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UW14 Flashcards

1
Q

New borns of mothers with active Hep B require what vaccinations?

A

Passive Hep B Immune Globulin and active immunization with HBV vaccine

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2
Q

Positive skew

A

Mean > Median > Mode

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3
Q

Negative Skew

A

Mode > Median > Mean

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4
Q

Polycythemia labs

A

Hct > 52% in Men and >48% women

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5
Q

causes of relative polycythemia

A

Dehydration or excessive diuresis

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6
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

Increased in hct and increase in all 3 cell lines (RBC, granulocytes, platelets)

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7
Q

labs in hypoxia

A

SaO2

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8
Q

Hirsutism

A

Excessive mae pattern hair growth. Due to inreased androgen production, local increased conversion of Testosterone to DHT or higher sensitivity of hair follicles to DHT

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9
Q

Causes of increased androgen production in women

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing syndrome, Ovarian and adrenal tumors

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10
Q

First line treatment for PCOS

A

OCPS ( decrease LH to decrease androgen production)

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11
Q

What does calcium from the SR bind to?

A

Troponin (moves tropomyosin out of the way) reveals myosin binding site on actin

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12
Q

Replication of HBV

A

Partially dsDNA is repaired and serves as a template for trascription into an intermediate + sense ss RNA which then serves as a template for translation of viral proteins and reverse transcription into DNA

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13
Q

Replication of ParvoB19

A

ssDNA –> dsDNA –> ssDNA progeny

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14
Q

Replication of HSV

A

dsDNA –> dsDNA –> dsDNA progeny

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15
Q

Replication of polio

A

ssRNA+ –> -RNA template –>+RNA progeny

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16
Q

Replication of HIV

A

ssRNA + –> dsDNA template –> ssRNA progeny

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17
Q

Replication of influenza

A

ss RNA - –> +RNA template –> ssRNA progeny

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18
Q

Motor innervation of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal nerve (CNXII)

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19
Q

Sensory innervation of tongue

A

Anterior 2/3: Mandibular (V3). Posterior 1/3 (Glossopharyngeal CN9). Tongue Root (Vagus CN10)

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20
Q

Taste sensation of tongue

A

Anterior 2/3: Chorda tympani (7). Posterior 1/3: Glossopharyngeal (9) Root: Vagus (10)

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21
Q

Which type of RNA contain dihydrouracil residues

A

Transfer RNA (D arm)

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22
Q

Thymide pseudouridine and cytidine is contained in what type of RNA

A

Transfer RNA (T arm)

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23
Q

tRNA is the only RNA species to contain what nucleoside?

A

Thymidine

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24
Q

tRNAs contain what sequence at their 3’ end?

A

CCA

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25
Q

what type of RNA contains a poly A tail and 5’ methylguanosine cap?

A

mRNA

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26
Q

what is the function of the 3’CCA region of tRNA

A

carries amino acid

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27
Q

low set ears, overlapping fingers, small mandible, foot deformity

A

Edwards (Trisomy 18)

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28
Q

cleft lip and palate, polydactylyl, omphalocele

A

Patau (Trisomy 13)

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29
Q

which vitamin D is formed during sun exposure

A

Cholecalciferol (D3)

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30
Q

labs in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

high ca, low phosphate, hypercalceuria

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31
Q

Subperiosteal erosins in phalanges, salt and pepper skull and osteolytic lesions in long bones

A

Hyperparathyroidism ( subperiosteal thinning)

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32
Q

bone pain, renal stones, peptic ulcers

A

hypercalcemia

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33
Q

Disorganized lamellar bone structure

A

Paget

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34
Q

Osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae

A

Vitamin D deficiency

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35
Q

Persistence of primary spongiosa in medullary cavity with no mature trabeculae

A

Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

36
Q

Side effects of TCA

A

Convulsions, Coma, cardiotoxicity. Anti- muscarinic effects. (inhibition of presynaptic neurotransmitter, block Cardic Na channels, block histamine H1 receptors)

37
Q

what are TCAs used for?

A

Major depression, fibromyalgia (amytriptyline), OCD (Clomipramine)

38
Q

First generation H1 blockers

A

Diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, chlorpheniramine (en + ine/ate)

39
Q

Second generation H2 Blockers

A

Loratidine, fexofenadine, desloratidine, cetirizine (Ends in “adine”)

40
Q

Flucytosine

A

converted by fungal cytosine deaminase to 5FU for treatment of cryptococcal infections (with amphotericin B)

41
Q

What causes the outflow obstruction in HCM

A

Mitral valve cusp and interventricular septum

42
Q

Intimal streak

A

earliest lesion of atherosclerosis (major cause of AAA)

43
Q

Intimal tear

A

initiates dissecting aortic aneurysm

44
Q

Medial degeneration

A

formation of elastic tissue and separation of elastic and fibromuscular components of the media. (Marfan)

45
Q

Medial inflammation

A

results in arteritis

46
Q

why does colchicine have GI side effects?

