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USMLE Step 3 > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Broad budding yeast, Bone, skin lesions ________

A

Blastomycosis

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2
Q

_____ is a pediatric illness, in which rash follows days of fever caused by _____

A

Roseola, HHV6

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3
Q

____ pediatric illness of rash confined to hands + soles

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth, Cocksackie A

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4
Q

Palms + Soles Rash

1) Secondary Syphillis
2) _______
3) Ricketsia (Rocky mountain spotted)

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth

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5
Q

Tigecycline is effective for MRSA bacteremia (T/F)

A

F

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6
Q

Myopathy/CK is a side effect of this MRSA antibiotic____

A

Daptomycin

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7
Q

Linezolid inhibits _____ for bactericidal activity

A

Protein synthesis

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8
Q 
ESBL Treatment
1st Line\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
2nd Line\_\_\_\_\_
3rd Line : Vabomere (Meropenem - Vaborbactam)
4th Line: Colistin /Polymixin
A

Meropenem

Ceftolozane/Tazobactam OR Ceftazidime/Avibactam

Vaborbactam is a carbapenemase inhibitor

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9
Q

The combination of Zosyn + Vancomycin increases risk of _____

A

AKI, you could try using Linezolid

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10
Q

Cystic fibrosis associated pseudomonas infection best treated with ______

A

Inhaled tobramycin/Aztreonam (gram - cannon) –> colistin

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11
Q

Beta lactam class antibiotics include: Penicillin, Cephalosporins, _____ and _____

A

Carbapenema, monobactams (aztreonam)

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12
Q

Flouroquinolone with good MRSA soft tissue coverage_____-

A

Delafloxacin

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13
Q

Cefoxitin + Cefotetan are special because____

A

Anaerobe coverage

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14
Q

Adverse side effect of imipenem_____

A

Seizure threshold

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15
Q

What do do when someone gets redman syndrome from vancomycin____

A

Reduce the rate of infusion, does not have to be discontinued

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16
Q

Side effect of 2 CMV antivirals : Gancicyclovir, valgancyclovir_____

A

Neutropenia, pancytopenia

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17
Q

Lamivudine, tenofovir, adefovir are treatments for ______

A

Hepatitis B

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18
Q

Echinochandin inhibits____

A

1,3 B D glucan

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19
Q

Sofosbuvir mechanism of action is _____ inhibition,

A

RNA polymerase

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20
Q

____ azole also covers Candida glabrata + Crusei. _____ covers mucor, along with isovuconazole and Amphoterecin

Azoles inhibit_______ formation

A

Voriconazole

Posaconazole

Ergosterol (fungal cell wall)

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21
Q

Echinocandins do not cover ______, have the benefit of the least number of side effects

A

Cryptococcus

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22
Q

Treatment for Candidemia ____ and _____. For neutropenic fever, ______ is superior to amphoterecin

A

Fluconazole + Caspofungin

Caspofungin (Echinocandin)

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23
Q

Side effects of Azoles

1) AKI
2) _______ from RTA (Distal tubule : Type 1)

A

Hypokalemia

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24
Q

Xray finding of osteomyelitis _______. ___ is followed to evaluate response to therapy (4 - 6 weeks)

A

Periosteal elevation

ESR

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25
Q

______ is the only cephalosporin approved for MRSA

A

Ceftaroline

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26
Q

Honey crusted, oozing lesions an indication of _______. Can be treated with _______

A

Impetigo, topical mupirocin/dicloxacillin (MSSA)

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27
Q

Pharyngitis/Skin infection can lead to PSGN, however only _____ can lead to rheumatic fever

A

Pharyngeal

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28
Q

Side effect of terbinafine _____, used for skin/nail fungal infections

A

LFT

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29
Q

Most accurate test for PID, although never done ______. Always do a _____ when suspecting PID

A

Laproscopy

Pregnancy test : Ectopic pregnancy can look similar

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30
Q

Treatment of PID with penicillin allergy________

A

Clindamycin + Gentamycin (Debatable)

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31
Q

______ presents with painful ulcers, enlarged lymph nodes, caused by H. Ducreyi

A

Chancroid , treated with one time Azithro or IM ceftrioxone

32
Q

_______ caused by chlymidia, can be thought of as a complicated chlymidia resulting in super enlarged lymph nodes and draining tracts (Buboes)

A

LGV

Tx: Doxy, Azithro

33
Q

HSV can be treated clinically without a PCR, acute new infection requires chronic therapy (T/F)

A

False (7 - 10 days of acyclovir is sufficient), only chronic infection needs chronic suppressive therapy

34
Q

______ results in red ulcerative lesions in the genitals, caused by Klebsiella, donovan bodies are seen under the microscope

A

Granuloma Inguinale

35
Q

For complicated pyelo (perinephric abscess) you treated with Cipro/Levaquin +_______

A

Vancomycin/Oxacillin/Dicloxacillin ; treating GNR allows for staph to take over in microbial ecology

36
Q

Prostatitis is unique, in that treatment must be ______ long

A

2 - 6 weeks, we can think of the prostate as an abscess

37
Q

Tenofovir is famous for causing _____ + ______

A

RTA, Fanconi Syndrome

38
Q

Side effect of protease inhibitors______

A

Metabolic syndrome

39
Q

How long to use ART for post exposure prophylaxis_______

A

1 month

40
Q

HIV Prophylaxis

1) PCP_____, _______ (CD4<200)
2) MAC (CD4<50)______
3) CMV____(CD4<50)

