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Parasit Flashcards

0
Q

A parasite that must use in intermediate host to complete its lifecycle is considered to have a

A

Indirect life cycle

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1
Q

A parasite that has both sets of sex organs and both are functional is

A

Monecious

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2
Q

What will yield larvae in feces

A

Ovoviviparous

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3
Q

The damage a parasite is capable of producing to its host defines:

A

Pathology

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4
Q

When scanning a fecal we scan on ____ and ID on ___.

A

10X

40X

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5
Q

What techniques will you be able to identify Clostridium and/or Campylobacter

A

Fecal cytology

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6
Q

What term indicates that we will see parasite ova in our sample analysis

A

Oviparous

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7
Q

PSH is

A

The potential damage a parasite is capable of doing to the public

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8
Q

PPP is:

A

The time from the point of infection until a diagnostic stage can be recovered (ova, cysts, or larvae)

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9
Q

A dog eats a rabbit containing a larval stage of a tapeworm. The tapeworm has to go through the rabbit in order to reach adulthood. The rabbit is:

A

Intermediate host

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10
Q

Parasitosis is

A

A parasite is present in the host and is exhibiting outward signs of harm

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11
Q

Parasitiasis

A

A parasite is present on the host and is potentially pathogenic

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12
Q

Pathogenesis is

A

Damage a parasite is capable of producing to its host

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13
Q

How the parasite enters the host is

A

Route of infestation

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14
Q

The gross exam, direct smear and flotation are examples of

A

Qualitative testing

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15
Q

Morphology is

A

The study of shape

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16
Q

Flatworms belong in what Phylum?

A

Platyhelminthes

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17
Q

Flukes are also called

A

Trematodes

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18
Q

When looking at an unstained slide, what position must the condenser in?

A

Lower

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19
Q

What are three examples of a pseudoparasite

A

Pollen
debris
grass

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20
Q

What is the term describing a protrusion or an indentation on one or both ends of an oval egg?

A

Operculum

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21
Q

Name five factors that can cause variation in results

A 
Sex ratio 
Luck 
tech error 
age of sample 
amount of sample
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22
Q

Parasite that has more than one possible final host is considered

A

Plural

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23
Q

An animal that harbors a larval stage of a parasite and is necessary to complete the parasites lifecycle

A

Intermediate host

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24
Q

A parasite that is on and off the host during its lifecycle

A

Periodic

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25
Q

Parasite that has both male and female sex organs with both being functional

A

Monoecious

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26
Q

Parasite that attaches at a site within or upon the body in stays there

A

Stationary

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27
Q

An animals that harbors a parasite but is not necessary for lifecycle completion

A

Paratenic host

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28
Q

Establishment of a parasite within or upon a host

A

Infestation

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29
Q

A parasite that has only one set of sex organs

A

Dioecious

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30
Q

A parasite that can be free living or parasitic for part or all of its life

A

Facultative

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31
Q

An animal that harbors a parasite final (adult) stage

A

Final host

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32
Q

A parasite that cannot complete its lifecycle outside of a host

A

Obligate

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33
Q

A parasite that does not need the use of an intermediate host

A

Direct lifecycle

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34
Q

Fasciola hepatica is a

A

Liver fluke

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35
Q

Nanophyetus salmincola is a

A

Salmon poisoning fluke

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36
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti is a

A

Lung fluke

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37
Q

What is a gravid proglottid

A

A mature egg bearing segment

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38
Q

Which tapeworm is reportable to the CDC if detected?

A

Echinococcus spp

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39
Q

What is an individual segment of a tapeworm called

A

Proglottid

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40
Q

What is the intermediate host for the Dipylidium caninum

A

Flea

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41
Q

Which flute is the most economically important fluke in veterinary medicine?

A

Fasciola hepatica

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42
Q

According to the text, what is the name of the condition fasciola hepatica causes?

A

Blacks disease

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43
Q

Why is fasciola hepatica so important?

A

Hemorrhage during migration

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44
Q

What is the intermediate host for Anoplocephala spp. and Moniezia spp.?