A

Impairs microtubules in GI mucosa causing diarrhea, nausea, vomiting and abdminal pain

47
Q

Obesity, high estrogen, high androgens, infertility

48
Q

acne, hirsutism, male pattern balding, insulin resistance, obesity, dyslipidemia

49
Q

Clomiphene citrate

A

Selective estrogen modulator. Prevents negative feedback inhibition by estrogen to increase FSH and LH–> ovulation

50
Q

high levels of serum IgE, peripheral eosinophilia, hx of allergic disorders

A

atopic dermatitis

51
Q

Allergic triad

A

allergic rhinitis, asthma, atopic dermatitis

52
Q

Burketts lymphoma is associated with what translocation

A

8:14. c-myc (transcription factor)

53
Q

Follicular lymphoma is associated with which translocation

A

14;18. BCL2 (apotosis inhibitor)

54
Q

CML is associated with which translocation

A

9:22. tyrosine kinase (c-abl)

55
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with what translocation

A

11:14. cyclin D1 (promotes G1 to S)

56
Q

Hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, berry aneurysms

A

Ehlers Danlos (defect in lysyl hydroxylase leading to a deficiency in Collagen)

57
Q

hyper elastic joints, tall, long arms

A

Marfans ( defect in fibrillin which normaly forms scaffolding for elastin)

58
Q

which clotting factor has the shortest half life

59
Q

why is PT prologed before PTT in liver cirrhosis

A

Factor 7 has the shortest half life

60
Q

What neurotransmitter is decreased in Huntington

61
Q

Side effect of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

62
Q

Contraindication for metformin

A

Liver dysfunction, congestive heart failure, alcoholism, sepsis ( d/t lactic acidosis)

63
Q

Mothers who are blood type A or B make predominantly what type of antibodies

64
Q

Mothers who are blood type O make predominantly what type of antibodies

65
Q

important complication in Ulcerative colitis

A

Toxic megacolon

66
Q

Tetrahydrobiopterin is a cofactor for the synthesis of what molecules

A

Tyrosine, dopa, serotonin, NO

67
Q

ambiguous genitalia, hypertension, hypokalemia

A

11a OH deficiency

68
Q

female with normal genitalia, hypertension and hypokalemia

A

17a OH deficiency

69
Q

Undervirilized male with hypertension and hypokalemia

A

17a OH deficiency

70
Q

How can testicular cancers cause increased sweating and heat intolerance?

A

increase in hCG can activate TSH receptor (shares similar homology)

71
Q

Tendon xanthomas and xantheasma

A

Hyper-Cholesterolemia

72
Q

Skin xanthoma, recurrent acute pancreatitis

A

Hyper-Triglyceridemia

73
Q

Which familal dyslipidemia has an increased risk of coronary artery disease

A

Familial Hyper-Cholesterolemia (not in hyperTG)

74
Q

Defect in familial chylomicronemia

A

Lipoprotein Lipase or ApoCII (inc. chylomicrons)

75
Q

Defect in Family hypercholesterolemia

A

LDL receptor or ApoB100 (inc. LDL)

76
Q

muscle weakness that improves with use and Hyporeflexia

A

Lambert eaton myasthenic syndrome

77
Q

Gross painless hematuria

A

Urothelial cancer

78
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains which clotting factors

A

8, 13, vWF, fibrinogen

79
Q

Mechanism of Niacin in hyperlipidemia

A

decreases VLDL synthesis

80
Q

Mechanism of statins

A

HMG coA reductase inhibitor ( decrease cholesterol synthesis which leads to increase in LDL uptake)

81
Q

when is a result considered statistically significant

A

corresponding CI must NOT contain the null value (RR=1)

82
Q

subdural hematoma with bilateral retinal hemorrhages in an infant

A

Shaken baby syndrome

83
Q

Charcot Bouchard aneurysms can lead to

A

intraparachymal hemorrhage

84
Q

ulcer in distal duodenum

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

85
Q

PUD ulcers are located

A

lesser curvature

86
Q

Typical duodenal ulcers are located

A

within 3 cm of the pylorus

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