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Vascular > ShowPad Study > Flashcards

ShowPad Study Flashcards

1
Q

A patient with Stage 5 ESKD is classified to have a GFR measurement of?

A

15 ml/min

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2
Q

What are key contributing factors that cause ESKD? (please select all that apply)

A

A) Obesity
B) Smoking
C) genetics
D) diabetes

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3
Q

Peritoneal Dialysis Can be done at home by Cleansing fluid (dialysate) flows through catheter into abdomen stays 4 - 6 hrs?

A

True

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4
Q

Which of the following are initiatives recommended by K-DOQI in the treatment of dialysis patients?

A

Recirculation of less than 2%

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5
Q

What are two primary arteries used for surgical AV access creations?

A

A) Radial
C) Brachial

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6
Q

What Veins does your central veins consist of?

A

A) Brachiocephalic
B) Subclavian
C) Superior vena cava (SVC)

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7
Q

Select all the advantages of a native AV Fistula?

A

A) Durable
B) Permanent
C) High blood flows
D) Fewer infections & Complications

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8
Q

The GlidePath Family dialysis catheter offers what 4 Fr sizes?

A

14.5Fr, 13Fr, 10Fr & 7.5Fr

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9
Q

Pristine’s clinical study shows 100% patency through _______ Days?

A

60

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10
Q

What is the FR size of the Pristine dialysis catheter?

A

15.5

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11
Q

AirGuard Valve introducer biggest benefit is that it minimizes air leakage to ______ CC/sec?

A

0.15 cc/sec

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12
Q

What are common causes of catheter dysfunction

A

A) Patient positioning
B) Kinking
C) Thrombus
D) Fibrin Sheath

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13
Q

The most ideal anatomic position for the tip placement of the Glidepath dialysis catheter, wich would offer the lowest complication rate is:

A

Right Atrium

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14
Q

The Glidepath Dialysis catheter comes in both a 14.5 and 16 fr XK version

A

False

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15
Q

Which of the following statements are advantage of the Glidepath Catheter?

A

A) Single Pre-Loaded stylet
B) Tapered Cuff
C) Optimized inner Lumen

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16
Q

GlidePath Dialysis Cather offers a recirculation rate of _______ %

A

1

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17
Q

The optimized inner lumen design in Glidepath resulted in ________% lower pressures when compared to palindrome

A

16

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18
Q

The optimized inner lumen design in GlidePath Resulted in ______% higher flows when compared to Palindrome

A

15

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19
Q

Covera and Fluency are __________ Impregnated to decrease platelet accumulation

A

Carbon

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20
Q

What does the Flared ends offer the MD during stent deployment: (select all that apply)

A

A) Faster Wall Apposition
B) Migration Resistance

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21
Q

The E-Luminexx Stent Systems have the following total catheter lengths?

A

111cm, 166cm

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22
Q

E-Luminexx & LifeStar Vascular Stent Systems are available 7-10 mm diameters and 20 – 100 mm lengths

A

True

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23
Q

The E-Luminexx Stent Systems offers an operator how many deployment options

A

4

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24
Q

E-Luminexx™ and LifeStar™ are based on the same stent platform:

A

True

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25
Q

What Covered Stents does BD offer (select all that apply) :

A

A) Covera
B) Fluency

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26
Q

Stenosis is the most common cause of vascular access failure and treatment, including frequent reinterventions, and is associated with an additional cost burden

A

True

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27
Q

Bare Metal Stents have superior clinical date and patentcy rates over covered stents

A

False

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28
Q

The indications for the Fluency Plus Stent Graft

A

In-stent restenosis in the venous outflow of hemodialysis patients dialyzing by either an arteriovenous (AV) fistula or AV graft and for the treatment of stenosis in the venous outflow of hemodialysis patients dialyzing by an AV graft.

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29
Q

X-rays and gamma rays are classified as ionizing radiation.

A

True

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30
Q

Radiation is found in:
(Choose all that apply)

A

A) Operating Room
B) Standalone Access Center
C) Cardiac Cath Lab
D) Interventional Radiology

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31
Q

Hospitals are required to clearly identify restricted areas where radiation is being used.

A

True

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32
Q

ALARA stands for:

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

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33
Q

The image intensifier is where the x-rays are collected after they pass through the patient.

A

True

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34
Q

Imaging systems can be classified into two general categories:

A

Fixed system and Mobile C-arm

35
Q

The three primary keys to radiation safety include:
(Choose three)

A

A) Time
B) Distance
D) Shielding

36
Q

Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) includes:
(Choose all that apply)

A

A) Leaded eye glasses
B) Thyroid shield
C) Mobile lead barrier
D) Lead apron

37
Q

Leaded protective aprons and barriers can reduce radiation exposure by as much as 95%

A

True

38
Q

A radiation monitor’s sole purpose is to:

A

Record the cumulative amount of radiation you’re exposed to

39
Q

What is the optimal post-stent diameter of the Common Iliac Vein (CIV)?

A

16-18mm

40
Q

What is the optimal post-stent area of the External Iliac Vein (EIV)?

A

150mm^2

41
Q

True or False: Veins are more elastic but less compliant than arteries.

A

False

42
Q

At what time point is a clot considered “acute”?

A

<14 days old

43
Q

True or False: May-Thurner Syndrome (MTS) is the compression of the left iliac vein between the right iliac artery and the lumbar spine.