A

Orbatid mite or grain mite

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45
Q

According to the text, if the intermediate host of a tapeworm is an arthropod, the L1 is called:

A

Cysticercoid

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46
Q

What technique is required for a fecal flotation solution such as ZnSo4:

A

Fecal flotation

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47
Q

Parasites in the Phylum platyhelminthes are all considered:

A

Flatworms

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48
Q

The advantages to a fecal cytology include

A

The ability to see Clostridium and Campylobacter

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49
Q

Tapeworms fall in the Class:

A

Cestoda

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50
Q

This site of infestation of Nanoyphyetus salmincola is the:

A

Small intestine

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51
Q

Second intermediate host for Paragonimus kellicotti is the

A

Crayfish

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52
Q

What is a diagnostic feature of fluke ova

A

Single operculated

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53
Q

What is a diagnostic feature of Taenia spp. ova?

A

Radial striations

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54
Q

What is a diagnostic feature of the Dipylidium caninum ova?

A

Egg baskets

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55
Q

Nanophyetus salmincola is:

A

HSP for dogs and cats

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56
Q

The final host for fasciola hepatica is:

A

Ruminants

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57
Q

All flukes require a _____ as an intermediate host

A

Snail

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58
Q

The head of an adult tapeworm is called the:

A

Scolex

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59
Q

Dipylidium caninum is:

A

HSP for dogs and cats

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60
Q

Echinococcus spp. produces a larval stage that is called

A

Hydatid cyst

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61
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti is commonly called:

A

Lung fluke

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62
Q

What is known as the cat rat tapeworm?

A

Taenia taeniaeformis

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63
Q

What is the motile larval stage of flukes that emerges from the ova?

A

Miracidium

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64
Q

Toxocara canis is in the class

A

Nematoda

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65
Q

The stain used on a fecal cytology is called

A

Diff quik

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66
Q

Praziquantel is known by the brand name

A

Droncit

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67
Q

What type of migration is commonly followed when a Nematoda is ingested by paratenic host

A

Somatic migration

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68
Q

Ovum morphology for Toxocara spp. includes:

A

Outer ropey appearance

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69
Q

Final host for fasciola hepatica is:

A

HSP for ruminants

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70
Q

An oval ovum with an inner ropey appearance found in a cattle fecal float is diagnostic for:

A

Toxascaris leonina

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71
Q

What type of migration involves the parasite migrating from the intestinal lumen into the mucosal layer then back to lumen

A

Mucosal migration

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72
Q

Which is the most complex for Nematoda migration involving migrating through the body to ultimately be coughed up and swallow

A

Tracheal migration

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73
Q

What is the pathonomonic sign in puppies resulting from roundworm infestation

A

Potbellies

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74
Q

What migration type is most often followed when the final host is an intact female

A

Somatic migration

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75
Q

Strongid

A

Pyrantel pamoate

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76
Q

Panacur

A

Fenbendazole

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77
Q

Cestex

A

Epsiprantel

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78
Q

Albenza

A

Albendazole

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79
Q

The ova of what parasite is oval with blastomeres

A

Hookworms

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80
Q

In large animal medicine, when you see an ovum that is TASE you report in the patient file

A

+ TASE

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81
Q

PHS for Ancylostoma braniliense includes

A

Cutaneous larval migrins

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82
Q

The route of infestation for most hookworms is generally

A

Skin penetration

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83
Q

The final host for Taenia multiceps is

A

HSS for dogs

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84
Q

An oval ovum with an inner ropey appearance found in a canine fecal float is diagnostic for

A

Toxascaris leonina

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85
Q

Dictyocaulus spp. fall into what category

A

Lungworms

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86
Q

What are we primarily looking for when we perform a direct smear

A

Giardia

Larva

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87
Q

What are we looking for on a fecal cytology

A

Clostridium

Campylobacter

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88
Q

The final hosts for the 2 species of Bunostomum are

A

Sheep

Cattle

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89
Q

Eqvalan

A

Ivermectin

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90
Q

Panacur

A

Fenbendazole

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91
Q

Droncit

A

Praziquantel

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92
Q

Telmintic

A

Mebendazole

93
Q

Nemex

A

Pyrantel pamoate

94
Q

Albenza

A

Albendazole

95
Q

A sign that can’t be mistaken for anything else defines

A

Pathognomonic

96
Q

Resistance that a host builds up to future infestations defines

A

Premunition

97
Q

What is the ova morphology for ruminant TASE and equine strongyles

A

Oval with blastomeres

98
Q

What is the purpose for doing a direct smear

A

To locate giardia and larvae

99
Q

Haemonchus contortus

A

Barber Pole Worm

100
Q

Oesophegostomum spp.

