Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 > Uworld 13 > Flashcards

Uworld 13 Flashcards

1
Q

Management of traumatic brain injury (concussion)

A

head CT scan w/o contrast

observation for 4-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

at what age can a child state their age and their gender

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what age can a child understand the irreversibility of death?

A

7-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

rapid hematoma expansion in an epidural hematoma can turn into

A 
elevated intracranial pressure (impaired consciousness
uncal herniation (ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

manangement of febrile seizure

A

most are discharged home with no evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome facial features

A

palpebral fissues
smooth philtrum
thin vermilion borders
microcephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fragile X syndrome: facial features

A

prominent jaw
large ears
macroorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is Friedriech ataxia inherited

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Parents have one child who is has friedriech ataxia, she is pregnant and worried about her 2nd child have the disability. What do you advice her?

A

genetic counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

newborn or young infant with failure to thrive, bilateral cataracts, jaundice and hypoglycemia

A

galactosemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the enzyme deficiency for galactosemia

A

galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a newborn or young infant with only cataracts and otherwise asymptomatic? enzyme deficiency

A 
Galactokinase deficiency 
(Uridyl diphosphate galactose-4-epimerase deficiency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

difference between homocytinuria and Marfan

A

Homocytinuria:
intellectual disability
downward lens dislocation
hyper coagulability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you treat homocystinuria

A

vitamin supplementation

antiplatelet or anticoagulation to prevent thromboembolic events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

next step in management for a child who comes in with a big head circumference and signs of increased intracranial pressure

A

CT scan of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

inability to extend the knee while the hip is flexed?

A

Kernig sign = meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common cause of acute and recurrent headaches in pediatric population

A

migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

treatment for migraine

A

1st: NSAIDs
2nd: Triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

prophylactic treatment for migraines

A

topiramate
beta blockers
amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how is myotonic dystrophy inherited

A

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are some distinctive clinical features of myotonic dystrohpy

A

facial weakness
hand grip
cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is seen in x-ray and CT scan for neuroblastoma? and lab?

A

calcifications and hemorrhages

serum and urine catecholamines and HVA and VMA elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a child has optic glioma. what do you associate that with?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Brushfield spots in eye

A

Down Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the clinical difference between Niemann-Pick disease vs. Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Nieman pick: hepatosplenamegaly and areflexia

Tay-Sachs: hyperreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intellectual disability
fair complexion
eczema
musty or “mousy” body order

A

PKU

Phenylketonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Adlose B deficiency

A

Hereditary fructose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

absent galactose-1-phosphast uridyl transferase activity

A

galactosemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lennox-gastaut syndrome

A

intellectual disability

severe seizures of varying types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3-Hz spike-wave discharges during episodes

A

absence seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
Port wine stain 
leptomeningeal capillary-venous malformation 
seizures
glaucoma
intellectual disability
A

Struge-Weber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Diagnostic study of Struge-Weber

A

MRI of brain with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PANDAS

A

pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

frist line treatment for Tourette

A

clinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A child with meningococcemia with sudden vasomotor collapse and skin rash due to adrenal hemorrhage?

A

Waterhouse-Friderchsen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what bacteria do you think of for dog or cat bite?

A

pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

is fever and mild rash after MMR vaccine okay

A

yes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

clinical feature of scarlet fever

A

fever
pharyngitis
sandpaper, maculpapular rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

1-mm gray vesicles on the tonsillar pillars and posterior oropharynx that progress to fibrin-coated ulcerations

A

herpangina–> coxsackie A virus –> supportive management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

when do you give varicella immunization to children

A

1 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

rules for varicella post-exposure prophylaxis

A

got vaccines: observe
no, immunocompetent: give vaccine
no, immunocompromised: VZIG

42
Q

Who is not eligible for either varicella vaccine immunoglobulins

A

children under 1 age

43
Q

Enterobius vermicularis? treatment?

A

pinworm

albendazole or pyrantel pamoate

44
Q

treatment for Strongyloidiasis

A

Ivermectin

45
Q

Treatment for acute airway obstruction from EBV

A

corticosteroids

46
Q

Chronic inspiratory stridor that begins in the neonatal period and is worse in the supine position.

A

Laryngomalacia: collapse of supraglottic structures

so infectious symptoms

47
Q

most common cause of acute, unilateral cervical lymphadenitis in children

A

Staph aureus

48
Q

most common causes of meningitis in children less than 3 months

A

Group B strep
E. coli
Listeria
HSV

49
Q

most common causes of meningitis in children 3 months to 10 years

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae

Neisseria meningitidis

50
Q

most common causes of meningitis in children greater than 11

A

Neisseria meningititids

51
Q

treatment for Haemophilus influenza type B meningitis

A

Dexamethasone

52
Q

most common cause of viral meningitis in children

A

echovirus

coxackie virus

53
Q

acute poor feeding, jaundice, and lethargy. well until 2 days ago

A

congenital hypothyroidism

54
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis in healthy children

A

Staphylococcus aureus

55
Q

how is the pertussis diagnosis confirmed

A

PCR testing of nasopharynx

56
Q

center criteria. meaning

A

fever
tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
tonsillar exudates
absence of cough

4: abs
2-3: test
0-1: not it

57
Q

maternal-fetal transmission of rubella virus is most teratogenic during what trimester

A

first

58
Q

what viruses make a mother have a C-section

A

HIV and HSV

59
Q

describe the sandpaper rash in Scarlet fever

A

prominent along skin folds(axillae, groin)

desquamation ( as illness resolves, desquamation of the rash results in peeling of hands and feet).