A

True

44
Q

Based on the 2020 update of the CEAP (Clinical-Etiology-Anatomy-Pathophysiology) classification system, choose the correct definition of the C3 score:

A

Edema

45
Q

The Venovo™ Venous Stent System IFU recommends oversizing by how much?

A

1 – 3 mm

46
Q

True or False: Venography is used for both diagnostic and intraprocedural imaging.

A

True

47
Q

Which of the following is a negative aspect of venography?

A

High radiation

48
Q

Which of the following is a positive aspect of IVUS?

A
  • Ability to measure diameters and areas
  • Accuracy identifying lesion location
  • No radiation
  • Reduces need for contrast
49
Q

True or False: In the VIDIO Trial, IVUS identified 81% stenotic lesions while venography only identified 51% stenotic lesions.

A

True

50
Q

The Aspirex offers advanced aspiration through:

A

Strong aspiration created at the catheter tip, and wall-apposed side window(s)

51
Q

While the Rotarex utilizes a beveled rotating tip in the peripheral arterial system, the Aspirex utilizes a ________ catheter tip in the peripheral venous system.

A

Rounded, non-rotating

52
Q

The DVT Thrombectomy market consists of three key competitors: Boston Scientific AngioJet, Penumbra Indigo, and Inari ClotTriever. What are their respective modes of operation?

A

Rheolytic, Aspiration, Retrieval

53
Q

The Aspirex Thrombectomy System is indicated for removal of ________ emboli and thrombi from vessels in the peripheral venous system.

A

acute

54
Q

The Aspirex Thrombectomy System is available in what catheter French sizes?

A

6F, 8F, 10F

55
Q

Ultra non-compliant balloons have a growth factor of _____% or less

A

1

56
Q

What PTA Balloon is our Large Diameter PTA balloon? (Select all that applys)

A

A) Atlas Gold
B) Atlas

57
Q

Conquest 40 offers a rated Burst up to how many ATM’s?

A

40

58
Q

The GeoAlign® Marker System offers a _____ % reduction in fluoroscopy time.

A

27

59
Q

What are two major improvements that were made to Conquest® 40 as compared to the original Conquest? (Select all that apply)

A

A) Tapered tip
B) Higher ATM ratings

60
Q

Which PTA balloon offers an ultra non-compliant balloon with Checker Flex Points, 3-10 mm and 40, 80, 120, 135 catheter lengths?

A

Dorado

61
Q

What are some key benefits to the Presto 40 inflation? (Select all that apply)

A

A) Pressure rating up to 40 atm
B) Larger 30cc barrell
C) Ergonomic handle
D) Fills up to 24x40 Atlas Gold Catheter

62
Q

Succesfful PTA treatment is characterized by (Select all that apply)

A

A) No significant residual stenosis (>30%)
B) The waist of the balloon is effaced
C) Thrill is restored in the access site
D) Patient is able to resume dialysis

63
Q

Balloons come in what catheter designs? (Select all that apply)

A

A) Coaxial
B) Dual Lumen
C) Triple Lumen

64
Q

What is Barotrauma?

A

Over dilation of a balloon causing damage to healthy tissue

65
Q

Per the VERNACULAR trial, the Venovo stent had a 100% deployment accuracy.

A

True

66
Q

An open cell venous stent design, like Venovo, allows for the stent to be ________ flexible than a closed cell design

A

more

67
Q

All of the following are true statements about Venovo except for which one?

A

closed cell design

68
Q

What is the longest length the Venovo stent comes in?

A

160 mm

69
Q

Venovo is indicated for the common iliac arteries. True or False

A

False

70
Q

Venovo has ______ mm flared ends to help with migration resistance?

A

3

71
Q

Where is the a Stent Graft placed between in the TIPS procedure

A

Between the Portal Vein and Hepatic Vein

72
Q

What is Cirrhosis

A
  • Cirrhosis is a condition in which the liver is fibrotic and permanently damaged
  • Scar tissue replaces healthy liver tissue and prevents proper liver function and metabolism
  • The liver shrinks and becomes hard
73
Q

What is Portal Hypertension?

A

Portal hypertension is an increase in the pressure within the portal vein

74
Q

What is the Second Line of treatment

A

TIPS

75
Q

A big Selling point of the BD Liverty is

A

Steerable Cannula

76
Q

Select the significant design differences of Denali vs. previous generations of Bard IVC filters

A

A) One Piece of laser cut nitinol
B) Conical Design, Dual Level Filtraion
C) Robust hook and Smooth neck design
D) Staggered leg lenghts

77
Q

Where does stenosis occur in Radiocephalic?

A

junxa- anastomosis

78
Q

Where does stenosis occur in the Brachial-cephalic

A

cephalic arch

79
Q

Where does stenosis occur in the Brachial-basilic

A

swing point

80
Q

Where does stenosis occur in the Graft

A

venous anastomosis

81
Q

What are the main fistula creations

A

Radio-cephalic
Brachial-cephalic
Transposed- brachial-basillic

82
Q

What is the main surgical veins in the arm for the fistula

A

Bascillic
Cephalic forearm
Cephallic

83
Q

The venovo deployment system comes in __, ___, __ fr sizes.

A

8, 9, 10 Fr

Vascular (24 decks)

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