A

Nodular worm

101
Q

Osteragia spp.

A

Brown stomach worm

102
Q

Cooperia spp.

A

Cattle Bankrupt Worm

103
Q

Stephanurus dentatus

A

Kidney Worm of Swine

104
Q

Trichostongylus spp.

105
Q

Strongyloides westeri

A

Intestinal threadworm

106
Q

Strongylus vulgaris

A

Equine bloodworm

107
Q

Routine Fecal Exam: 3 tests

A 
Qualitative 
-Direct Smear 
-Flotation
Quantitative 
-Gross Exam
108
Q

Direct Smear Procedure

A

Obtain a fleck of feces
203 drops of PSS
Mix and remove large chunks
Add coverslip and scan

109
Q

Advantages of Direct Smear

A

Can find Giardia easier

Can see larvae

110
Q

Flotation Procedure

A 
Obtain pea sized amount of feces
Fill device with Fecasol
 -create meniscus
Place coverslip over device
Wait 10 minutes
Put coverslip onto slide and scan
111
Q

Gross Exam

A

Overall appearance

-ie. diarrhea, mucus, hair

112
Q

Scan on 10X

A

Exception –Giardia-40X

113
Q

ID on

114
Q

Course focus

A

To find field

115
Q

Fine focus

A

To focus on specific part of field

116
Q

Condensor

117
Q

Light

A

Adjust with iris diaphragm

Adjust with rheostat

118
Q

If nothing is seen on fecal report

119
Q

Fecal Result Alterations

A

Egg Production
Sex of parasite
Amount of feces
Diet of animal

120
Q

Pseudoparasites

A

Pollen
Feces
Hair
Air bubbles

121
Q

Obligate Host

A

Must live in or on a host to live

122
Q

Facultative Host

A

Parasite can be free living or obligate

123
Q

Final Host

A

An animal that harbors the adult stage of the parasite

124
Q

HSS

A

Only one animal can harbor the adult stage of the parasite

125
Q

HSP

A

More than one animal harbor the adult stage of the parasite

126
Q

Periodic Parasite

A

Parasite in in/on or off the host throughout it’s life cycle

127
Q

PPP

A

Pre-Patent Period

The time required for the parasite to become reproductively mature

128
Q

Stationary Parasite

A

Parasite attaches somewhere on the host and stays there

129
Q

Internal Parasite

A

Permanent parasite

130
Q

Indirect Life Cycles

A

Parasite needs at least one intermediate host

131
Q

PHS

A

Public Health Significance

Capable of transmitting to humans

132
Q

Monecious

A

Parasite with both sex organs and both are functional

133
Q

Coprophagic

A

Ingestion of feces

134
Q

Route of Infestation

A

How the parasite enters the host

135
Q

Operculated

A

One or both sides of ova will be protruding

136
Q

Giardia

A

Hardest to identify under a microscope

137
Q

Giardia: Cyst vs. Egg

A

Cysts are more fragile
Cysts are fluid filled
Eggs contain nuclei

138
Q

Giardia: Trophozoite

A

Kite shaped

Has 8 flagella

139
Q

Flatworms

A 
Platyhelmenthes
Trematoda 
Fasciola hepatica
Paragonimus kellicotti 
Nanophytes salmicola
140
Q

Trematoda

141
Q

Fasciola hepatica

A 
Yellow egg ike 
Single opperculated
"Liver Fluke"
Intermediate host--snail
Final host--ruminants
Site of infestation--bile duct
Pathogenesis--hemorrhage
PHS--rare
142
Q

Fasciola hepatica tx

A

Ivermectin

Albendazole

143
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti

A 
"Lung Fluke"
IH--snail, crayfish
FH--dogs and cats
SOI--lungs
Path--coughing, dyspnea
144
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti tx

A

Fenbendazole
Albendazole
Praziquantel

145
Q

Nanophytes salmicola

A 
"Salmon Poisoning Fluke"
IH--snail, salmon/trout
FH--dogs, cats, minks, raccoons
SOI--small intestines
Path--V/D
PHS-- rare
146
Q

Nanophytes salmicola tx

A

Praziquantel

147
Q

Tapeworms

A 
Platyhelmenthes
Cestoda (Cestodes)
Diplydium caninum
Taenia
Anoplocephala
Moniezia 
Echinococcus
148
Q