A

Bacterim, Dapsone/Atovaquone if rash or reaction, remember that Dapsone cannot be used in those with G6PD

Azithromycin , weekly

Valgancyclovir

41
Q

T/F : Baby must recieve Zidovudine even if mother has undetectable viral load

A

True (Few weeks)

42
Q

Acceptable HIV pregnancy combination: ____, _____, ____

A

Emtricitabine, Tenofovir, raltegravir

43
Q

Indication for Steroids in PCP pneumonia

1) Aa gradient >35
2) ______

A

pO2<70

44
Q

Treatment for toxoplasmosis in HIV (ring enhancing lesion)_________

A

Primethamine/sulfadiazine (shown to be better than bacterim) ; will need repeat CT after therapy to confirm

45
Q

T/F: Once you have cryptococcus, you have to continue fluconazole indefinitely until CD4 rises

A

True

46
Q

MAC, characterized by anemia, weight loss, fever, isolated ALP elevations, treated with ______

A

Azithro + Rifampin + Ethambutol

47
Q

Most common cause of culture (-) endocarditis: ____, ______. General treatment of endocarditis ___ for 4-6 weeks

A

Bartonella, Coxiella

Ceftrioxone + Vancomycin

48
Q

S.bovis and _____ are endocarditis organisms associated with colonic pathology

A

Closteridium Septicum

49
Q

Indications for Endocarditis Prophylaxis

1) History of prosthetic valve
2) Previous endocarditis
3) _________
4) Heart transplant with valvopathy

A

Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease

50
Q

Procedures requiring endocarditis prophylaxis

1) Dental procedures with bleeding
2) ________
3) Surgery of infected skin

A

Respiratory tract surgery

51
Q

Having valvular heart disease requires peri-operative endocarditis prophylaxis (T/F)

A

False

52
Q

retro-orbital pain, thrombocytopenia, bone pain ______

A

Dengue (Aedes Egypti)

Same mosquito as chikungunya, yellow fever

53
Q

mosquito born disease presenting with fever, rash, conjunctivitis, also associated with guillan barre syndrome______

A

Zika Virus

54
Q

miltefosine, stibogluconate are treatments for __________

A

Leishmaniasis, clue: Iraq war veteren

Cutaneous ulcers

55
Q

Echinococcus results in cysts which can treated with _______

A

Alcohol injection of cysts, albendazole

56
Q

Cholera can be treated with _______

A

Mild: Aggressive fluid hydration

Severe: Doxycycline/Azithromycin

57
Q

_____ weakly acid fast, branching filaments bacterium in immunocompromised patients

A

Nocardia

58
Q

Branching, filamentous bacteria causing yellow discharge, located in the jaw following a procedure_____, treated with _____

A

Actinomyces, Penicillin

59
Q

pancytopenia, oral ulcers, splenomegaly, viral pneumonia prodrome_______

A

Histoplasmosis

Tx: Disseminated (Amphoterecin), itraconazole

60
Q

Joint pain, erythema nodosum, resistant to echinocandins______

A

Coccidiomycosis

61
Q

Treatment for allergic bronchopulmonar aspergillosis______

A

Prednisone, Itraconazole

62
Q

Candida Auris can only be treated with ______

A

Caspofungin (Echinocandin)

63
Q

fevers, abdominal pain, muscle pain (elevated CK), jaundice from exposure of animal feces______

A

Leptospirosis (Tx: Ceftrioxone)

64
Q

Ulcerated lymph nodes, contact with rabbits _________, treated with _____

A

Tularemia, Doxycycline

Must do Serology, not cultures given huge risk of spores causing pneumonia in the lab

65
Q

Trichinellosis (pork tape work) causes muscle pain (elevated CK), eosinophilia, facial swelling, treated with _______

A

Albendazole

66
Q

Buboes (massively enlarged lymph nodes) are a clue to _______, treated with ____

A

Bubonic plague , Doxycycline

67
Q

____ is characterized by fevers for months, hepatosplenomegaly, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, joint pain associated with animal products

A

Brucellosis

68
Q

____ associated with dilational conditions, dilated cardiomyopathy, esophagus, colon, initially may present with peri-orbital edema, treated with ____

A

Chagas, nifurtimox

69
Q

____ is called cat scratch disease, most common culture negative endocarditis, causes lymphadenitis

A

Bartonella

70
Q

Lyme can be treated empirically (T/F)

A

True

71
Q

The deer tick causes Lyme disease and ______

A

Babesiosis (Maltese Cross) , Tx : Doxycycline

Asplenic patients are highly prone to babesiosis, causes hemolytic anemia

72
Q

C1 esterase deficiency results in low ___ and ___. Treatment for laryngeal edema during deficiency

A

C2/C4

C1 inhibitor plasma derivative , Icatibant, ecallantide (kallikrein inhibitor), Danazol for chronic disease

Key: Steroids are not useful

73
Q

______ presents in adulthood, results in low IgG

A

Common variable immunodeficiency

74
Q

____ presents in male children, repeat sino-pulm infections, defect in B cells

A

X Linked (Brutons) agammaglobinemia

atrophied lymph nodes

75
Q

IVIG can precipitate anaphylaxis in IgA deficient patient (T/F)

A

True

76
Q

recurrent skin infections can be characteristic of hyper _____

A

IgE

USMLE Step 3 (19 decks)

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