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LAM 2 scs RUSVM > Van Amstel: Respiratory and dairy > Flashcards

Van Amstel: Respiratory and dairy Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Open-mouth breathing can be normal if the environmental temperature is >104F.

A

True

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2
Q

What is the term for using your 5 senses to examine a patient?

A

Organoleptic examination

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3
Q

What are the 3 general causes for inspiratory dyspnea?

A

Upper airway obstriciton

Diaphragm dysfunction

Decreased functional lung surface (Pnemonia, atelectasis)

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4
Q

What form of dyspnea is associated with a broken wind or heave line?

A

Expiratory

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5
Q

What are the general causes of expiratory dyspnea?

A

Emphysema AIP

Painful chest lesion (pleuritis)

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6
Q

Which form of dyspnea is associated with costal breathing?

A

Inspiratory

Expiratory = abominal

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7
Q

A cow presents with stridor and a barrel chest posture. What type of dyspnea is this?

A

Inspiratory

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8
Q

You notice a cow who is cheek blowing. Which of these is not on your list of DDx?

a. Interstitial pneumonia
b. Upper airway obstriction
c. Pleuritis

A

b. Upper airway obstriction

Cheek blowing = expiratory dyspnea

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9
Q

What are some causes of SQ emphysema?

A

Necrotizing myosisits (C. septicum)

Snake bite

Puncture wound(s)

Calving

Iatrogenic

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10
Q

What pathology do respiatory “squeeking” noises indicate?

A

Pneumona

Aka Dry rales

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11
Q

With which patholgoy are wheezes associated with?

A

Narrowing of the bronchial tree due to AIP/COPD

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12
Q

Which of the following is not associated with an abscence of lung sounds?

a. Consolidated pneumonia lesion
b. Severe pulmonary edema
c. AIP
d. Emphysematous bullae

A

c. AIP

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13
Q

On thoracic ultrasound you see a thin hyperechoic line that moves with respiration. What is this?

A

Visceral pleura

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14
Q

What finding on ultrasound indicates small area of interstitial fibrosis or edema?

A

Comet-trails / B-lines

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15
Q

What do A-lines on thoracic ultrsound indicate?

A

Pneumothorax

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16
Q

A(n) _______ pattern occurs when air in alveoli is replaced by fluid, cells, or not replaced at all (atelectasis).

A

Alveolar

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17
Q

You suspect heat stress in a male llama. Where do you look for which pathology to support this diagnosis?

A

Scrotum for edema

Also laryneal edema

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18
Q

What do crackles on auscultation indicate?

A

Alveolar edema

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19
Q

What is the hertiable condition that causes nasal obstruction in camelids?

A

Choanal atresia

Also wry nose (but not specific to camelids)

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20
Q

What is the chronic form of allergic rhinitis?

A

Enzootic nasal granuloma

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21
Q

What is the mode of action of sodium iodide (NaI) and what is it used to treat?

A

Mucolytic, antifungal, that activates pulmonary macrophages

Mycotic nasal granuloma, Allergic rhinitis

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22
Q

What does the Jaagsiekte virus cause and in what species?

A

Adenocarcinoma formation leading to inspiratory dyspnea

Sheep

Retrovirus”

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23
Q

What is the causative agent for “Bull nose”?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

(Necrotic rhinitis)

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24
Q

Which subtype of IBR causes respiratory disease?

A

BHV 1.1

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25
Q

Which antibiotics can you use in veal for necrotic stomatitis?

A

Ampicillin

Oxytetracyline (200-300)

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26
Q

Why does hypophosphatemia predispose an animal to foreign bodies?

A

Causes pica

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27
Q

Where do you insert a needle to remove air in case of a pneumothorax?

A

High in the 7th or 8th ICS

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28
Q

An BRD infection follows when exposure to stressors results in selective colonization of the URT by which agent?

A

M.annheimia haemolytica

(serotype I)

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29
Q

What are the anatomical risk factors that predispose a cow to BRD?

A

Small lung volume

Complete lobular separation

Low number of interalveolar pores (poor collateral ventilation)

Right apical bronchus (predisposes to gravitational pooling of secretions)

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30
Q

What is the main defense against infection in the lung?

A

Pulmonary macrophages

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31
Q

Which virulence factor of M. haemolytica is the initiating factor of disease, produces trans=membrane pores, and is chemotactic to especially neutrophils?

A

Leukotoxin

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32
Q

What cytokines does leukotoxin cause the expression of?

