Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Broad budding yeast, Bone, skin lesions ________

A

Blastomycosis

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2
Q

_____ is a pediatric illness, in which rash follows days of fever caused by _____

A

Roseola, HHV6

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3
Q

____ pediatric illness of rash confined to hands + soles

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth, Cocksackie A

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4
Q

Palms + Soles Rash

1) Secondary Syphillis
2) _______
3) Ricketsia (Rocky mountain spotted)

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth

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5
Q

Tigecycline is effective for MRSA bacteremia (T/F)

A

F

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6
Q

Myopathy/CK is a side effect of this MRSA antibiotic____

A

Daptomycin

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7
Q

Linezolid inhibits _____ for bactericidal activity

A

Protein synthesis

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8
Q
ESBL Treatment
1st Line\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
2nd Line\_\_\_\_\_
3rd Line : Vabomere (Meropenem - Vaborbactam)
4th Line: Colistin /Polymixin
A

Meropenem

Ceftolozane/Tazobactam OR Ceftazidime/Avibactam

Vaborbactam is a carbapenemase inhibitor

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9
Q

The combination of Zosyn + Vancomycin increases risk of _____

A

AKI, you could try using Linezolid

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10
Q

Cystic fibrosis associated pseudomonas infection best treated with ______

A

Inhaled tobramycin/Aztreonam (gram - cannon) –> colistin

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11
Q

Beta lactam class antibiotics include: Penicillin, Cephalosporins, _____ and _____

A

Carbapenema, monobactams (aztreonam)

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12
Q

Flouroquinolone with good MRSA soft tissue coverage_____-

A

Delafloxacin

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13
Q

Cefoxitin + Cefotetan are special because____

A

Anaerobe coverage

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14
Q

Adverse side effect of imipenem_____

A

Seizure threshold

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15
Q

What do do when someone gets redman syndrome from vancomycin____

A

Reduce the rate of infusion, does not have to be discontinued

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16
Q

Side effect of 2 CMV antivirals : Gancicyclovir, valgancyclovir_____

A

Neutropenia, pancytopenia

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17
Q

Lamivudine, tenofovir, adefovir are treatments for ______

A

Hepatitis B

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18
Q

Echinochandin inhibits____

A

1,3 B D glucan

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19
Q

Sofosbuvir mechanism of action is _____ inhibition,

A

RNA polymerase

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20
Q

____ azole also covers Candida glabrata + Crusei. _____ covers mucor, along with isovuconazole and Amphoterecin

Azoles inhibit_______ formation

A

Voriconazole

Posaconazole

Ergosterol (fungal cell wall)

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21
Q

Echinocandins do not cover ______, have the benefit of the least number of side effects

A

Cryptococcus

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22
Q

Treatment for Candidemia ____ and _____. For neutropenic fever, ______ is superior to amphoterecin

A

Fluconazole + Caspofungin

Caspofungin (Echinocandin)

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23
Q

Side effects of Azoles

1) AKI
2) _______ from RTA (Distal tubule : Type 1)

A

Hypokalemia

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24
Q

Xray finding of osteomyelitis _______. ___ is followed to evaluate response to therapy (4 - 6 weeks)

