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Step 2 > Uworld 14 > Flashcards

Uworld 14 Flashcards

1
Q

when is endotracheal intubation okay in croup

A

must fail steroids and nebulizer epinephrine OR

have signs of impending respiratory failure

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2
Q

The gene in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is responsible for what?

A

cytoskeleton regulation

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3
Q

difference between common variable immunodeficiency and agammaglobulinemia

A

CVID: less severe symptoms
after adolescence
Serum immunoglobulin concentration is decreased
B cell concentration is normal

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4
Q

Triad of DiGeroge

A

congenital heart disease
T cell deficiency
hypocalcemia

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5
Q

Most common renal manifestation in Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A

hematuria

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6
Q

what size umbilical hernias spontaneously resolve by the age of 5

A

less than 1.5 cm

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7
Q

type 1 collagen defect

A

osteongenesis imperfecta

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8
Q

Defect in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3

A

achondroplasia

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9
Q

Prosthetic joint infection between 3-12 months

A

Coagulase negative staph

Enterococci

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10
Q

Diagnostic criteria for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

A

1 out of 3

  1. 10 days, no improvement
  2. severe onset greater than 3 days
  3. worsening symptoms following initial improvement
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11
Q

treatment for acute bacterial rhinosinusitits

A

amoxicillin +/- clavulanate

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12
Q

Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with which nephrotic syndrome

A

membranous glomerulopathy

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13
Q

is left axis deviation in neonatal electrocardiogram normal

A

no, nunca, never

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14
Q

left axis deviation on electrocardiogram and decreased pulmonary markings on chest radiograph due to hypoplasia of the right ventricle and pulmonary outflow tract

A

tricuspid atresia

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15
Q

name an anterior mass that is related to AFP and B-hCG

A

teratoma

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16
Q

can you do a clean-catch urinalysis on a baby with a diaper

A

nope

instead: urethral cauterization, UA and urine culture

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17
Q

Dull tympanic membrane that is hypomobile on pneumatic otoscopy

A

Serous otitis media

- middle ear effusion without signs of an active infection

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18
Q

represents the excess risk in the exposed population that can be attributed to the risk factor?
“what percent of colorectal carcinoma in women with high fat consumption could be attributed to their diet”

A

attributable risk percent =

RR-1)/(RR

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19
Q

snowman sign on x-ray

A

total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction

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20
Q

x-ray: “egg-on-a string” heart sign

A

transposition of the great vessels

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21
Q

acronym for DiGeroge Syndrome

A 
CATCH
conotruncal cardiac defect
abnormal facies
thyme aplasia/hypoplasia 
cleft palate 
hypocalcemia
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22
Q

What heart defect is associated with Down Syndroe

A

Complete atrioventricular septal defects

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23
Q

what heart defect is associated with DiGeroge’s

A

transposition of great arteries

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24
Q

Valsalva

A

decrease preload

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25
Q

abrupt standing

A

decreases preload

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26
Q

hand grip

A

increases afterload

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27
Q

squatting

A

increases after load

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28
Q

passive leg rase

A

increases preload

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29
Q

what drugs should someone avoid with congenital QT prolongation

A

meds that block potassium channels

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30
Q

what other organ can be affected in myocarditis in Peds population

A

hepatomegaly: passive congestion from right heart failure

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31
Q

rheumatic fever’s most common heart valve defect

A

mitral stenosis

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32
Q

management of children with rheumatic fever

A

prophylaxis penicillin

33
Q

how does knee-chest movement for tetralogy of fallout help

A
  • increases systemic vascular resistance
  • increases pulmonary blood flow
  • improves hypoxemia
34
Q