A

TNF

IL-1

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33
Q

Which of these does not describe the best antibiotic for BRD?

a. Highly lipophilic
b. Large volume of distribution
c. Extracellular
d. Long half-life

A

c. Extracellular

Correct= INTRAcellular

34
Q

What are the boundaries for IM injections in cattle?

A

Spine

Ligament of the neck

Spine of scapula

35
Q

In feedlot cattle should be vaccinated twice at a 2-4 week interval with ______________ extract vaccine to protect against BRD by stimulating _________antibodies.

A

M. haemolytica leukotoxin

Anti-leukotoxin

36
Q

What does vaccinating a pregnant cow with a live BRD cause?

A

Persistently infected calves

37
Q

If the prior vaccination history of a cow is not know, what protocol should you use to vaccinate against BRD?

A

Intranasal vaccine followed by IM/SQ vaccine

38
Q

Intranasal vaccination against BRD causes the formation of ____ within 24 hours and later produces a local immunity with Ig__.

A

IFN

A

39
Q

T/F: Calves sick with BRD should be vaccinated unless they are febrile.

A

False, even if they have fever they can benefit from vaccination

40
Q

Which virus has a profound effect on the mucosal lining of the trachea?

A

IBR (BHV-1.1)

41
Q

Which virus cases primary pneumonia?

A

BRSV

42
Q

What 2 toxins are associated with M .haemolytica type 1?

A

Leukotoxin

Endotoxin

43
Q

Apart from blocking opsonization what other major effect (or effects) does leukotoxin have in the pathogenesis of pneumonic pasteurellosis?

A

Produces trans-membrane pores (Na and K moves into cells -> hypertonicity -> rupture)

Induces expression of TNF and IL-1 (Chemotactic to leukocytes, esp neutrophils)

44
Q

Apart from paralysis of the diaphragm, reduction in functional lung volume what other lesion (or group of lesions) will cause an inspiratory dyspnea?

A

Upper airway obstruction

45
Q

Cardiac tamponade is characterized by distended jugular veins and what other sign pertaining to the jugular?

A

Weak to absent jugular pulse

46
Q

The most effective way of reducing blood potassium is to use insulin and ______.

A

Glucose

47
Q

With hypocalcemia the heart is rapid and _____.

A

Weak

48
Q

On observation what is the presenting sign in high altitude disease?

A

Brisket edema

49
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiac defect in cattle?

A

VSD

50
Q

•How does BST increase milk production?

A

By increasing DMI (dry matter intake) and transfering nutrients to the udder

51
Q

What is the maximum total bacterial count allowed for Grade A milk?

A

100,000/mL

52
Q

What antibiotic is illegal for use in lactating dairy cows?

A

Enrofloxacin

Fluoroquinolones

53
Q

What is the maximum SSC for Grade B dairy milk?

A

750,000/mL

Same for Grade A and B

54
Q

•How long is the normal dry period?

A

60 days

(6-8 weeks)

55
Q

How long is normal lactation?

A

305 days

56
Q

What can result from having to high of a percentage of long fiber in the diet?

A

Selection leading to rumen acidosis

57
Q

What is the main pathological process visible in this slide?

A

Lung consolidation

58
Q

Name the lung condition associated with lush pasture in cattle.

A

AIP

Fog fever, ARDS, Bovine asthma

59
Q

Apart from pulmonary adenocarcinoma in sheep and CAE in goats what other condition in sheep is caused by a retrovirus?

A

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP)

60
Q

Why are cattle predisposed to emphysematous bullae?

A

Lower number of interalveolar pores

Poor collateral ventilation

61
Q

Which of the following statements is True

  1. A “Broken wind line” is typically associated with inspiratory dyspnea
  2. The mediastinum in a bovine is incomplete
  3. Subcutaneous emphysema may be associated with mediastinal rupture
  4. Paralysis of the diaphragm is typically associated with an expiratory dyspnea
  5. Harsh lung sounds are diagnostic for lung emphysema
A
  1. Subcutaneous emphysema may be associated with mediastinal rupture
62
Q

Which of these is least diagnostic for lung disease

a. Harsh
b. Wheezes
c. Squeaks
d. Absence of lung sounds

A

a. Harsh

63
Q

Which of the following is False

a. Influx of neutrophils under the influence of cytokines aggravate the pathologic changes in the lung
b. Antibiotic treatment should continue for at least 5 days using the same antibiotic irrespective of the clinical response
c. White and red hepatization denoting different stages in the lung pathology associated with pneumonic pateurellosis is a characteristic finding
d. Opsonization facilitates phagocytosis by pulmonary macrophages
e. Tulathromycin is a lipid soluble broad spectrum bacteriostatic antibiotic

A

b. Antibiotic treatment should continue for at least 5 days using the same antibiotic irrespective of the clinical response

64
Q

The most common cause of bovine pneumonic pasteurellosis is which one of the following:

a. Mannheimia haemolytica type 1
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Histophilus somni
d. Mycoplasma bovis
e. Chlamydia spp.

