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Vascular > Vascular Entrance Exam 2 > Flashcards

Vascular Entrance Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The name of the Denali program offered by BD to track patients for future retrievals is

A

Reach

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2
Q

What is the gold standard for DVT treatment?

A

Anticoagulation

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3
Q

What are Denali filters contraindications?

A

a. Septic patients
b. Pregnant patient when Xray is harmful (early gestation)
c. Patients with unknown sensitivity to nickel-titanium alloys
d. Patients with an IVC larger than 28mm

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4
Q

How do we recommend deploying the Denali?

A

Pin and Pull; pin handle and pull Tuohy in one motion

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5
Q

Ultra non-compliant balloons have a growth rate of?

A

1% or less

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6
Q

The Geoalign Marker system offers what % reduction in flouro time?

A

27%

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7
Q

Compare Conquest to Conquest 40?

A

Conquest 40 has a tapered tip and higher atms, conquest 40 offers different sizes

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8
Q

Which balloon is ultra-non-compliant and has checker flex points?

A

Dorado, checkerflex points increase flexibility in tortuous anatomy.

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9
Q

What is successful PTA characterized by?

A

a. Less than 30% residual stenosis
b. Fully effaced balloon
c. Thrill is restored
d. Patient can resume success dialysis

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10
Q

What catheter designs do our balloons offer?

A

a. Coaxial (dual lumen) for push-ability
b. Triaxial (triple lumen) trackability

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11
Q

What is Barotrauma?

A

Over dilation of a balloon causing damage to healthy
Tissue

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12
Q

What is the difference between Atlas and Atlas Gold:

A

Atlas Gold has shorter 21mm shoulders which minimizes vessel straightening and barotrauma (Atlas has 37mm shoulders)
b. Atlas Gold has enhanced tapered tip improving trackability

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13
Q

Does a 12mm conquest and a 12mm Atlas require a 8Fr sheath?

A

No, a 12mm Atlas can go through a 7Fr sheath. (and the 14mm Atlas does as well)

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14
Q

T/F: Glidewires should be twice the length of the device in use?

A

True

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15
Q

The most common cause of stenosis is?

A

intimal hyerplasia

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16
Q

What is Intimal hyperplasia?

A

Scar tissue forming in the lumen of the vessel due to trauma, increased flow (turbulent).

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17
Q

How many anastomoses does AV grafts have?

A

2; venous and arterial

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18
Q

How many anastomoses do AV fistula’s have?

A

1; arterial. AVF’s have a juxta anastomosis which is located 1-2cm before the arterial anastomosis.

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19
Q

Lutonix .035 (geoalign) diameters

A

4-12

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20
Q

AV Lutonix .035 (geoalign) shaft sizes

A

40, 75, 100cm

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21
Q

Lutonix .035 (geoalign) balloon sizes

A

40-100

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22
Q

Conquest diameters

A

5-12

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23
Q

Conquest Shaft sizes

A

50, 75, 120

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24
Q

Conquest balloon sizes

A

20, 40, 80

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25
Q

Conquest 40 diameters

A

4-12

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26
Q

Conquest 40 shaft sizes

A

50, 75

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27
Q

Conquest 40 Balloon sizes

A

20-100

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28
Q

Vaccess: OBL diameters

A

4-12

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29
Q

Vaccess shaft lengths

A

50 & 75

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30
Q

Vaccess Balloon lengths

A

20, 40, 80

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31
Q

Atlas diameters

A

12-26

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32
Q

Atlas shaft lengths

A

75, 120

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33
Q

Atlas balloon lengths

A

20-60

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34
Q

Atlas Gold diameter

A

12-26

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35
Q

Atlas Gold shaft lengths

A

80, 120

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36
Q

Atlas Gold balloon lengths

A

20- 60

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37
Q

Ultraverse 035: (checkerflex, geoalign) diameter

A

3-12

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38
Q

Ultraverse 035: (checkerflex, geoalign) shaft lengths

A

75, 130

39
Q

Ultraverse 035: (checkerflex, geoalign) balloon lengths

A

20-300

40
Q

Dorado: (checkflex, hybrid cath) diameter

A

3-10

41
Q

Dorado: (checkflex, hybrid cath) shaft lengths

A

40, 80, 120, 135

42
Q

Dorado: (checkflex, hybrid cath) balloon lengths

A

20-200

43
Q

Covera and Fluency are impregnated with?

A

Carbon, to decrease platelet accumilation

44
Q

What do flared stents offer the MD?

A

Faster wall apposition and decreased migration

45
Q

How many deployment options does Eluminexx offer?

