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UW16 Flashcards

1
Q

low frequency sound is best detected at which part of the cochlea

A

Apex of the choclea near the helicotrema

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2
Q

high frequency sounds are best detected at which part of the cochlea

A

base of the cochlea near oval and round windows

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3
Q

archnodactyly, scoliosis, aortic root dilation

A

Marfan

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4
Q

Short stature, hypotonia, intellectual disability, obesity

A

Prader Willi syndrome

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5
Q

Contraindications for HCTZ

A

diabetics, gout, hypercalcemia

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6
Q

Hematuria/ hemoptysis. Focal necrosis of alveolar walls and intra-alveolar hemorrhages

A

Goodpasture

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7
Q

asthma, necrotizing vasculitis with granulomas, eosinophis. Bronchial wall thickening

A

Churg strauss

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8
Q

subplural cystic airspace enlargement

A

Honeycomb lung ( pulmonary fibrosis)

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9
Q

what amino acid becomes essential in PKU

A

Tyrosine

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10
Q

Why is there an increase in prolactin in Dihydrobiopterin reductase deficiency

A

Decrease in Dopamine synthesis

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11
Q

what enzyme is deficiency in alkaptonuria

A

Homogentisic acid oxidase

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12
Q

discharge from ear and exquisite ear pain in a diabetic patient

A

otitis Externa (pseudomonas)

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13
Q

inflamed, erythematous, bulging, immobile tympanic membrane

A

otitis media (fluid in middle ear)

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14
Q

what type of bonds causes the sickling seen in Sickle Cell

A

Hydrophobic interactions between Hb molecules

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15
Q

Anastrozole

A

aromatase inhibitor

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16
Q

MSH2 gene is implicated in what disease

A

HNPCC (DNA mismatch repair)

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17
Q

urokinase

A

tPA (thrombolytic)

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18
Q

babinski

A

Extension, dorsiflexion of toes following stroking of lateral plantar foot

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19
Q

muscle paralysis, hyperreflexia, spasticity indicates what type of lesion, positive babinski

A

Upper motor neuron

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20
Q

loss of tendon reflexes, muscle atrophy, fasiculations are seen in what type of motor neuron lesion

A

Lower moter neuron

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21
Q

which part of the kidney tubules is most susceptible to injury

A

Proximal tubule and thick ascending limb

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22
Q

Proto-oncogenes

A

Ras, myc, ERB, TGFa, Sis, abl

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23
Q

Tumor suppressors

A

BRCA, NF-1, APC, DCC, p53, RB, WT

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24
Q

Why should a cbc be done before starting chloramphenicol

A

can cause aplastic anemia

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25
Q

why should a cbc be cone before starting dapsone

A

can cause agranulocytosis

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26
Q

Side effect of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis, color blindness, central scotoma,

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27
Q

HIV infection and impaired vision

A

CMV retinitis

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28
Q

Foscarnet

A

Pyrophosphate analog. Chelates calcium, leads to renal wasting of magnesium. Which decreases PTH and leads to hypocalcemia

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29
Q

Ganciclovir

A

inhibits DNA polymerase. Requires viral kinase. Causes severe neutropenia

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30
Q

Indinavir

A

Protease inhibitor. Causes fat redistribution, insulin resistance (hyperglycemia) and hypertryglyceridemia

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31
Q

Lamivudine

A

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI). Associated with peripheral neuropathy and lactic acidosis

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32
Q

inward deviation of the eye

A

abducens palsy

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33
Q

Regulator of the urea cycle

A

N-acetylglutamate

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34
Q

Rate determining enzyme of urea cycle

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

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35
Q

increased blood ammonium and increased urine orotic acid excretion. What enzyme deficiency

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase

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36
Q

Why do you see an increase in orotic acid in ornithine transcrabamylase deficiency?

A

Excess carbamoyl phosphate is converted to orotic acid (CPS II for pyrimidine synthesis)

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37
Q

obstruction of what % of a coronary artery lumen produces symptoms of stable angina

38
Q

Endothelial cell tumor associated with arsenic or polyvinyl chloride exposure

A

Liver angiosarcoma (CD31)

39
Q

Terbutaline

A

Beta mimetic tocolytic drug that suppresses uterine contracts to delay labor

40
Q

tinnitis, vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss

A

Meniere’s (Rinne AC >BC, Weber lateralizes to healthy side)

41
Q

Loss of neurons in the caudate nucleus and putamen

A

Huntington

42
Q

Thyroid biopsy that shows nests of polygonal cells with Congo Red Positive deposits

A

Medullary Carcinoma of the thyroid

43
Q

medial granulomas in Takayasu arteritis typically affect which vessel

A

aortic arch

44
Q

Medial Band like calcifications

A

Moncheberg’s medial calcific sclerosis

45
Q

Side effect of Ca channel blocker

A

Blocks L type Ca channels, reducing muscle contractility. SE: cardiac depression, AV block, constipation