A

a. Mannheimia haemolytica type 1

65
Q

Which of the following is false

a. Exposure to stressors results in explosive selective colonization of M. haemolytica in upper respiratory tract
b. BRD spreads via droplet inhalation from clinical cases and recovered animal
c. The highest incidence of BRD occurs within the first 45 days following introduction into a herd
d. Penicillin is an effective treatment for calves with enzootic pneumonia from which Mycoplasma was isolated
e. Seroconversion to BRSV is a consistent finding in the first 30 days after introduction into a feed lot

A

d. Penicillin is an effective treatment for calves with enzootic pneumonia from which Mycoplasma was isolated

Penicillin works on the cell wall, Mycoplasma does not have a cell wall

66
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the predisposition of cattle to lung disease is False

a. Presence of a right apical bronchus predisposes to gravitational pooling of secretions
b. The presence of a large number of interalveolar pores facilitates spread of bacteria in the lung
c. The relatively small lung volume in cattle necessitates increased air flow and potential for exposure to micro-organisms
d. Pulmonary macrophages present the main defense in the lung
e. Tumor necrosis factor is very chemotactic for neutrophils

A

b. The presence of a large number of interalveolar pores facilitates spread of bacteria in the lung

67
Q

Which of the following does not have a direct effect (positive or negative) on mucociliary clearance

a. Dust
b. IBR
c. Sodium iodide (NaI)
d. Dehydration
e. Respiration rate of 20-40

A

e. Respiration rate of 20-40

Normal RR

68
Q

You are presented with a 600 pound steer with both an inspiratory as well as an expiratory dyspnea, intermittent open mouth breathing, a purulent nasal discharge and rumen atony. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate:

a. Place the animal in the sick pen and treat it with enrofloxacin for 5 days
b. Place the animal in the sick pen and treat it with tulathromycin and banamine for 2 days
c. Euthanize the animal and do a diagnostic necropsy
d. Euthanize the animal because of a poor prognosis, do a diagnostic necropsy, and give lecture on early identification of pneumonia to farm staff
e. Treat with a broad spectrum antibiotic and anti-inflammatory, tell the owner that the animal is likely to make a full recovery but give a talk on early identification of respiratory disease

A

d. Euthanize the animal because of a poor prognosis, do a diagnostic necropsy, and give lecture on early identification of pneumonia to farm staff

CS point to pneumonia and bullae

69
Q

You are presented with a 5 month old beef calf in a feed lot showing an inspiratory dyspnea, mucopurulent nasal discharge and has a fever of 105F.

Which of the following actions will be most correct.

  1. Put the calf in a sick pen and provide it with grass hay and water; do a trans tracheal wash for culture and sensitivity testing
  2. Leave the calf in its production group and give it a subcutaneous shot of penicillin
  3. Put the calf in a sick pen and provide it with grass hay and water, inject it with tulathromacin
  4. Put the calf in a sick pen and provide it with grass hay and water; do a trans tracheal wash for culture and sensitivity testing, give it an injection of enrofloxacin
  5. Put the calf in a sick pen and provide it with grass hay and water; give it an injection of nuflor and banamine and check its temperature the next day
A

Put the calf in a sick pen and provide it with grass hay and water, inject it with tulathromacin

Nufor and pen not ok for veal, Enro not ok for calves

70
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Actinobacillosis is the cause of the cutaneous form of wooden tongue in sheep and goats
  2. Bovine herpes virus one can cause severe necrotizing tracheitis in cattle
  3. Clostridium septicum is a cause of pharyngeal phlegmon
  4. Pasteurella haemolytica is a gram positive intracellular organism
  5. Leukotoxin from Pasteurella is toxic to pulmonary macrophages
A

Pasteurella haemolytica is a gram positive intracellular organism

Gram negative

71
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Air bronchograms are best seen on ultrasound

