Uworld12 Flashcards

1
Q

kidney: Podocyte fusion on electron microscopy

A

minimal change disease

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2
Q

kidney:Localized area os mesangial sclerosis and collapse.

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

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3
Q

kidney: glomerular basement membrane thickening

A

membranous nephropathy

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4
Q

kidney: glomerular basement membrane thinning

A

alport syndrome

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5
Q

change in electrolyte in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Hypochloremic, hypokalemic

metabolic alkalosis

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6
Q

Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in what patient population

A

preadolescent children (NOT teenagers)

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7
Q

Clinical association with membranoproliferazive glomerulonephritis

A

Hepatitis B and C

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8
Q

Treatment for minimal change disease

A

steroids

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9
Q

management of a child with proteinuria

A

repeat urine dipstick testing on 2 separate occasions

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10
Q

Primary defect in renal tubular acidosis 1

A

poor hydrogen secretion into urine

basic urine

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11
Q

primary defect in renal tubular acidosis 2

A

poor bicarbonate resorption

acidic urine

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12
Q

Primary defect in renal tubular acidosis 4

A

aldosterone resistance

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13
Q

postassium levels in renal tubular acidosis

A

1-2: low-normal

4: high

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14
Q

Hyposthenuria

A

polyuria because inability of kidneys to concentrate urine

sickle cell disease

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15
Q

how do you get a clean specimen from a child

A

diapers: straight catheterization

potty trained: mid-stream clean-catch urine specimen

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16
Q

when should a renal and bladder ultrasound be done in a child with UTI

A

less than 2 years, first febrile UTI
Recurrent UTI
Do no respond to abs

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17
Q

when is voiding cystourethrogram done for child UTI

A

abnormalities on ultrasound
less than 1 month old
children less than 2 with recurrent UTI
UTI from an organism other than E. coli

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18
Q

Toddler with a firm, unilateral abdominal mass and hematuria
Diagnosed between age 2-5
asymptomatic abdominal mass

A

Wilm’s tumor

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19
Q

Management of Wim’s tumor

A

CT first

then chest CT to tule out Mets

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20
Q

Clinical finding in neuroblastoma

A

abdominal mass that crosses the midline

common in first year of life

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21
Q

APGAR score

A
Appearance
Pulse
Grimmace/reaction
Activity/muscle tone
Respiratory effort
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22
Q

score of what APGAR requires further evaluation

A

7

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23
Q

Bacterial tracheitis

A

life-threatening sequela of viral laryngotracheobronchitits

- several days of viral URI, acute elevation of temp and increase in respiratory distress

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24
Q

what type of breathing diagnosis croup

A

inspiratory stridor

-Biphasic stridor and high fever =something else

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25
Q

At what age do you start presenting with sickle cell anemia

A

6 months

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26
Q

almost all male patients with cystic fibrosis have?

A

congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens
due to accumulation of inspissated mucus
infertility

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27
Q

difference between cystic fibrosis and primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

pancreatic insufficiency - poor growth, deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins
only in cystic fibrosis

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28
Q

most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in young children with cystic fibrosis ( age less than 20)

A

age less than 20: Staph. aureus

age greater than 20: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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29
Q

First step in management of newborn with respiratory compromise and suspected congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

endotracheal intubation

gastric tube to decompress the stomach and bowel

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30
Q

what would be on the differential for congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

concave abdomen and barrel-shaped chest

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31
Q

Next step in management of foreign body aspirations

A

immediate bronchoscopy

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32
Q

ultrasound or fluoroscopy of chest reveals asymmetric diaphragmatic motion in a seesaw manner in a big baby just delivered

A

phrenic nerve paralysis `

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33
Q

What are lab values for Group B strep. meningitis in normal newborn

A

low WBC with left shift

thrombocytopenia

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34
Q

clubbing and sudden-onset joint arthropathy in a chronic smoker. next step?

A

chest x-ray to rule out malignancy

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35
Q

What is Heiner syndrome and what is it associated with

A

sensitive to cow’s milk

Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis

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36
Q

Triad for primary ciliary dyskinesia

A
  1. recurrent sinopulonary infection
  2. Bronchiectasis
  3. Situs inversus
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37
Q

What causes subglottic edema

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis

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38
Q

treatment for laryngotracheobronchitis

A

corticosteroids and nebulizer epinephrine

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39
Q

complete white out on X-ray? most common causes

A

lung empyema
S. aureus
S. pneumonia
S.pyogenes

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40
Q

when is a large thyme silhouette a normal finding in a child

A

age less than 3 years

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41
Q

treatment for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

early continuous positive air pressure vent

42
Q

chest x-ray for transient tachypnea of newborn

A

bilateral perihilar linear streaking

43
Q

what is the next step for for someone who has suspected subcutaneous emphysema

A

Chest x-ray to rule out pneumothroax

44
Q

complications of positive pressure ventilation

A

alveolar damage
pneumothorax
hypotension

45
Q

management of small pleural effusion in an asymptomatic child

A

oral abs and close outpatient follow up

46
Q

2 risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

prematurity

maternal diabetes mellitus

47
Q

2 complications of RSV

A

apnea (especially if less than 2 months)

respiratory failure

48
Q

treatment for toxocara canis

A

albendazole

49
Q

what sinus has pus from superior meatus of nose

A

sphenoid or posterior ethmoid

50
Q

differentiate respiratory distress syndrome and transient tachypnea of newborn

A

RDS: low lung volumes (TTN has retained fetal lung fluid)
ground-glass opacities
air bronchograms on chest x-ray

