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Uworld7 Flashcards

1
Q

spherocytes w/o central pallor, found when?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Hereditary spherocytosis

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2
Q

Side effect of cyclosporine

A

gout

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3
Q

side affect of amiodarone and lithium

A

thyroid dysfunction

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4
Q

Blood transfusion anaphylactic reaction

- w/in seconds to minutes 
- Angioedema, hypotension, difficulty breathing
A

IgA Deficiency

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5
Q

blood transfusion - life threatening
within 1 hour of transfusion
fever, flank pain, hemolysis, oliguric renal failure, DIC

A

ABO mismatch

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6
Q

what reduces the risk of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion

A

Leukoreduction of donor blood

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7
Q

What reduces the risk of IgA deficiency

A

washed

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8
Q

clinical features and timing of febrile nonhemolytic transfusions

A

within 1-6 hours

fever, chills, and malaise without hemolysis

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9
Q

bone cancer: soap bubble appearance and most likely location

A

giant cell tumor

distal femur and proximal tibia around the knee

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10
Q

bone cancer: pain worse at night and unrelated to activity and quickly relieved with NSAIDs

A

osteoid osteoma

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11
Q

bone cancer: commonly due to hyperPTH from parathyroid carcinoma

A

osteitis fibrosa cystica

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12
Q

treatment for cancer anorexia

A

progesterone analogues and corticosteroids

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13
Q

Salvage therapy

A

treatment for a disease when standard therapy fails

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14
Q

Neoadjuvant therapy

A

treatment given before the standard therapy for a particular disease

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15
Q

Maintenance therapy

A

given after induction and consolidation therapies to kill any residual tumor cells and keep the patient in remission

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16
Q

Induction therapy

A

initial dose of treatment to rapdily kill tumor cells and send the patient into remission

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17
Q

Consolidation therapy

A

given after induction therapy with multidrug regiments to further reduce tumor burden

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18
Q

Adjuvant therapy

A

treatment given in addition to standard therapy

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19
Q

Salvage thearpy

A

treatment for a disease when standard therapy fails

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20
Q

Most common cause of inadequate response to erythropoiesis-stimulating agents for CKD

A

iron deficiency

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21
Q

risk factor for taking erythropoietin

A

hypertension
headache
retinal hemorrhages
NOT cerebral venous thrombosis

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22
Q

unique clinical presentation for CLL

A

hepatosplenomegaly

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23
Q

Monoclonal abs against CD20

A

rituximab

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24
Q

Inhibits BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase

A

Imatinib

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25
Q

Periphearl smear for CLL

A

lymphocytosis (smudge cells)

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26
Q

Teardrop-shaped red blood cells

A

beta thalassemia or myelofibrosis

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27
Q

Treatment for EHEC

A

avoid abs

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28
Q

When do you do urological imaging for acute pyelonephritis

A

48-72 hours later despite treatment

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29
Q

Treatment for uncomplicated and complicated acute pyelonephritis

A

fluoroquinolones

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30
Q

treatment for animal and human bit injuries

A

amoxicillin-clavulanate

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31
Q

When do you see Procalcitonin

A

after bacterial pneumonia

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32
Q

difference between Ehrlichoiosis and Babesiosis

A

Ehrilichosis: leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
Babesiosis: thrombocytopenia

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33
Q

What is leukoctye alkaline phosphatase levels?

A

low in CML

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34
Q

lab value for CML

A

leukocytosis

increased basophil

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35
Q

how is G6PD deficiency inherited

A

X-linked recessive disorder

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36
Q

Peripheral smear for G6PD deficiency

A

Heinz ( red blood cell inclusions seen after crystal violet staining)
bite cells

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37
Q

Peripheral smear for ALL

A

lymphoblast

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38
Q

during heparin induced thrombocytopenia when can warfarin be initiated

A

greater than 150,000 platelet count

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39
Q

What is gold standard confirmatory test for HIT

A

serotonin release assay

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40
Q

What defines HIT

A
  1. thrombocytopenia
  2. thrombosis (arterial or venous)
  3. 50 or more percent drop platelet baseline 5-10 days after initiation
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41
Q

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome (hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasia)

A

Diffuse telangiectasia (oral lesions)
recurrent epitstaxis
widespread AV malformations (pulmonary AV- hemoptysis)

42
Q

How is hereditoary spherocytosis inherited

A

autosomal dominant

43
Q

Triad for hereditary spherocytosis

A

hemolytic anemia
jaundice
splenomegaly

44
Q

Hereditory spherocytosis has increased osmotic fragliity on what

A

acidified glycerol lysis test

45
Q

what abnormal binding test is positive for herediatory spherocytosis

A

eosin-5-maleimide binding test

46
Q

Pyridoxine

A

Vitamin B6

47
Q

role of pyridoxine and homocytseine

A

B6 lowers homocystine

48
Q

blood transfusions may elevate levels of what in the blood

A

citrate, then chelates calcium and magnesium

49
Q

clinical picture for factor V Leiden

A

increased risk of thrombosis

50
Q

pathophys for factor V Leiden

A

Activated protein C resistance

51
Q

treatment for immune thrombocyotpenia in children

A

IVIG or steroids

52
Q

Treatment for immune thrombocytopenia in adults

A

more than 30,000: observe

less than 30,000: IVIG or steroids

53
Q

What is anithrombin associated with

A

DIC
cirrhosis
nephrotic syndrome

54
Q

diferential diagnosis for microcytic/hypochromic anemia

A

iron deficiency
anemia of chronic disease
thalassemia
lead poisoning, siderblastic anemia

