Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE Step 3 > UWorld > Flashcards

UWorld Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

This infectious disease not only causes cardiomyopathy, but can result in apical aneurysm, mural thrombosis, conduction delays due to fibrosis ________

A

Chagas Disease (Borrelia parasite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: Decompensated cardiac disease, PMH significant for LAD stent, does not require pre-surgical workup

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ should be routinely tested for individuals with suspected restless leg syndrome

A

Ferritin/Iron Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ is used for bradycardia chemically

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In _____, administration of adenosine during tachycardia event can worsen underlying tachyarythmia by force feeding conduction through accessory path

A

WPW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ are antibodies for Sjogrens

A

Anti Ro-La

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Low T3 and ___T4 is a common effect of amiodarone

A

High (Peripheral conversion deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: Fluconazole can be used to treat aspergillus

A

False, works for candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MALT lymphoma in Crohns typically found in the ______

A

Jujenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ aneurysm results in anisocoria, ptosis

A

PCA (Posterior communicating artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fatigue, pruititis, xanthalesma –> steatorrhea, jaundice; isolated ALP centric abnormalities ______

Tx_____

A

PBC

Urodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_____ characterized by no pupillary reaction to light, vertical gaze palsy, nystagmus, ataxia

A

Perinaud syndrome, pineal gland tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: Always get new sensorineural hearing loss evaluated by ENT

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Brugada Syndrome EKG Findings:

A

Long QT>450ms, RBBB, ST Elevations Anterior (V1-V3)

Sodium channel defect SCN5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Guillan Barre treated with ___ and ____

A

IVIG, Plasma exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ST Criteria for STEMI
1) >1mm contiguose leads , men
2 >___mm continuose leads, women

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Recurrent UTI like episodes in a male, with dysuria and pain on ejaculation_______

A

Chronic prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hypo____ is a risk factor for rhabdomyalosis, re-feeding syndrome can therefore precipitate rhabdo

A

Phosphatemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment for chronic bacterial prostatitis _________

A

6 weeks of Cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gastroparesis typically diagnosed with _________

A

Nuclear gastric emptying study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_____ immunosuppresive drug increases risk of gout

A

Cyclosporine (decreases excretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gout Flare Treatment

1) No renal disease: Colchicine
2) Renal Failure: _________

A

Intra-articular steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

high Osmotic gap stools associated with _____

A

Celiac, pancreatitis, lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Numerical Predictor for bad prognosis in COPD______

A

FEV1<40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment of alopecia areatta______

A

Topical vs intra-lesional corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

____ therapy for bells palsy is correlated with good outcomes, anti-virals have unclear data

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

backbone therapy for Auto dominant polycystic kidneys _____. Screening is done with _____ rather than genetic testing

A

ACE/ARB

Renal Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Actinic keratosis, pre-lesion to SCC, is treated with _________

A

topical 5FU, Cryotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Screening colonoscopy for first degree relatives

1) 10 year before diagnosis of relative OR
2) Age _____

Whichever comes first

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

phentolamine is an alpha ____

A

Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Neisseria Meninigitis Prophylaxis Regiments

1) Rifampin 600mg x2 days
2) _______
3) Ceftrioxone 250 x1

A

Ciprofloxacin 500mg x1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pretibial Myxedema is a sign of ______

A

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Plantar warts (HPV) treated with _____

A

Topical salicylic acid –> iquimod

- You have to give the salicyclic acid few weeks to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Indications for parathyroidectomy

1) Serum Ca>11
2) ______ OR Nephrolithiasis OR Kidney disease
3) Symptoms: polyuria, bone pain, neuropsych

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When does osteopenia warrant bisphosphonate

1) FRAX overall>20%, FRAX Hip>____

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most common non-surgical hospital adverse event ________

A

Drug adverse events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Type ___ error is when you conclude no difference in therapy when there is a difference

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dupytren contracture commonly associated with _____

A

DM2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Older patient, generalized AM pain to large muscle group (back, torso, thigh) with mildly elevated ESR_______, treated with _____, associated with _________

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica, low dose steroid, giant cell arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

____ drug can be used for preclampsia prevention

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In children, constipation can lead to ______ infection