2 Acellular fluid in the pericardium present as an anechoic space between the heart and the pericardium

  1. Lipid solubility of an antibiotic is a desirable pharmacokinetic property when treating a case of pneumonia in a cow
  2. Neutrophil chemotaxis and lobular consolidation are important features in the pathogenesis of pneumonic pasteurellosis
A
  1. Air bronchograms are best seen on ultrasound

X-ray

72
Q

T/F: Flunixin has an inhibitory effect on the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase

A

True

73
Q

You are presented with a 7 month old beef calf showing neuro signs including extensor rigidity, paddling, swollen joints and a pericardial squeak indicating a fibrinous pericarditis on auscultation. Which of the following would you consider to be the most likely cause

  1. Histophilus somni
  2. Hypomagnesemia
  3. Pasteurella multocida
  4. Hepatic encephalopathy due to aflatoxicosis
  5. Botulism
A
  1. Histophilus somni
74
Q

Which of the following is false:

  1. Influx of neutrophils under the influence of cytokines aggravate the pathologic changes in the lung
  2. Antibiotic treatment should continue for at least 5 days using the same antibiotic irrespective of the clinical response
  3. White and red hepatization denoting different stages in the lung pathology associated with pneumonic pateurellosis is a characteristic finding
  4. Opsonization facilitates phagocytosis by pulmonary macrophages
  5. Tulathromycin is a lipid soluble broad spectrum bacteriostatic antibiotic
A
  1. Antibiotic treatment should continue for at least 5 days using the same antibiotic irrespective of the clinical response
75
Q

Whihc of the following is false?

  1. Exposure to stressors results in explosive selective colonization of M. haemolytica in upper respiratory tract
  2. BRD spreads via droplet inhalation from clinical cases and recovered animals
  3. The highest incidence of BRD occurs within the first 45 days following introduction into a herd
  4. Penicillin is an effective treatment for calves with enzootic pneumonia from which Mycoplasma was isolated
  5. Seroconversion to BRSV is a consistent finding in the first 30 days after introduction into a feed lot
A
  1. Penicillin is an effective treatment for calves with enzootic pneumonia from which Mycoplasma was isolated

Would need a macrolide or enrofloxacin for Myocplasma

76
Q

Which of the following statements would you regard as most important in the treatment approach of BRD in a 600 pound steer

  1. Immediate isolation of the animal
  2. Give a broad spectrum lipophilic bactericidal antibiotic for 2 days then reassess the animal
  3. Give a broad spectrum lipophilic bactericidal antibiotic and an anti-inflammatory for 2 days then reassess the animal
  4. Early identification of disease
  5. Do thoracic ultrasound to provide an accurate prognosis before treatment
A
  1. Early identification of disease
77
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Milk is evaluated for odor and color at each pick up
  2. A high milk bacterial count may be associated with unsanitary milking procedure
  3. There is no restriction on somatic cell count for type B dairies
  4. Non-medical grade DMSO is not allowed to be stored on both Types A and B dairies
  5. It is illegal to use enrofloxacin in lactating dairy cattle
A
  1. There is no restriction on somatic cell count for type B dairies

750,000/mL for both Grade A and B

78
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Acetate is one of the main precursors of butter fat
  2. Buffalo milk has a high butter fat content making it suitable for type B dairies
  3. Heat stress is linked with lowered fertility
  4. Open mouth breathing results in lowered rumen buffering
  5. Providing cooling through water in the form of a mist is ideal for heat stress control
A
  1. Providing cooling through water in the form of a mist is ideal for heat stress control

Using mist instead of droplets creates a ‘blanket’ on the coat which INSULATES rather than cooling down; coat needs to be WET all the way through

79
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is False
  2. Adding rubber to walk ways in total confinement dairies is associated with a decrease in the incidence of thin soles
  3. Grooved concrete on walk ways increases traction but contributes to thin soles
  4. Manure and slurry is an important source for infectious claw disease
  5. Lameness is an important cause of repeat breeding
  6. Pregnant heifers should be vaccinated with a modified live BVD vaccine
A
  1. Pregnant heifers should be vaccinated with a modified live BVD vaccine
80
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. As age of castration increases, weight loss increases
  2. Castration at less than 500 lb had less marbling than castrated at more than 700 lb
  3. Calves castrated at feedlot have higher morbidity and mortality
  4. Early castration with implant better production than late castration in backgrounding program
  5. Intact calves fetch less money at conventional markets
A
  1. Castration at less than 500 lb had less marbling than castrated at more than 700 lb

BETTER marbling at 500lbs than at 700lbs

LAM 2 scs RUSVM (9 decks)

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