51
Q

treatment for neonatal clavicle fracture

A

it will heal on its own

52
Q

before what age must ADHD be diagnosed

53
Q

what happens 12-48 hours after alcohol withdrawal

A
seizures
alcoholic haluccinosis (intact orientation)
54
Q

Alexia

A

inability to read

55
Q

Agnosia

A

inability to recognize objects despite intact senses

56
Q

if a child has a tic… can they still use stimulant ADHD medications

57
Q

conduct disorder vs. oppositional defiant disorder

A

conduct disorder: aggression and violation of rules

ODD: disobedience toward authority figures

58
Q

first line of treatment of OCD in children

A

SSRI and CBT

59
Q

Transient distress on initial separation from major attachment figures is age appropriate in children at what age

A

9-18 months

60
Q

when does stranger anxiety occur

A

6-12 months

61
Q

repeated object insertion into vagina or anus in a child. normal or not

A

not normal

62
Q

Sex play involving genital-genital, oral genital, or anal-genital contact, normal or not normal

A

not mortal

63
Q

masturbatory movements. normal or not normal

64
Q

first line treatment for Tourette disorder

A

clonidine

other: 2nd generation psych

65
Q

side effect of clonidine

66
Q

what is the triad with tourette

A

ADHC or OCD

67
Q

triad of arsenic poisoning

A

abdominal pain
hematuria
jaundice

68
Q

systemic manifestations of iron poisoning

A

abdominal pain
hematemesis shock
metabolic acidosis

69
Q

initial screening for lead poisoning? diagnostic?

A

capillary (finger stick) blood specimens

confirmed with venous blood draw

70
Q

methemoglobinemia

A

iron changes in RBC

71
Q

treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

cyanosis and dark chocolate-colored blood

72
Q

what causes methemoglobinemia

A

oxidizing agents (dapsone, nitrites/topical anesthetics)

73
Q

what is used to treat seizure overdose from TCA

A

benzodiazepines

74
Q

which type of ocular conjunctivitis has ocular pruritus

75
Q

dacryostenosis

A

obstruction of lacrimal duct

76
Q

what is trachoma

A

chlamydia trachomatis

77
Q

when does chemical neonatal conjunctivitis occur?
Gonorrhea ?
Chlamydial?

A

less than 24 hours of birth
g: 2-5 days old
CH: 5-14 days old

78
Q

management of dacryostenosis

A

massaging the nasolacrimal ducts

79
Q

treatment for gonococcal conjunctivitis

A

one dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

80
Q

trachomatis

81
Q

neurofibromatosis type 1 eye problem

A

optic pathway glioma

82
Q

neurofibromatosis type 2

A

acoustic neuromas

83
Q

when is strabismus abnormal in a child

A

after age 4 months

84
Q

when is the visual acuity test started in a child

85
Q

Stabismus, or ocular misalignment, can cause an asymmetric red reflex with increased intensity in the deviated eye. in retinoblastoma what will be the corneal light reflex

86
Q

biggest risk factor for Cryptorchidism

A

testicular cancer

87
Q

treatment for testicular hydrocele

A

observation, most resolve by age 1 year

88
Q

What is genetic testing for duchess muscular dystrophy

A

absent dystrophin gene and undetectable dystrophin protien

89
Q

what confirms the diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy? What is gold standard therapy for?

A

muscle biopsy

gold: genetic studies

90
Q

3 categories of clinical symptoms of friedriech ataxia

A

neurologic
skeletal
cardiac

91
Q

What is the most common cause of death for friedriech ataxia

A

cardiomyopathy and respiratory complications

92
Q

Cardiac rhabdomyomas and renal angiomyolipomas and intellectual problems

A

tuberous sclerosis

93
Q

difference between central and peripheral Bell’s Palsy

A

Central: spares forehead

94
Q

What is procedure is contraindicated with nocturnal headaches and morning vomiting?

A

signs of elevated intracranial pressure

lumbar puncture is contraindicated

95
Q

Most common type of brain tumor in children

A

astrocytoma

96
Q

second most common tumor of posterior fossa in children

A

medulloblastoma

97
Q

“firm, well-demarcated swelling on the right parietal scalp with no discoloration and no apparent tenderness

A

cephalohematoma:scalp swelling that does not cross suture lines

98
Q

biggest risk factor for cerebral palsy

A

prematurity

99
Q

if you fall with an object in your mouth. What is the most likely deformity

A

traumatic carotid injuries or thrombus formation

100
Q

Most common cause of death from child abuse

A

shaken baby syndrome