A

Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pregnant patients with syphillis require penicillin desensitization due to pregnancy drug risk, otherwise alternatives

1) ______
2) Ceftrioxone

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Steps for PAD Management

1) BP control, smoking cessation, aspirin/statin
2) ______
3) Cilastozol
4) Revascularization Surgery

A

Supervised exercise program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F: Patients with positive EKG stress test will eventually require PCI

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

TTP is a MAHA syndrome, therefore one would see _____ on the peripheral smear

A

schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

First line treatment for ITP______

A

Steroids , versus in TTP the treatment is plasma exchange

47
Q

Normal serum osm _____. Normal urine Osm____

A

275, 100

48
Q

Cocaine HTN treatment

1) Ativan/Benzo
2) _______

A

Phentolamine , cocaine users are high risk of aortic segment dissection, new neurological signs = get CT scan

49
Q

Diabetic retinopathy screening begins in type 1 diabetics ___ years after diagnosis

A

5

50
Q

Medical treatment for hyper-prolactinoma _____

A

Cabergoline/Bromocriptine

51
Q

It usually takes ___ hours for an Ixodes tick to actually transfer lyme parasite to a recipient

A

36hrs of attachment

52
Q

Typically add Spironolactone when EF

A

35%

53
Q

____ diabetic drug can lead to worsened heart failure, fluid retention

A

pioglitazone, -glitazones

54
Q

_____ diabetic drug can help in weight loss, but also associated with pancreatitis risk

A

Exatenide

55
Q

Fronto-temporal dementia, motor neuron disease is possible?: True/False

A

True: Fasciculations, hyper-reflexia

56
Q

Atopic Dermatitis Treatment

1) Moisturize
2) _______
3) Tacrolimus ointment

A

Steroid cream

57
Q

Atopic Dermatitis Treatment

1) Moisturize
2) _______
3) Tacrolimus ointment
4) Phototherapy

A

Steroid cream

58
Q

Priapism treatment

1) Corpus Cavernosum drainage
2) ______ injection

A

Phenylephrine

59
Q

Atrributable Risk Formula

A

[Rexposed - Runexposed]/Risk Exposed

60
Q

Population Attributable Risk Percent Formula

A

(Prevalence)*(RR-1) / [Prevalence *(RR-1) + 1]

61
Q

best assay for esophageal perforation______

A

Oral contrast esophogram

62
Q

Lithium can cause ___thyroidism

A

Hypo

63
Q

Causes of high output heart failure

1) Severe anemia
2) _______
3) AV Fistula
4) Pagets disease/ thiamine deficiency (wet beri beri)

A

Hyperthyroidism

64
Q

Causes of high output heart failure

1) Severe anemia
2) _______
3) AV Fistula
4) Pagets disease/ thiamine deficiency (wet beri beri)

A

Hyperthyroidism

65
Q

An endoscopic feature of pernicious anemia ______

A

absent gastric rugae

66
Q

_____ cancer can be associated with sjogrens

A

Non-hodgkins B cell lymphoma

67
Q

Treatment of chronic urticaria _______

A

Oral antihistamine , usually resolved in 2-5 years

68
Q

Treatment of Severe C.diff with hemodynamic instability _______

A

IV Metronidazole, Oral Vancomycin

69
Q

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia is autosomal ____

A

Dominant

70
Q

Confirmation of h.pylori eradication can only happen ____ weeks after therapy

A

4

71
Q

More potent version of folic acid_____

A

Folinic acid

72
Q

______ treatment among RA treatments is particularly good for anemia of chronic disease

A

Infliximab (TNF-a)

73
Q

Most common cause of proteinuria in adolescents ______

A

Orthostatic proteinuria

74
Q

____ cancer associated with urinalysis/renal findings, secondary polycythemia vera

A

Renal cell carcinoma

75
Q

Deficiency in ____, causes dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis (3D’s), stomatitis, cheliosis

A

Niacin (Vitamin B3)

76
Q

Deficiency in ____, causes dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis (3D’s), stomatitis, cheliosis

A

Niacin (Vitamin B3)

77
Q

Early ______ may have a meningitis like picture, with posterior column centric degeneration

