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Step 2 > Uworld8 > Flashcards

Uworld8 Flashcards

1
Q

Rhine test

A

tuning fork on mastoid
turning fork on outside of external ear
Conductive hearing loss: hear on mastoid but not air

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2
Q

Weber test

A

tuning fork in middle of head

conductive hearing loss: hear turning fork louder on one side

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3
Q

most common conductive hearing loss in adults

A

osteosclerosis

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4
Q

Begign, non inflammatory enlargement of the salivary glands? who gets it

A

Sialadenosis

liver dz, alcoholics, diabetics, bulima

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5
Q

What is the main clinical feature in Chikungunya fever

A

polyathralgias

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6
Q

name 2 causes of painful genital ulcers

A

HSV

Haemophlus ducreyi

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7
Q

name 2 causes of painless genital ulcers

A

Treponema pallidum

Chlamydia trachomatis seovars

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8
Q

treatment for CMV

A

gancyclovir

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9
Q

how do you get bacteremia due to periodontal disease

A

need endocarditits for septic emboli for penumonia

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10
Q

sclerotic, cortical lesion on imaging with central nidus of lucency

A

osteoid osteoma

- pain worse at night and unrelated to activity, quickly relieved by NSAIDs

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11
Q

Pulsus parvus et tardus

A

arterial pulse with decreased amplitude and delayed peak

severe aortic stenosis

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12
Q

Treatment for urge incontinence

A

oxybutynin

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13
Q

difference in clinical embolic/thrombotic occlusion and hemorrohage

A

hemorrhage: more gradual
embolic: sudden

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14
Q

serotonin receptor antagonist

A

ondasteron

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15
Q

dopamine antagonist

A

metoclopramide

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16
Q

2 fastest ways to determine if someone has invasive diarrhea

A
  1. blood in stool

2. white cell in stool

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17
Q

when can you give loperamide and IV fluids for diarrhea

A

no fever, bloody diarrhea

no hypotension and abdominal pain (mild is okay)

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18
Q

pulseles and in v.fib?

A
  1. chest compression
  2. defib
  3. if 2 fails, epinephrine
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19
Q

Ristocetin testing

A

vonWillibrand disease

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20
Q

chemotherapy CHOP, most common side affect

A

infertility

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21
Q

for unstable angina and NSTEMI, what anticoag is good

A

low molecular weight heparin(enoxaparin) superior to unfractionated heparin

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22
Q

does factor 7 deficiency cause bleeding

A

no

no treatment necessary

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23
Q

most common complication after CABG when using cardiopulmonary pump

A

neurocognitive issue

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24
Q

cytogenetics (5q-)

A

myelodysplastic syndrome

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25
Q

in what environment is iron better absorbed

A

acidic environment

prenicious anemia is associated with basic envirment

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26
Q

what determines if Hep C responds to therapy

A

Genotype of Hep C virus

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27
Q

most specific test for multiple myeloma

A

bone marrow biopsy

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28
Q

how do you confirm diagnosis at initiatl time of presentation for G6PD deficiency

A

Cresyl Violet Stain

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29
Q

What is a contraindication for ondesteron

A

prolonged QT

use aprepitant for chemo induce vomiting

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30
Q

urine stuff for rhabdo

A

low calcium
positive hemoglobin
no rbc

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31
Q

ANCA responding to myeloperoxidase

A

p-Anca

microscopic polyangiti

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32
Q

Wegner is associated with what marker

A

C-Anca

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33
Q

Treatment for cutaneous larva migrans

A

Ivermectin

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34
Q

What causes cutaneous larva migrans? how do you get it

A

Hookworm larvae

barefoot contact with contaminated sand or soil

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35
Q

Clinical feature of Ehrlichiosis

A

leukopenia
thrombocytopenia
elevated aminotransferases
rash is uncommon

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36
Q

treatment for Ehrlichiosis

A

doxycycline

Chloremphenical = 2nd

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37
Q

When do you give bacterial endocarditits prophylaxis

A

prosthetic heart valve
previous infective endocardittis
structural valve abnormality in translplant pt
unreparied congential heart disease

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38
Q

who does not get bacterial endocarditits prophylaxis

A

mitral valve prolapse
rheumatic fever
ASD, bicuspid aortic valve

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39
Q

splenic abscess is commonly associated with what other health issue

A

infective endocarditits

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40
Q

kidney issue for infective endocarditits

A

glomerulonephritis

41
Q

cause of acute epidiymitis for age less than 35

A

sexually transmitted disease

42
Q

cause of acute epididymitits for age greater 35

A

bladder outlet obstruction (coliform bacteria)

43
Q

supraglottic edema and pooled oropharyngeal secretions

A

epiglottitis

44
Q

what is the most likely cause of febrile neutropenia

A

psuedomonas

45
Q

if someone has excess bands on lab work with fever of unknown origin, what do they most likely have? blood culture

A

candida

does not grow on blood cultures 40 of time

46
Q

what bug causes blunting of microvili

A

Giardia

47
Q

Centor criteria

A

fever
absence of cough
tonsillar exudate
tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

48
Q

Fever, arthritis, and pustular rash can also be seen in infective endocarditis, and this patient’s history of IV heroin abuse warrants consideration of IE. however, what is the pt missing for diagnosis

A

murmur or positive blood cultures (gonorrhea will have negative blood cultures)

49
Q

how do you test for Hep C

A

Positive serologic abs

confirmatory molecular test for presence of circulating hep C virus RNA

50
Q

Patient with suspected sarcoidosis deteriorates after immunosuppresive therapy likely has?