Diplydium caninium

A 
"Flea tapeworm"
Cucumber seed tapeworm
Egg basket 
IH--flea
FH--dogs and cats
SOI--small intestine
Path--weight loss, poor hair coat
149
Q

Diplydium caninium tx

A

Praziquantel

Espirantel

150
Q

Taenia

A

Round with radial striations

151
Q

Taenia pisiformis

A

IH–rabbits and hares
FH–dogs
Path–diarrhea

152
Q

Taenia hydatigena

A

IH–ruminants
FH–dogs, sometimes cats
Path–diarrhea

153
Q

Taenia hydatigena tx

A

Mebendazole
Fenbendazole
Praziquantel
Espirantel

154
Q

Taenia ovis

A

IH–sheep

FH–dogs and cats

155
Q

Taenia ovis tx

A

Mebendazole
Fenbendazole
Praziquantel
Espirantel

156
Q

Taenia taeniaformis

A

“Cat rat tapeworm”

157
Q

Taenia taeniaformis tx

A

Fenbendazole

Praziquantel

158
Q

Taenia multiceps

159
Q

Anoplocephala

A

D shaped hexacanth embryo
IH–orbatid mite
FH–horse

160
Q

Anoplocephala tx

A

Mebendazole

Fenbendazole

161
Q

Moniezia

A

Square or triangle hexacanth embryo
IH–orbatid mite
FH–sheep, cattle

162
Q

Moniezia tx

A

Fenbendaqole

Albendqzole

163
Q

Echinococcus

A

Humans

  • hydatid cysts
  • reportable dz
164
Q

Roundworms

A 
Nemahelmenthes 
Nematoda (Nematodes)
Ascarids
Dirofilaria immitis
Trichuris 
Toxocara
Toxascaris leonina
Oxyuris equi
Dioctyphema renale
Pearsonema
Ancylostoma
Ruminant TASE
Lungworms
165
Q

Dirofilaria immitis

A 
Long worm on blood film
Heartworm
Microfilaria--BAD
Adults
-ELISA ag test
 --test for female adult worms
166
Q

Trichuris

A

“Stewie”
Whipworm
PHS–can be seen in coprophagic children

167
Q

Toxocara

A

Outer ropey edge

Dark inside

168
Q

Toxocara canis

A 
FH--dog
Path--pot-belly appearance
PHS
-VLM -- Visceral Larval Migrans
-OLM -- Ocular Larval Migrans
169
Q

Toxocara canis tx

A

Ivermectin
Fenbendazole
Milbemycin
Pyrantel

170
Q

Toxocara cati

A 
FH--cat
Path--pot-belly appearance
PHS
-VLM
-OLM
171
Q

Toxocara cati tx

A

Milbenycin

Fenbendazole

172
Q

Toxocara vitulorum

A 
FH--ruminants 
Path--unthriftiness
PHS
-VLM
-OLM
173
Q

Toxocara vitularum

A

Fenbendazole

Milbemycin

174
Q

Toxascaris leonina

A 
"Arrowhead worm"
Inner ropey edge
FH--dogs and cats
Path--pot-belly appearance
PHS--VLM
175
Q

Toxascaris leonina tx

A

Milbemycin

Fenbendazole

176
Q

Oxyuris equi

A 
"Horse Pinworm"
Oval shaped
Scotch tape prep
FH--horse
SOI--cecum
Path--"rat tail"
177
Q

Oxyuris equi tx

A

Fenbendazole
Moxidectin
Ivermetcin

178
Q

Dioctyphema renale

A 
"Giant Kidney Worm"
IH--annelid worm
FH--minks, weasels, canids
Path--destruction of kidney
PHS
-DO NOT EAT RAW CRAYFISH
-Human susceptible
179
Q

Dioctyphema renale tx

A

surgical removal

180
Q

Pearsonema

A 
Seen in U/A
Looks like a "bubbly Stewie"
plica--dogs
felis cati--cats
"Bladder worm"
SOI--urinary bladder 
Ivermectin
181
Q

Ancylostoma

A 
Hookworms
-dogs and cats
-cold weather hookworm--dogs only
PHS-- CLM
Ivermectin
182
Q