A

Periosteal elevation

ESR

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25
______ is the only cephalosporin approved for MRSA
Ceftaroline
26
Honey crusted, oozing lesions an indication of _______. Can be treated with _______
Impetigo, topical mupirocin/dicloxacillin (MSSA)
27
Pharyngitis/Skin infection can lead to PSGN, however only _____ can lead to rheumatic fever
Pharyngeal
28
Side effect of terbinafine _____, used for skin/nail fungal infections
LFT
29
Most accurate test for PID, although never done ______. Always do a _____ when suspecting PID
Laproscopy Pregnancy test : Ectopic pregnancy can look similar
30
Treatment of PID with penicillin allergy________
Clindamycin + Gentamycin (Debatable)
31
______ presents with painful ulcers, enlarged lymph nodes, caused by H. Ducreyi
Chancroid , treated with one time Azithro or IM ceftrioxone
32
_______ caused by chlymidia, can be thought of as a complicated chlymidia resulting in super enlarged lymph nodes and draining tracts (Buboes)
LGV Tx: Doxy, Azithro
33
HSV can be treated clinically without a PCR, acute new infection requires chronic therapy (T/F)
False (7 - 10 days of acyclovir is sufficient), only chronic infection needs chronic suppressive therapy
34
______ results in red ulcerative lesions in the genitals, caused by Klebsiella, donovan bodies are seen under the microscope
Granuloma Inguinale
35
For complicated pyelo (perinephric abscess) you treated with Cipro/Levaquin +_______
Vancomycin/Oxacillin/Dicloxacillin ; treating GNR allows for staph to take over in microbial ecology
36
Prostatitis is unique, in that treatment must be ______ long
2 - 6 weeks, we can think of the prostate as an abscess
37
Tenofovir is famous for causing _____ + ______
RTA, Fanconi Syndrome
38
Side effect of protease inhibitors______
Metabolic syndrome
39
How long to use ART for post exposure prophylaxis_______
1 month
40
HIV Prophylaxis 1) PCP_____, _______ (CD4<200) 2) MAC (CD4<50)______ 3) CMV____(CD4<50)
Bacterim, Dapsone/Atovaquone if rash or reaction, remember that Dapsone cannot be used in those with G6PD Azithromycin , weekly Valgancyclovir
41
T/F : Baby must recieve Zidovudine even if mother has undetectable viral load
True (Few weeks)
42
Acceptable HIV pregnancy combination: ____, _____, ____
Emtricitabine, Tenofovir, raltegravir
43
Indication for Steroids in PCP pneumonia 1) Aa gradient >35 2) ______
pO2<70
44
Treatment for toxoplasmosis in HIV (ring enhancing lesion)_________
Primethamine/sulfadiazine (shown to be better than bacterim) ; will need repeat CT after therapy to confirm
45
T/F: Once you have cryptococcus, you have to continue fluconazole indefinitely until CD4 rises
True
46
MAC, characterized by anemia, weight loss, fever, isolated ALP elevations, treated with ______
Azithro + Rifampin + Ethambutol
47
Most common cause of culture (-) endocarditis: ____, ______. General treatment of endocarditis ___ for 4-6 weeks
Bartonella, Coxiella Ceftrioxone + Vancomycin
48
S.bovis and _____ are endocarditis organisms associated with colonic pathology
Closteridium Septicum
49
Indications for Endocarditis Prophylaxis 1) History of prosthetic valve 2) Previous endocarditis 3) _________ 4) Heart transplant with valvopathy
Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease
50
Procedures requiring endocarditis prophylaxis 1) Dental procedures with bleeding 2) ________ 3) Surgery of infected skin
Respiratory tract surgery
51
Having valvular heart disease requires peri-operative endocarditis prophylaxis (T/F)
False
52
retro-orbital pain, thrombocytopenia, bone pain ______
Dengue (Aedes Egypti) Same mosquito as chikungunya, yellow fever
53
mosquito born disease presenting with fever, rash, conjunctivitis, also associated with guillan barre syndrome______
Zika Virus
54
miltefosine, stibogluconate are treatments for __________
Leishmaniasis, clue: Iraq war veteren Cutaneous ulcers
55
Echinococcus results in cysts which can treated with _______
Alcohol injection of cysts, albendazole
56
Cholera can be treated with _______
Mild: Aggressive fluid hydration Severe: Doxycycline/Azithromycin
57
_____ weakly acid fast, branching filaments bacterium in immunocompromised patients
Nocardia
58
Branching, filamentous bacteria causing yellow discharge, located in the jaw following a procedure_____, treated with _____
Actinomyces, Penicillin
59
pancytopenia, oral ulcers, splenomegaly, viral pneumonia prodrome_______
Histoplasmosis Tx: Disseminated (Amphoterecin), itraconazole
60
Joint pain, erythema nodosum, resistant to echinocandins______
Coccidiomycosis
61
Treatment for allergic bronchopulmonar aspergillosis______
Prednisone, Itraconazole
62
Candida Auris can only be treated with ______
Caspofungin (Echinocandin)
63
fevers, abdominal pain, muscle pain (elevated CK), jaundice from exposure of animal feces______
Leptospirosis (Tx: Ceftrioxone)
64
Ulcerated lymph nodes, contact with rabbits _________, treated with _____
Tularemia, Doxycycline Must do Serology, not cultures given huge risk of spores causing pneumonia in the lab
65
Trichinellosis (pork tape work) causes muscle pain (elevated CK), eosinophilia, facial swelling, treated with _______
Albendazole
66
Buboes (massively enlarged lymph nodes) are a clue to _______, treated with ____
Bubonic plague , Doxycycline
67
____ is characterized by fevers for months, hepatosplenomegaly, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, joint pain associated with animal products
Brucellosis
68
____ associated with dilational conditions, dilated cardiomyopathy, esophagus, colon, initially may present with peri-orbital edema, treated with ____
Chagas, nifurtimox
69
____ is called cat scratch disease, most common culture negative endocarditis, causes lymphadenitis
Bartonella
70
Lyme can be treated empirically (T/F)
True
71
The deer tick causes Lyme disease and ______
Babesiosis (Maltese Cross) , Tx : Doxycycline Asplenic patients are highly prone to babesiosis, causes hemolytic anemia
72
C1 esterase deficiency results in low ___ and ___. Treatment for laryngeal edema during deficiency
C2/C4 C1 inhibitor plasma derivative , Icatibant, ecallantide (kallikrein inhibitor), Danazol for chronic disease Key: Steroids are not useful
73
______ presents in adulthood, results in low IgG
Common variable immunodeficiency
74
____ presents in male children, repeat sino-pulm infections, defect in B cells
X Linked (Brutons) agammaglobinemia atrophied lymph nodes
75
IVIG can precipitate anaphylaxis in IgA deficient patient (T/F)
True
76
recurrent skin infections can be characteristic of hyper _____
IgE