46
Q

Side effect of digoxin

A

Na/K ATPase inhibit leads to inhibition of Na/Ca to increase Ca. Stimulates vagal nerve to decrease HR/ SE: cholinergic (n/v/d), blurry yellow vision, AV block, can lead to hyperkalemia

47
Q

necrolytic migratory erythema, (edematous rash near groin area)

A

glucagonoma

48
Q

jejunal ulcers

A

gastrinoma

49
Q

Klinefelter

A

destruction of seminiferous tubules causes decreased inhibin leading to increased FSH. Leydig cells are also damaged causing decreased testosterone. Increased FSH and LH

50
Q

Labs in Klinefelter

A

low T, no sperm, High LH and FSH, increased estrogen

51
Q

Bilateral gynecomastia, with small, firm testes, long lower extremities

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

52
Q

precocious pubuerty, parinaud syndrome, obstructive hydrocephalus

A

Germinoma (pineal region)

53
Q

Precious puberty in boys vs girls

54
Q

paralysis of upward gaze

A

parinauds (superior colliculi)

55
Q

tremor, rhinorrhea, sneezing and diarrhea

A

opioid withdrawal symptoms

56
Q

Opioids

A

decreases synaptic transmission to decrease release of Ach, NE, 5HT, glutamate, substance P

57
Q

what do you give a neonate in opioid withdrawal

A

tincture of opium ( withdrawal can lead to seizures)

58
Q

Oligoclonal bands of IgG in CSF

A

Multiple sclerosis

59
Q

Mechanism of fibrates

A

inhibits 7a hydroxylase

60
Q

How does estrogen increase risk of gallstones

A

Increases biosynthesis of cholesterol by inreasing HMG-CoA reductase

61
Q

Erb-B2

A

tyrosine kinase activity. Associated with breast and ovarian cancers

62
Q

Tx for HTN that can lead to flushing and peripheral edema

A

Amlodipine

63
Q

Tx for HTN and BPH

A

alpha 1 blocker

64
Q

Tx for HTN that can cause gynecomastia

A

Eplerenone

65
Q

Tx for a-fib that can cause constipation and gingival hyperplasia

66
Q

Where does the RNA polymerase bind the lac operon

A

promoter region

67
Q

what does the repressor protein of the lac operon bind?

A

Operator region

68
Q

Ecoli grown in lactose

A

Lactose binds to repressor protein to prevent attachment of repressor to allow transcription

69
Q

Ecoli grown in glucose

A

decreases cAMP to prevent expression of lac operon

70
Q

Ecoli grown without glucose

A

increases cAMP which activates CAP (catabolite activator protein). CAP-cAMP binds to promoter and increases expression of lac operon

71
Q

Outcome of Hep C infection

A

most develop chronic infection

72
Q

when is PaO2 decreased

A

obstructive airway disease (asthma) due to poor alveolar ventilation

73
Q

When is increased SaO2 of VENOUS blood seen

A

CN intoxication due to failure of oxygen unloading in tissues

74
Q

When is decreased SaO2 seen?

A

CO poisoning

75
Q

DNA sensitivity to ionizing radiation, repeated pulmonary infections, ataxia

A

Ataxia telangiectasia

76
Q

Fanconi anemia

A

Sensitivity to DNA cross-linking agents

77
Q

insulin dependent glucose transporter

78
Q

Back pain: relieved with rest and worse with activity. Brief morning stiffness

A

Degernative spondylosis (osteoarthritis)

79
Q

Back pain: radiates to butt or leg, relieved with knee flexion, + straight leg raise

A

Disc herniation

80
Q

Back pain: pain with walking or standing. Relieved by sitting and bending forward

A

Spinal Stenosis

81
Q

Back pain: Man age

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

82
Q

Back pain: constant dull pain that worsens at night. Not responsive to position changes

A

spinal metastasis

83
Q

Back pain: worse at night, tenderness to gentle percussion. Fevers night sweats. Recent infection or IVDU

A

Vertebral osteomyelitis

84
Q

Aldolase B

A

Fructose 1-P –>DHAP & Glyceraldehyde

85
Q

Fructokinase

A

Frutose to Fructose 1 P

86
Q

Aldose reductase

A

Glactose to Galactitol

87
Q

Fructose in the blood and urine

A

Essential fructosuria (fructokinase)

88
Q

Hypogycemia, vomiting, urine dipstick negative

A

Fructose intolerance (aldolase B)

89
Q

High levels of galactose leading to cataracts

A

Aldose reductase (galactose to galactitol)

90
Q

Hypoxia in gram negative sepsis

91
Q

ARDS

A

Adult respiratory distress syndrome. pulmonary interstitial and intra-alveolar edema, inflammation and alveolar hyaline membranes

92
Q

Heinz Body

A

G6PD (denatured Hb)

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