A

histoplasmosis

51
Q

When can you give Varicella vaccine to an HIV patient

A

live attenuated

CD count >200 and low titers

52
Q

When do you give histoplasma capsulatum prophylaxis to HIV patietns

A

CD4 count less than 150

53
Q

blood transfusions before when need to be screened for hep C

A

1992

54
Q

Meningococcal vaccination, when is it give during Peds

A

adolescents age 11-12

booster at 16

55
Q

Treatment for lyme disease for pregnant/lactating patients and children under age 8

A

amoxicillin

56
Q

when is antimicrobial prophylaxis for Lyme disease required if tick is attached

A

if its been there for greater than 36 hours

57
Q

difference between erysipelas and cellulitis

A

erysipelas: well demarcated borders, rapid
cellulitis: flat edges, over days

58
Q

What is the skin involvement for vibrio vulnificus

A

wound infections may develop to necrotizing fasciitis with hemorrhagic bullous lesions and septic shock

59
Q

difference in vibrio vulnificus and staph A./Strep Pyo. necrtotizing fasciitis?

A

Staph/Strep develop over a few days

vibrio: develop over hours

60
Q

antibiotic that is potentially nephrotoxic?

A

Aminoglycosides,Amikacin

61
Q

antibody-mediated platelet activation

A

HIT, type 1

5-10 days later

62
Q

Nonimmune platelet aggregation

A

HIT, type 1
less thrombocytopenia
within 2 days

63
Q

symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and erythematous rash over the dorm of the fingers

A

Dermatomyositits

64
Q

2 main clinical feature of Lambert-Eaton

A

proximal muscle weakness

absent deep-tendon reflexes

65
Q

Most common cause of dilated cardiomyopathy in relatively young adult

A

viral myocarditis

66
Q

Characteristics of intracerebral hemmorhage

A

focal neurologic symptoms
increase intracranial pressure (vomiting, bradycardia, decreased alertness)
over court of minutes to hours

67
Q

Treatment for acute gout

A

1st: NSAID
2nd: steroids
3rd: Colchicine

68
Q

what is likely to stay intact for ALS

A

sexual function

69
Q

pain can cause what health problem

A

SIADH

70
Q

treatment for chancroid (heamophilis decry)

A

azithromycin

71
Q

sickle cell crisis: plasmapharesis or plasma exchange

A

plasma exchnage

plasmapheresis is for HUS and TTP

72
Q

SAAG great that 1.1

A

greater: cancer
less: CHF, cirrhosis

73
Q

how is lymphoma best diagnosed

A

lymph node biopsy

74
Q

for small cell lung carcinoma, what prophylaxis radiation therapy is usually done

A

brain radiation

75
Q

what prevents non-hemorrhagic stroke in subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Nimodipine (not nifedipine)

76
Q

which liver pathology is most likely to give you cancer

A

hemachromatosis

77
Q

how do you detect Whipple disease

A

PCR

78
Q

what is normal range for fetal heart beat in utero

A

110-160 beats per min.

79
Q

non stress test, what is considered reactive

A

20 min

2 or more heart rate accelerations that peak 15/min above the baseline and lat 15 min sec.

80
Q

What is normal value for FEV1 and FVC

A

80 percent

81
Q

small cell lung cancer than cause?

A

SIADH and Cushing from increase ACTH

82
Q

what is considered adequate uterine contraction

A

every 2-3 minutes

83
Q

when do you go for C-section for arrest active phase of labor

A

adequate contractions 4 hours or more

inadequate contraction 6 hours or more

84
Q

CHA2DS2 VASc score

A 
CHF
hypertension
age >75
diabetes
stroke
vascular disease
age 65 
sex
85
Q

CHA2DS2 VASc score of what means start anticoagulation

A

2 or more

86
Q

Characterize tuberculous effusions

A

high protein levels
lymphocytic leukocytosis
low glucose levels

87
Q

what is differential for headaches worse when leaning forward? association? treatment?

A

superior vena cava syndrome
associated with small cell lung cancer
radiation treatment

88
Q

pemphigus vulgaris vs. bullous pemphigoud.

  1. oral cavity involvement
  2. intact blisters
A
  1. PV

2. BP

89
Q

distal muscle symptoms
slowed relaxation phase of muscle contraction
familial inheritance pattern

A

myotonic dystrophy

90
Q

upper or lower? muscle atrophy and fasciculations

A

lower motor lesion

91
Q

how would you describe ALS muscle weakness

A

asymmetric distal (not proximal weakness)

92
Q

thoracostomy

A

small needle in chest

93
Q

patient’s atrophied hand musculature is a lower or upper motor sign?

A

lower motor sign

94
Q

clinical feature of complex partial seizures? example of partial lobe epilepsy

A

stare blankly for several minutes
automatisms (lip smacking or chewing)
Todd’s paralysis (unique to this)
temporal lobe epilepsy

95
Q

complications with 1 trimester diabetes

A

heart, limb and neural tube defects

96
Q

Infants of diabetic mothers, regardless off pre-gestational or gestation, increased risk of

A

respiratory distress syndrome
preterm delivery
fetal macrosomia

97
Q

common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

alcohol use

gallstone disease

98
Q

common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

just alcohol use

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