55
Q

Iron and ferritin levels for thalassemia

56
Q

how is leukamoid reaction different from CML

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase elevated in Leukamoid

No basophils in leukamoid

57
Q

bone marrow shows clonal plasma cell proliferation

A

multiple myeloma

58
Q

bone marrow shows hypocellular and fibrotic bone marrow

A

myelofibrotic disorder

59
Q

difference between bone scans and skeletal survey

A

bone scans: osteoblastic, metastatic solid tumors

skeletal survey: osteolytic

60
Q

what is a risk factor for Meylodysplastic syndrome

A

previous chemotherapy/radiation

61
Q

What is the difference between B12 deficiency and myelodysplastic syndrome on peripheral smear

A

MS: hyposegmented neutrophils
B12: hypersegmented neutrophils

62
Q

Trousseau’s syndrome? what is it associated with it

A

hypercoagulability disorder
recurrent and migratory superficial thrombophlebitits
pancreatic cancer or stomach, lung prostate

63
Q

What will flow cytometry show for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

absence CD 55 and CD59

64
Q

clinical picture for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

thrombosis of intraabdominal or cerebral veins

65
Q

What causes dark urine in acute intermittent prophyria

A

prophyrins not hemoglobinuria (like in paroxysmal noctrunal hemoglobinuria)

66
Q

lab value change for steroid use for athletics

A

polycythemia

67
Q

treatment for polycythemia vera

A

phlebotomy

68
Q

lab values for polycythemia vera

A

elevated hemoglobin

low erythropoietin level

69
Q

relate urine and sickle cell

A

hyposthenuria: impairment of kidney’s ability to concentrate urine

70
Q

When do you see target cells on peripheral smear

A

alpha and beta thalassemia

71
Q

What does hemoglobin A2 increase indicate

A

beta thalassemia

72
Q

lab values for RDW, RBC and Iron/ferritin for both thalassemia

A

RDW, RBD are low

Iron normal or increased

73
Q

Next step if you see isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or leukopenia

A

screen for HIV or Hep C (both cause thrombocytopenia)

74
Q

Pathphysio for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

decrease ADAMTS13 level

75
Q

treatment for thrombocytopenic purpura

A

plasma exchange

76
Q

pneumonic for thrombocytopenic purpura

A 
FAT RN
fever
anemia
thrombocytopenia
renal failure
neurosymtpoms
77
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities in tumor lysis syndrome

A

Hyperuricemia
hyperkalemia
hyperphosphateia
hypocalcemia

78
Q

Treatment for tumor lysis syndrome

A

fluids and allopurinol

79
Q

direct antiglobulin test diagnosis what

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

80
Q

impaired gluathione synthesis

81
Q

Red blood cell instability

A

hereditary spherocytosis

82
Q

what vitamin deficiency is common after total or partial gastrectomy

83
Q

B12 is necessary for the synthesis of what

84
Q

Treatment of Vitamin K deficiency

A

fresh frozen plasma

85
Q

Most common source of symptomatic pulmonary embolism

A

proximal deep leg veins (femoral vein)

86
Q

abs difference in Waldenstorm marogrlobulinemia and multiple myeloma

A

WM: IgM
MM: IgG or IgA

87
Q

major clinical features for Waldenstorm marogrlobulinemia and multiple myeloma

A

Wm: hyperviscosity syndrome, hepatosplenomegaly
MM: hypercalcemia, osteolytic lesions/fractures

88
Q

Risk factor for Trastuzumab

A

cardiotoxicity

89
Q

at what age do you stop mamograms

90
Q

side effect of bleomycin

A

pulmonary fibrosis

91
Q

treatment for fibrocystic changes in breast

A

OCP and NSAID

92
Q

Leukoplakia is a risk factor for what

A

squamous cell carcinoma

93
Q

most common cause of malignant (nectrotizing) otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

94
Q

triad of Meniere disease

A

hearing loss
Tinnitus
vertigo

95
Q

pathopys for Meniere

A

increased volume and pressure of enodlymph (endolymphatic hydrops)

96
Q

Loose calcium debris in the semicircular canal

A

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

97
Q

inflammation of the membranous labyrinth

A

labyrinthitis (vestibular neuritits)

98
Q

who has increased incidence of pyogenic granulomas on anterior nasal septum

A

pregnant women

99
Q

clinical feature of juvenile nasal angiofibroma

100
Q

Treatment of malignant otitis externa

A

IV ciprofloxacin

101
Q

Treatment for erhlichiosis

A

doxycycline

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