 functions:
1. Elimination of intracellular organism (viruses)
2. Elimination of abnormal cells (cancer)
3. Hypersensitivity reactions (anaphylaxis)

184
Q

Basic nutrient media

A

General all purpose media
Cheap
Ex: Trypticase Soy Agar (TSA)

185
Q

Enriched media

A 
Basic nutrient agar with addition of extra nutrients to make media "enriched"
Better for picky bacteria
Ex: Blood Agar
Enriched with 5% sheep blood
Used to read hemolysis
186
Q

Enriched media - Beta

A

Complete clearing around colonies on plate

187
Q

Enriched media - Alpha

A

Incomplete clearing around the colonies

Greenish/brown around colonies

188
Q

Enriched media - Gamma

A

No hemolysis around colonies

No color change around colonies

189
Q

Selective media

A

Selects for growth of a certain group of bacteria while inhibiting other from growing
Ex: PEA Agar - selective for Gram Positive bacteria (Staph aureus)

190
Q

Differential/Selective media

A

Differential contains an indicator that is visibly changed by metabolic activity of bacteria
Selective for the growth of a certain group of bacteria and inhibits others
Ex: MacConkey’s Agar

191
Q

MacConkeys Agar

A

Selects (enteric) GNRODS
Differentiates between Lactose Fermenters and Nonlactose fermenters
LF GNRODS – show pink colonies
NLF GNRODS – are colonies

192
Q

Selective/enrichment media

A

Usually a broth

Used for fecal cultures

193
Q

Other media

A

Thioglycollate broth – grows most bacteria

Muellar-Hinton Agar – used for antibiotic susceptibility testing

194
Q

Isolation Streaking

A

Pattern used to grow individual isolated colonies
Gtt of liquid, roll swab, sterilize loop in flame
Scoop the bacteria and streak 1/3 of plate
Resterilize and with part of the streaked area, grab more and streak another 1/3 of plate
Resterilize and streak til the end

195
Q

Label Plate

A

Date
Pt name
Specimen

196
Q

Incubate

A

At 35-37 degree C
Upside down
For 24 hours if not wait 48 hours
– Some can take up to 5 days

197
Q

Gram’s Stain

A

Crystal Violet – 1 min
Gram’s Iodine – 1 min
Decolorizer –use until slide runs clear
Safranin – 1 min

198
Q

Replication: Binary Fission

A

Grow rapidly

Cell divides on it’s own

199
Q

Thioglycollate Broth

A

Aerobes at the top
Anaerobes at the top
Facultative anaerobes throughout but mostly at the top
Microaerophilics just below the surface

200
Q

Normal Flora

A

Normal bacteria in an animals that does NOT cause disease

201
Q

Pathogens

A

Are diseases
2 types
-opportunistic pathogens
-obligate pathogens

202
Q

Opportunistic pathogens

A

Unusual locations
-E. coli is normal but if in bladder – cystitis
Host is compromised
-very young, very old, stress, antibiotics, etc

203
Q

Obligate pathogens

A

If present on or in animal will usually cause disease

204
Q

True or false

Horses and humans are very susceptible to tetanus and should be immunized with tetanus toxoid.

A

True

205
Q

True or false

Psittacosis is caused by Chlamydophila

A

True

206
Q

Give another name for psittacosis in psittacine birds

A

Parrot fever

207
Q

True or false

The vector that transmits the plague is a tick

A

False

Flea

208
Q

Other than the reservoir host, the domestic animal is susceptible to the plague?

A

Cats

209
Q

True or false

The coggins test is used to diagnose bangs dz

A

False

210
Q

True or false

Staphylococcus is a gram positive cocci that is catalase negative

A

False

Positive

211
Q

True or false

Bordetella is a GNROD that causes infectious tracheobronchitis or kennel cough

A

True

212
Q

True or false

Limberneck in ducks is caused by Clostridium tetani.

A

False

Botulinum

213
Q

Complete lysis with clearing around a colony describes _____ hemolysis.

A

Beta

214
Q

Strangles

A

Streptococcus equi

215
Q

Circling dz

A

Listeria monocytogenes

216
Q

Lyme dz

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

217
Q

Tropical canine pancytopnia

A

Ehrlichia canis

218
Q

Turberculosis

A

Mycobacterium spp

219
Q

Plague

A

Yersinia pestis

220
Q

RMSF/tick fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

221
Q

CSD (cat scratch dz)

A

Bartonella henselae

222
Q

Pigeon fever

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

223
Q

Thrush (horses)

A

Fusobacterium spp

224
Q

True or false

Malassezia is the common yeast that causes otitis in dogs

A

True

225
Q

Give the genus and species of the most common cause of ringworm in dogs and cats.
What kind of organism is this?

A

Microsporum canis

Mold

226
Q

Give the name of the light source used as an initial screen for dermatophytosis.

A

Woods lamp

Mini CPE 1 (8 decks)

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