Ruminant TASE

A

Hookworms
-but report out TASE
-Ivermectin tx
Typical Appearing Strongyle Egg

183
Q

Haemonchus

A

“Barber Pole Worm”
“Bottle Jaw”
ruminants

184
Q

Ostertagia

A

Brown stomach worm
“Morrocco Leather”
Cattle

185
Q

Cooperia

A

“Cattle Bankrupt Worm”
Diarrhea
Cattle, sheep, goats

186
Q

Trichostrongylus

A

“Black scour worm”
“Hair worm”
Blood scours
Cattle, sheep

187
Q

Lungworms

A

Aleurostrongylus

188
Q

Aleurostrogylus

A

“Cat lungworm”
IH–snails, slugs
FH–cats
Ivermectin

189
Q

Protozoans

A 
Giardia 
Coccidia 
Isospera
Eimeria
Toxoplasma
190
Q

Giardia

A

Trophs–kites
Cysts–small
Metronidazole–Flagyl
PHS–zoonotic

191
Q

Coccidia

192
Q

Isospera

193
Q

Eimeria

A

4 spores

sensitive to Sulfa drugs

194
Q

Toxoplasma

A

Domestic cats

PHS– can damage human fetus

195
Q

Ticks

A 
Dermacentor variabilis
Dermacentor andersoni
Ixodes
Otodectes
Cheyletiella
196
Q

Dermecentor variablilis

A

“American dog tick”
FH–dogs, horses, cattle
Skin
PHS–can infest humans

197
Q

Dermecentor andersoni

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Tick
Wood tick
FH–horses, cattle, sheep
PHS–can infest humans

198
Q

Ixodes

A

Lone star tick
FH–ruminants, dogs, cats, humans
PHS–humans can get Lyme dz

199
Q

Otodectes

A

Ear mite

FH–cat and dogs

200
Q

Cheyletiella

A

Walking Dandruff
FH–dogs, cats, rabbits
PHS–humans can get it
Mitaban dip

201
Q

Fleas

A

Ctenocephalites

202
Q

Ctenocephalites

A

FH–Everyone
Bubonic Plague
PHS–humans can get it

203
Q

Mites

A

Demodex
Sarcoptes scabei
Knemidokoptes

204
Q

Demodex

A

canis–dog
felis–cats
demodectic mange
-deep skin scrape

205
Q

Sarcoptes scabei

A

Sarcoptic Mange
Mitaban Dip
Zoonotic

206
Q

Knemidokoptes

A

Scaley Leg Mite
Mange
Ivermectin

207
Q

Flies

208
Q

Cuterebra

A

Rabbit Bot Fly
FH– cats, dogs, rabbits, rodents
PHS–dermal and nasal infection

209
Q

Blood Parasites

A

Anaplasma marginale
Mycoplasma haemofelis
Morbillivirus

210
Q

Anaplasma marginale

A

Large animals
Dots on RBCs
-can be stained in NMB

211
Q

Mycoplasma haemofelis

A

Cat

Many uniform dots on RBCs

212
Q

Morbilivirus

A

Dog
Distemper virus
WBC parasite

213
Q

True or false

Demodex is a burrowing mite and is diagnosed with a scotch tape prep

A

False

Deep skin scrape

214
Q

True or false

ELISA heartworm tests detect microfilaria antigens

A

False

Adult females

215
Q

True or false

Otodectes is the genus name of the common ear mite

216
Q

Trichuris vulpis

217
Q

Ancylostoma caninum

218
Q

Toxocara canis

A

Canine roundworm

219
Q

Dirofilaria immitus

220
Q

Dipylidium caninum

A

Flea tapeworm

221
Q

Isospera/Eimeria

Family name

A

Coccidians

222
Q

Strongylus vulgaris

A

Equine bloodworm

223
Q

Oxyuris equi

A

Horse pinworm

224
Q

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

A

Brown dog tick

225
Q

Cuterebra

A

Rabbit bot

226
Q

True or false

Sarcoptes mites cause walking dandruff

227
Q

True or false

Fleas are the intermediate host for Taenia

228
Q

True or false

The Ixodes tick is the vector that transmits Lyme dz

229
Q

Pregnant women should not clean kitty litter boxes because of possible transmission of what parasite?

A

Toxoplasmosis

Toxoplasma gondii

230
Q

VLM in people is caused by

A

Roundworms

231
Q

CLM in people is caused by

Mini CPE 1 (8 decks)

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