A

4 (trigger, slide, trigger and slide, and pin/pull)

46
Q

T/F: Eluminexx and Lifestar are based on the same stent platform?

A

True

47
Q

What are the indications for Fluency?

A

a. In-stent restenosis AVF and AVG
b. Re-stenosis AVG

48
Q

Describe a Fluency?

A

Eluminexx wrapped in PTFE, uncovered ends (2mm bare)

49
Q

Decribe a Covera?

A

Lifestent wrapped in 2 layers of PTFE, helical design for radial strength and flexibility.

50
Q

What are the indications for Covera?

A

a. AVG venous anastomosis
b. Cephalic Arch
c. AVF stenosis

51
Q

What are the indications for Lifestar and Eluminexx?

A

Essentially the same stent with different delivery systems. Iliac occlusive disease, Iliac arteries, and Biliary malignant stenosis.

52
Q

Vascular Eluminexx and Lifestar diameter

A

7-10

53
Q

Vascular Eluminexx and Lifestar shaft lengths

A

80, 135

54
Q

Vascular Eluminexx and Lifestar balloon lengths

A

20-100

55
Q

Biliary Eluminexx diameters

A

4-14

56
Q

Biliary Lifestar diameters

A

6-14

57
Q

Biliary Eluminexx and Lifestar balloon lengths

A

20-120

58
Q

Covera diameters

A

6-10

59
Q

Covera shaft length

A

80, 120

60
Q

Covera balloon lengths

A

30-100 (flared doesn’t have 30)

61
Q

Fluency diameters

A

6-13.5

62
Q

Fluency shaft lengths

A

80, 117

63
Q

Fluency balloon lengths

A

40-120

64
Q

The GlidePath Family dialysis catheter offers what 3 Fr sizes?

A

14.5Fr, 10Fr & 7.5Fr

65
Q

Pristine’s clinical study shows 100% patency through _______ Days?

A

60

66
Q

What French size is Pristine?

A

15.5

67
Q

The Airguard valve introducer minimizes air leakage to?

A

.15cc/sec

68
Q

What are the common causes of catheter disfunction?

A

a. Patient position
b. Kinking
c. Fibrin sheath
d. Thrombus

69
Q

Glidepath XK comes in both 14.5 and 16F?

A

no, XK is 16Fr only

70
Q

What are the advantages of the Glidepath?

A

Tapered cuff optimized inner lumen, and single pre-loaded stylet.

71
Q

What is the recirculation rate of the Glidepath?

A

1%

72
Q

The optimized inner lumen on the Glidepath provides?

A

16% lower pressures and 15% higher flows compared to Palindrome.

73
Q

What are the 5 catheter tip styles?

A

Separate, step, split, symmetrical and Y tip.

74
Q

II means?

A

Image Intensifier, where the x-rays are collected after passing through a patient

75
Q

K-DOQI guidelines recommend?

A
  • Recirculation rates less than 2%
  • kT/V of 1.2 or greater
  • Blood flow rate (BFR) of 300ml/min or greater
76
Q

What are the two primary arteries used for AVF creations?

A

Radial and Brachial

77
Q

What are your central veins?

A
  • Brachiocephalic
  • Subclavian
  • SVC
78
Q

What are advantage of native fistulas?

A

a. Durability
b. Permanent
c. Decreased infection rates and complications
d. High blood flows

79
Q

T/F: Xray’s and gamma rays are classified as ionizing radiation?

A

True

80
Q

ALARA?

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

81
Q

T/F: Imaging units can be classified as fixed or mobile c-arms?

A

True

82
Q

What are the 3 keys to radiation safety?

A

Time, Distance, and Shielding

83
Q

Lead protective aprons and barriers can reduce radiation exposure by?

A

95%

84
Q

A patient with stage 5 ESKD is classified to have a GFR of?

A

15ml/min

85
Q

Anastomosis?

A

A surgical connection between a vein and an artery

86
Q

Aneurysm?

A

Excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by weakening of the wall

87
Q

Distal?

A

Away from midline

88
Q

Proximal?

A

Closer to midline

89
Q

A blood clot on the move?

A

Embolus

90
Q

A blood clot?

A

Thrombus

91
Q

Symmetric tip catheters:

A

GlidePath

92
Q

Step Tip catheters include:

A
  • Reliance XK
  • Hemostar
  • Hickman
  • Soft-cell
93
Q

Split Tip catheters include:

A
  • Decathlon DF
  • Equistream
  • Equistream XK
  • Hemosplit
  • Hemosplit XK
94
Q

Y-tip catheters include

A

Pristine

Vascular (24 decks)

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