Trisomy 18

A

Edwards
Rocker-bottom feet
overlapping fingers

35
Q

Biphasic stridor that improves with neck extension

A

Vascular ring

36
Q

next step in management for VSD in peds

A

echo

37
Q

what is an innocent “flow murmur” of childhood

A

grade I or II mid-systolic ejection murmur

38
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency

A

Normal B cells

B cell differentiation is abnormal

39
Q

Hyper-IgM-Syndrome

A

Normal B cells
Increase IgM
Decrease IgG and IgA

40
Q

IgA deficiency

A

only IgA is down

Decrease IgG and IgA

41
Q

Contraindication to Dtap

A

immediate anaphylaxis
instable neurologic disorders
encephalopathy
within a week of administration

next time, don’t give pertussis

42
Q

Preterm infants should be given vaccines when

A 
chronological age (not gestational age)
exception: weight less than 4 pounds before first hep A vaccine
43
Q

marked leukocytosis with neutrophil predominance

A

leukocyte adhesion deficiency

44
Q

contraindication for rotovirus

A

intussusception

45
Q

sharply demarcated parianal rash

A

streptococcal perianal dermatitis

46
Q

location of atopic dermatitis in peds

A

cheeks
trunk
knees

47
Q

Management of pityriasis rosea

A

reassurance

antihistamine for the itching

48
Q

Treatment for Scabies

A

Permethrin

49
Q

what do you see nikosky sign in

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

50
Q

treatment for tine capitis

A

oral griseofulvin or terbinafine

51
Q

elevated levels of what are diagnostic of deficiency 21-hydroxylase

A

17-hydroxyprogesterone

52
Q

What defines constitutional growth delay

A

delayed growth spurt
delayed puberty
delayed bone age

53
Q

In precocious puberty, what must you do before starting GnRH therapy

A

MRI of brain

54
Q

difference between central and peripheral precocious puberty

A

central: elevated LH
peripheral: low LH and FSH

55
Q

what age is precocious puberty

A

girls before 8

guys before 9

56
Q

first line agents for management for essential hypertension during pregnancy are

A

Labetalol and methyldopa
Hydralazine
calcium channel blockers

57
Q

treatment for neonatal thyrotoxicosis

A

Can self resolve in 3 months

Methimazole plus a beta blocker

58
Q

electrolyte finding with hypothyroidism

A

hyponatremia

59
Q

frist line treatment for asymptomatic bacteria for pregnant lady

A

cephalexin
amoxicillin-clavulanate
Nitrofurantoin
Fosfomycin

60
Q

What is the difference between Carcinoid syndrome and Pheochromocytoma

A 
Carcinoid = hypotension
Pheo = hypertension
61
Q

Carcinoid tumor causes what vitamin deficiency

A

Niacin

62
Q

electrolyte values for Chronic kidney disease

A

hypocalcemia
hyperphosphatemia
increased PTH levels

63
Q

electrolyte values for vitamin D deficiency

A

low-normal phosphate

normal calcium

64
Q

Early morning cortisol levels check for what disease

A

Addison

65
Q

What tests can be used for Cushing?

A

late-night saliva cortisol assay
24-hour urine free cortisol measurement
low-dose dexamethasone test

if hypercortisolism = get ACTH levels

66
Q

sodium level for primary polydipsia

A

low Na

67
Q

sodium level for central DI

A

high Na

68
Q

first line treatment for central DI

A

desmopressin

69
Q

Postprandial hyperglycemia

A

elevated A1c despite good control of fasting glucose

70
Q

Dawn phenomenon

A

hyperglycemic surge in the early morning hours

71
Q

Sensorimotor polyneuropathy in diabetes is characterized by

A

length-dependent axonopathy

72
Q

Euthyroid sick syndrome

A

fall in total and free T3
normal T4
normal TSH

73
Q

subclinical hypothyroid

A

elevated TSH

normal T4

74
Q

role of glucagon

A

prevents blood sugars from dropping too low

75
Q

What should you suspect with someone with mild diabetes mellitus or hyperglycemia with necrotic migratory erythema

A

Glucagonoma

76
Q

Elevated dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate levels means

A

androgen-producing adrenal tumor

77
Q

Sensitive test for differentiating adrenal adenoma and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia in patitents w/o discrete unilateral adrenal mass on imaiging

A

adrenal venous sampling

78
Q

Treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism

A

unilateral: surgery
bilateral: medications

79
Q

how does alkalosis impact calcium

A

hypocalcemia

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