A

Neurosyphillis

78
Q

Early ______ may have a meningitis like picture, with posterior column centric degeneration

A

Neurosyphillis

79
Q

___ is a good preventative agent for cluster headaches

A

Verapmil

80
Q

___ is a good preventative agent for cluster headaches. Best abortive for cluster headache____

A

Verapmil

100% oxygen

81
Q

___ is a good preventative agent for cluster headaches. Best abortive for cluster headache____

A

Verapmil

100% oxygen

82
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis for HIIV is usually ____ days

A

28

83
Q

Symptomatic diabetes does not require 2 confirmatory tests for diagnosis : T/F

A

True

84
Q

For _____ condition, it is possible to have a hypertensive/renal crisis

A

Scleraderma

Tx: Nitroprusside + Captopril (short acting ACE)

85
Q

____ cancer associated with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, lymphcytosis (smudge cells)

A

CLL

86
Q

Both_____ and ____ results in high SAAG ascites

A

CHF, Cirrhosis ; protein>2.5 is suggestive of heart failure

87
Q

Worsened symptoms following TB/HIV medication start may be a sign of _____

A

Immune reconstitution syndrome

88
Q

If a renal stone is ____ dimension, automatic urology consult

A

10mm+ (1cm)

89
Q

T/F: Anyone with bicuspid aortic valve should be screened for aortic aneurysm

A

True

90
Q

_____ syndromes associated with bicuspid aortic valve

1) ______, 30% of patients
2) Marfan

A

Turners

91
Q

CNS crypto treated with :

1) Amphotercin + Fluctocytosine : 2 week IV
2) _____ high dose fluconazole as consolidation

A

8 weeks

92
Q

CNS crypto treated with :

1) Amphotercin + Fluctocytosine : 2 week IV
2) _____ high dose fluconazole as consolidation

A

8 weeks

93
Q

Screening colonoscopy intervals for patients with FAP/Gardners : every ____ years, starting at age ____

A

5 years, 40 or 10 years before diagnosis

If diagnosed after age 60, then every 10 years

94
Q

____ can lead to a subclavian flow murmur

A

Aortic co-arctation

95
Q

Triad of Wernickes Encephalopathy

1) Ataxia
2) _____
3) Encephalopathy

A

Oculomotor dysfunction

96
Q

Triad of Wernickes Encephalopathy

1) Ataxia
2) _____
3) Encephalopathy

A

Oculomotor dysfunction

97
Q

Mamillary body atrophy is an imaging finding for _____

A

Korakhoff Syndrome

98
Q

Secondary syphillis involves palmes and soles (T/F)

A

True

99
Q

Dermatomyositis antibodies to test for :

A

Jo-1, Mi-2

100
Q

If any COPD patient walks in with increase sputum production, hemoptysis, wheezing, you would trial Abx especially Azithromycin (T/F)

A

True

101
Q

Treatment for ABPA steroids + _______

A

Azole (Intraconazole/Voriconazole), but not fluconazole

102
Q

Treatment of Pagets disease______

A

Bisphosphonates

103
Q

treatment of actinic keratosis ______

A

5-FU

104
Q

Most common organism for erysipelas ______

A

Group A Strep (GAS)

105
Q

Indication for spironolactone in heart failure :

1) EF

A

35%, 40%

106
Q

treatment of seborrheic dermatitis

1)
2)

A

1) Selenium shampoo

2) Topical antifungal

107
Q

Treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia

1) TCA
2) ______

A

Gabapentin

108
Q

First line therapy for gout_______

A

Indomethacin

109
Q

Hypothyroidism is associated with ____ cancer

A

Lymphoma

110
Q

Mild Ottitis externa can be treated with topical drops, but more severe (pseudomonas) requires____

A

Oral antibiotics (Augmentin)

111
Q

Cardiac drugs that can increase digoxin concentrations

1) _____
2) Quinidine
3) Amiodarone

A

Verapmil

112
Q

You can have seronegative RA (T/F)

A

True

113
Q

Glitzones are associated with _______ as a side effect

A

volume overload, heart failure

114
Q

treatment for PCP spazzz episode____

A

Lorazepam

USMLE Step 3 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions