UW4 Flashcards

1
Q

Disulfuram like reactions

A

Metronidazole, griseofulvin, procarbazine, tobutamide, chlorpropamide

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2
Q

What is dectected in chronic Hep B infections?

A

Persistent HBsAg and HBV DNA

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3
Q

what can cause a widened QRS?

A

Left or Right bundle branch block, fasicular blocks, pacemakers

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4
Q

What can prolong the PR interval?

A

things that slow AV conduction like beta blockers

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5
Q

High peaking left ventricular pressure and decreased aortic pressure ( increased pulse pressure)

A

Aortic regurgitation

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6
Q

Iatrogenic injury during hip surgery

A

Superior gluteal nerve (hip drop, Trendelenburg sign)

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7
Q

knee buckling and loss of patellar reflex. Loss of sensation to skin of anterior thigh and medial leg

A

Femoral nerve (flexion of the thigh)

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8
Q

Difficulty rising from seated position and climbing stairs

A

Inferior gluteal nerve (gluteus maximus)

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9
Q

Hyperosmotic volume contraction

A

Seen in diabetes insipidus. Loss of free water causes increase in free water and volume contraction

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10
Q

How would acute GI hemorrhage affect osmolarity and ICF

A

Isotonic loss of ECF and no change in ICF. Isoosmotic volume contraction

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11
Q

How would adrenal insufficiency affect ECF and ICF?

A

Hypertonic loss of NaCl. Lose salt. Low osmolarity of ECF would cause water to shift into ICF

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12
Q

How would hypertonic saline infusion change osmolarity and volume?

A

Hypertonic volume expansion. High osmolarity of ECF would shift water into ICF

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13
Q

how would primary polydipsia affect osmolarity and volume?

A

Volume expansion in both ICF and ECF and decreased osmolarity

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14
Q

What is synaptophysin a marker for?

A

Neurons (transmembrane glycoprotein foundin presynaptic vesicles of neurons)

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15
Q

GFAP stain

A

Astrocytomas (Gliblastoma multiforme, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, peripheral neral sheath tumor). Neoplasms of glial origin

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16
Q

When do you hear an S3?

A

CHF. Immediately after S2 during passive ventricular filling (blood rushing into a partially filled ventricle or stiff ventricle)

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17
Q

How do ACE inhibitors affect GFR?

A

ACEi decrease ANG II to cause vasodilation of the efferent arteriole leading to increase in RBF and thus decrease filtration

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18
Q

AICA aneurysm can compress which nerves

A

Compresses the facial and vestibulocochlear neves

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19
Q

unilateral headache, eye pain, diplopia, dilated nonreactive pupil, pstosis, down and out eye

A

Aneurysm compressing the occulomotor nerve (PCA and superior cerebellar arteries)

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20
Q

Puffy face, dyspnea, facial swelling, dilated vessels

A

SVC syndrome (lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma)

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21
Q

Cushings, SIADH

A

Small cell lung cancer

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22
Q

Hypercalcemia with lung cancer

A

Squamous Cell (PTHrP)

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23
Q

Dullness to percussion and diminished breath sounds over affected area

A

Pleural effusion

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24
Q

Distended neck veins, distant heart sounds, pulsus pardoxus

A

Pericardial effusion

25
Q

Shoulder pain, Horner’s syndrome

A

Pancoast tumor (superior sulcus tumors)

26
Q

What substances utilize the JAK/Stat pathway?

A

cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

27
Q

What substances utilize the MAP kinase pathway?

A

Growth factors, EGF, PDGE, FGF

28
Q

What is the mechanism of leptin?

A

Produced in proprotion to the amount stored. Inhibits production of neuropeptide Y to decreas appetite and stimulates alpha MSH (increase satiety) Mutaiton leads to obesity

29
Q

granulomatous destruction of bile ducts

A

Florid duct lesions of Primary biliary sclerosis

30
Q

Homeless man with fever, abdomina pain, jaundice

A

acute cholangitis

31
Q

History of ulcerative cholitis with high alkaline phosphatase

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

32
Q

older female with weight loss, abdominal discomfort, epigastric mass

A

Pancreatic cancer

33
Q

history of pruritis, fatigue with new onset pale stool and xanthelasma

A

Primiary biliary sclerosis

34
Q

Most common cancer in women

A

Breast, lung, colon

35
Q

Cancer mortality rates

A

Lung, breast, colon

36
Q

Mechanism of flucytosine

A

Nucleotide analog that inhibits RNA synthesis. Used with Amphotericin B for Cryptococcal meningitis

37
Q

Mechanism of Caspfungin

A

blocks synthesis of glucan component of fungal cell wall. Used for Candida and Aspergillus

38
Q

Mechanism of amphotericin B and nystatin

A

Bind ergosterol molecules in fungal cel membranes to cause lysis

39
Q

Mechanism of azoles

A

Inhibits ergosterol synthesis

40
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A

Vasoconstriction by a-adrenergic agonist decline in efficacy after a few days of use due to negative feedback. Results in vasodilation and exacerbation of nasal congestion symptoms

41
Q

Rebound rhinorrhea

A

Nasal congestion WITHOUT cough, sneezing or post nasal drop. Associaed with use of topical decongestants for more than 3 days

42
Q

Prevent NSAID induced ulcers

A

Misoprostol, prostaglandin E1 analog

43
Q

HDL levels

A

> 40 Men and >50 women

44
Q

V-fib younger than 30

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

45
Q

Congenital icuspid aortic valve is associated with what defect later in life?

A

Accelerated onset of calcific aortic stenosis

46
Q

Pancreatic pancer risk factors

A

Tobacco, obesity

47
Q

gastric cancer risk factors

A

Dietary nitrates, alcohol, tobacco, H. pylori

48
Q

Liver cancer risk

A

Hep B and C, cirrhosis, Hemochromotosis, aflatoxin

49
Q

Colorectal cancer risk

A

HNPCC, IBD, obesity, charred or fried foods

50
Q

Renal cancer risk

A

Tobacco, obesity, hypertension

51
Q

Bladder cancer

A

Tobacco, occupational exposures ( rubber, dyes, textiles, leather)

52
Q

Breast Cancer risk

A

early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, BRCA mutations

53
Q

Prostate cancer risk

A

Increasing age, African American

54
Q

Cryptorchid tests, no axillary or public hair, no penis or scrotum, no uterus or ovaries. Breast development

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

55
Q

Recurrent infections with diffuse granuloma formation.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease. Deficiency in NADPH oxidase

56
Q

Elevated PT and PTT. Decreased fibrinogen, elevated fibrin degradation products and D-dimer

A

DIC

57
Q

Fever, acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

A

HUS TTP. Usually do not bleed. Only platelets are activated. Normal PT and PTT. Normal Fibrinogen

58
Q

When does GVHD develop?

A

1 week after transplantation