60
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients

A

salmonella

Staph. aureus

61
Q

how is sickle cell inherited

A

autosomal recessive

62
Q

Maintenance for a child who was born with sickle cell anemia

A

pneumococcal vaccine
penicillin until age 5
Folic acid supplementation
hydroxyurea

63
Q

most common cause of acute bacterial rhinosinusittis

A
  1. Strep pneumo

2. Monty-able H. flu

64
Q

most common cause of chronic bacterial rhinosinusitits

A

inflammation of rhino sinuses for greater than 12 weeks

staph. aureus

65
Q

treatment for impetigo skin

A

mupirocin

66
Q

specific findings that is highly suggestive of congenital syphilis are

A

copious rhinorrhea

maculopapular rash that may desquamate or become bullous

67
Q

what causes umbilical stump infection? clinical feature?

A

neonatal tetanus

  • trismus
  • spasms
  • hypertonicity
68
Q

main difference between botulinum and tetanus

A

botulinum: hypotonic
tetanus: hypertonic

69
Q

what is a risk factor for toxo you don’t thin of

A

unwashed fruits/vegetables

70
Q

what can be done in a child when an emergency access is necessary and peripheral access cannot be obtained

A

intraosseous vascular access

71
Q

General rule for wet diapers

A

number of wet diapers = age in days for first week

after first week = greater than 6 diapers

72
Q

when is birth weight regained

A

age 10-14

73
Q

What are “pink stains” or “brick dust” in neonatal diapers

A

uric acid crystal
normal
no treatment

74
Q

what sexual development disorder has minimal to absent axillary/pubic hair

A

complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

75
Q

What is the phenotype and genotype for complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

phenotype: female
genotype: 46XY

76
Q

what is management of complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

bilateral gonadectomy after completion of puberty

-decreases risk of gonadal malignancy

77
Q

3 things you first no matter what in primary amenorrhea

A
  1. FSH, if no breast development
  2. If FSH, decreased. Pituitary MRI
  3. FSH increased, Karyotyping
78
Q

First step in management of Turner syndrome

A

pelvis U/S to evaluate internal female anatomy

79
Q

Immunostaining for terminal deoxynucleotideyltransferase (TdT)

A

ALL

80
Q

Diamond-Blackfan anemia

A
  • presents in first 3 months of life with pallor and poor feeding
  • PURE RED CELL APHASIA
  • cleft palate, webbed neck and triphalangeal thumbs
81
Q

treatment for Diamond-Blackfan anemia

A

corticosteroids

red blood cell transfusions

82
Q

Fanconi anemia

A

pancytopenia bone marrow failure

congenital anomales

83
Q

most common primary bone tumor in children and young adults and typically involves the metaphyses of long bones

A

osteosarcoma

84
Q

Limited upward gaze
bilateral eyelid retraction
light-near dissociation

A

parinaud syndrome

pineal gland masses

85
Q

“dancing eyes and feet”

A

neuroblastoma

86
Q

average age for Fanconi’s anemia

A

8 years

87
Q

hemosiderin deposition leading to synovitis and fibrosis within the joint. who gets it?

A

Hemophilia

88
Q

difference between hemarthrosis and hemosiderin

A

hemarthrosis: acute onset
hemosiderin: more chronic

89
Q

what is considered excessive intake of cow’s milk

A

greater than 24 oz

90
Q

difference between iron deficiency thalassemia and iron deficiency

A

elevated red cell distribution in iron deficiency anemia

91
Q

children who develop isolated thrombocytopenia and petechiae after viral infection

A

immune thrombocytopenia

92
Q

treatment for immune thrombocytopenia

A

skin only: observation

bleeding: IVIG or steroids

93
Q

what prophylaxis is needed for sickle cell anemia

A

pneumococcal vaccination plus penicillin prophylaxis

94
Q

define polycythemia in neonate

A

hematocrit greater than 65 percent

95
Q

what are 3 risk factor for neonatal polycythemia vera

A

delayed cord clamping
maternal hypertension
maternal diabetes mellitus

96
Q

what is the primary mechanism of action of hydroxyurea

A

increase fetal hemoglobin

which dilutes the amount of sickle hemoglobin

97
Q

Difference between aplastic crisis and splenic sequestration crisis in acute severe anemia in sickle cell disease

A

AC: decrease reticulocyte count
SSC: increased

98
Q

most common complication of sickle cell

A

painless hematuria

99
Q

what is physiologic jaundice

A

unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

after frist 24 hours of life, resolves within a week of life

100
Q

what diagnosis muscular duchenne and what is gold standard confirmation

A

diagnosis: muscle biopsy

gold standard confirmation: genetic testing

Step 2 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions