UW Buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

Subcutaneous nodules (xanthomas), family history

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia; decreased LDL receptors

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2
Q

Mid-abdominal pain, waking up during the night, relieved by eating a light meal

A

Peptic ulcer; urea breath test for urease produced by Helicobacter pylori

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3
Q

Low-pitched, mid-diastolic murmur at the cardiac apex

A

Mitral stenosis (MS), most commonly caused by Rheumatic fever

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4
Q

Mild abdominal discomfort (GI hamartomatous polyps), pigmented mucocutaneous macules

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, autosomal dominant

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5
Q

Tender mass, cytoplasmic vacuoles (cytoplasmic lipid), scalloping of the nuclear membrane

A

Liposarcoma

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6
Q

In autoimmune blistering disease (Pemphigus vulgaris), the autoantibodies react with an antigen at which location?

A

Epidermis (desmogleins)

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7
Q

An infant dies from shortness of breath and low lung compliance (Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, NRDS). Which cells are dysfunctional?

A

Type 2 pneumocytes

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8
Q

Apical bronchogenic carcinoma that invades the brachial plexus (Pancoast tumor) results in eye asymmetry and anisocoria (Horner syndrome)

A

Sympathetic trunk (superior cervical ganglion) invovled

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9
Q

Method to achieve fertility in a patient with Turner’s syndrome

A

In vitro fertilization (IVF)

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10
Q

Depressive patient complaints excessive thirst and dry mouth after hospitalization, urine remains dilute following water depreviation

A

Renal tubular dysfunction caused by lithium; nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)

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11
Q

Infant, bright bleeding per rectum, microscopic evaluation of discharge reveal gastric mucosal cells

A

Gastric mucosa (Meckel diverticulum)

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12
Q

Chest pain, sudden death of an African American in young age

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM); Normal coronary arteries, hypertrophy of the LV myocardium, LV outlet obstruction

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13
Q

Second heart sound (S2)

A

Closure of the aortic (A2) and pulmonic valves (P2); left ventricular pressure has fallen just below aortic pressure at the onset of isovolumetric left ventricular relaxation.

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14
Q

Best blood donor for a patient with IgA deficiency

A

A patient with IgA deficiency; due to anti-IgA antibodies in their blood

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15
Q

Replicating DNA strands contains multiple discontinuous fragments of DNA with intervening RNA fragments (RNA primer).

A

DNA polymerase I inhibited

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16
Q

Most accurate ROC curve in diagnosing a disease

A

The curve has the largest area under the curve

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17
Q

Elderly female, adnexal mass, abdominal discomfort

A

Ovarian caner; increased CA 125

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18
Q

Solid organ transplant patient, decling renal function

A

Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity

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19
Q

Vomiting, Parkinson history, which medication should be avoided?

A

Metroclopramide; can exacerbate Parkinsonian syndrome

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20
Q

Urine turns dark on standing, homogentisic acid in urine, what is the most prominent long-term consequence?

A

Debilitating arthritis; due to alkaptonuria, homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase (HGO) deficiency

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21
Q

Rigidity, tremor that disappears with motion

A

Parkinsonism, damage to substantia nigra, located in the midbrain

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22
Q

A patient with atrial fibrillation experience foot pain (acute ischemia), which is most likely increased in the extracellular space of the affected region?

A

Potassium, via reduced functionality of membrane Na-K-ATPase

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23
Q

Darkly stained (protein accumulation) cells adjacent to the renal glomerulus

A

Juxtaglomerular cells, secrete renin

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24
Q

Amniotic fluid is added to a test well containing ethanol, shaken, stable ring of foam

A

Test for surfactant

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25
Q

Female athlete, vertebral fracture (osteoporosis), disordered eating, amenorrhea

A

Estrogen deficiency, due to decreased LH and GnRH

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26
Q

Vision prolem (ectopia lentis), mental retardation, cystathionine synthase deficiency

A

Homocystinuria; Methionine and Homocysteine accumulate

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27
Q

A round fluid-filled space within pancreas on CT (Pancreatic pseudocyst)

A

Acute pancreatitis

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28
Q

Complementary DNA sequences run in an antiparallel direction

A

From 3’ end to 5’ end

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29
Q

Heparin is a safer choice in pregnant woman compared to warfarin because of?

A

High water solubility; warfarin is a lipophilic molecule that can easily cross the placenta

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30
Q

Urinary infection caused by Gram-negative cocci

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae; pili is responsible for infection

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31
Q

Treatment of Eye infection in AIDS (CMV retinitis)

A

Ganciclovir, blocks DNA chain elongation

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32
Q

Benefits of smoking cessation

A

Decreases the risk of lung cancer, myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accident

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33
Q

Outbreak transmitted from poultry to human (bird flu, avian flu)

A

antigenic shift, genetic reassortment

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34
Q

Early adulthood, muscle pain on exertion, exercise tolerance

A

McArdle disease (glycogen storage disease type IV), impaired glycogenolysis

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35
Q

Peaked T-waves on EKG

A

Hyperkalemia

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36
Q

Bulging eyes, weight loss, palpitation

A

Graves disease; glycosaminoglycan synthesis by fibroblasts results in the eye symptoms

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37
Q

Palpitations, dyspnea on exertion, an irregular heartbeat and absence of p-waves on EKG

A

Atrial fibrillation (AF); loss of the a-wave from the jugular venous pressure (JVP) tracing.

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38
Q

A child squats during cyanotic episodes in order to improve oxygenation

A

Tetralogy of Fallot, most common cyanotic congenital heart defect

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39
Q

A tumor on the dorsal midbrain (pineal tumor)

A

Upward gaze palsy, absent pupillary light reflex, failure of convergence and a wide-based gait

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40
Q

Where do gastrointestinal stem cells reside?

A

Crypts of Lieberkuhn

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41
Q

Chronic alcoholic, frequent falls, tremor

A

Damage of cerebellum

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42
Q

An agent that increases peripheral vascular resistance, increases systolic blood pressure, decreases pulse pressure, and decreases heart rate

A

Phenylephrine, a selective _1-adrenergic receptor agonist

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43
Q

TATA and CAAT boxes

A

Transcription initiators

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44
Q

Hypermobile joints, hyperextensible skin, brusies easily, family history

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS), an autosomal recessive defect in lysyl hydroxylase; bruising tendency is similar to Vitamin C deficiency

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45
Q

In radioimmunoassay (RIA), if substance Y and substance X had the same epitoes, then

A

The plot of radioactivity against increasing concentraiton of substance Y would show a proportionate decrease in radioactivity.

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46
Q

A defense mechanism where inappropirate actions are explained using logical reasoning that was not part of the thought process leading to the original action

A

Rationalization

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47
Q

Liver biopsy shows spherical nodules within the confines of fibrous septae.

A

Cirrhosis; the regenerative nodules are composed of proliferating hepatocytes.

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48
Q

Increased resistance to passive movement about a joint (cogwheel regidity)

A

Parkinson disease

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49
Q

Young female evaluated for infertility, normal height and normal progesterone level

A

Previous pelvic inflammatory disease

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50
Q

Antibiotics that bind to a pocket within the 23S rRNA moiety of the prokaryotic 50S ribosomal subunit, block translocation of the ribosome along mRNA.

A

Macrolide (e.g., Erythromycin) and clindamycin

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51
Q

A painless, compressible mass above the left clavicle that transilluminate

A

Cystic hygroma; associated with chromosomal aneuploidy (i.e., Turner syndrome, trisomies)

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52
Q

The neuronal action potential will increase with

A

Increase in extracellular sodium concentrations or decreases in intracellular sodium concentrations

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53
Q

A linear, erythematous rash that develops shortly after a hiking trip

A

Plant-induced allergic contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy); type IV hypersensitivity (delayed-type hypersensitivity)

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54
Q

Sickle cell patient, sepsis due to encapsulated Gram-positive cocci

A

Splenic atrophy

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55
Q

Lactose intolerance getting worse with age

A

Expression of lactase gene declines with age

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56
Q

External radiation therapy to the head and neck during childhood

A

Increased riks of developing thyroid cancer

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57
Q

Inappropriate sexual behavior, constant food seeking (oral fixation), hyperphagia

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome (KBS); damage to amygdala (temporal lobe)

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58
Q

In the urea cycle, which step releases urea

A

Arginine to ornithine

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59
Q

Mechnical ventilation, blood pH > 7.4, PaCO2 < 40 mmHg

A

Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation; kidney compensation results in increased urine pH

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60
Q

Mechanism of action for clyclosporine

A

Inhibiting IL-2 transcription

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61
Q

Lip smaking and tongue protruding (Involuntary movements), psychiatric history

A

Tardive dyskinesia, upregulation of dopamine receptors, decrease in cholinergic tone in the striatum

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62
Q

Deficiency of dopamine hydroxylase

A

Orthostatic hypotension (defect in sympathetic nervous system)

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63
Q

P wave in EKG

A

Atrial depolarization

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64
Q

Exertional dyspnea, poor exercise tolerance, smoking history

A

COPD, increased residual volume and total lung capacity

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65
Q

When normal cells are cultured in a Petri dish, they reproduce until the medium is covered with a single layer of cells.

A

Contact inhibition. Malignant cells do not show contact inhibition and will pile up into small mounds.

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66
Q

Advantage of the inactivated polio vaccine over the oral form

A

Does not revert to a virulent form

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67
Q

Face and neck edema, neck vein engorgement

A

Superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome. In axial sections, the SVC can be seen in the region of the right heart, just lateral to the ascending aorta.

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68
Q

Midshaft fractures of the humerus

A

Radial nerve injury; weakness of elbow extension.

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69
Q

Deficiency of carbonic anhydrase in bone cells

A

Impaired bone modeling (bone demineralization)

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70
Q

dsDNA replication (e.g., adenovirus)

A

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

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71
Q

Painful pharyngeal contractures, eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in hippocampal neurons (Negri bodies)

A

Rabies infection; animal contact

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72
Q

Which will be increased in renal artery stenosis?

A

Filtration fraction, due to decreased renal blood flow.

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73
Q

Understimulation of which receptor is responsible for orthostatic hypotension?

A

_1-adrenergic receptor

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74
Q

Which medication to treat psoriasis has strong teratogenic potential?

A

Acitretin

75
Q

Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin)

A

Poor drug penetration through the bacterial membrane

76
Q

Weight loss agent FDA-approved for the treatment of obesity

A

Orlistat; inhibiting intestinal lipase to inhibit fat absorption in the gut

77
Q

Curve produced by Cooperative kinetics

A

Sigmoid shape. Michaelis-Menten kinetics produces a hyperbolic curve.

78
Q

Venous drainge from the rectum to liver

A

Superior rectal vein -> inferior mesenteric vein -> splenic vein -> portal vein

79
Q

Dry skin (xerosis)

A

Skin moisturization after bathing

80
Q

Exercise-induced muscle pain, colored urine (myoglobinuria)

A

McArdle disease (glycogen storage disease V), glycogen accumulation, myophosphorylase deficiency

81
Q

Effect of insulin on phosphofructoinase (PFK-2)

A

Increased fructose-6-phosphate -> promoting PFK-2 activity -> increased fructose-2,6-bisphosphate (glycolysis)

82
Q

Membrane-associated proteins (hydrophobic)

A

Glycine, alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, tryptophan, methionine, and proline.

83
Q

Spread of infection from the orbit, nose and paranasal sinuses will result in thrombosis of which dural sinus?

A

Cavernous sinus

84
Q

Cyanosis that worsens with feeding, crying or exercise; squat to improve pulmonary blood flow

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

85
Q

Bilateral parotid swelling, a swollen and tender scrotum, does not “fell like having sex”

A

Mumps-induced orchitis; Leydig cell atrophy, decreased testosterone

86
Q

Abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, homosexual, trophozoites with phagocytosed blood cells in stool

A

Entamoeba histolytica; transmitted through oral-anal contact

87
Q

Lumbar lordosis

A

Excessive contracture of the hip flexors, weakness of the hip extensors.

88
Q

Proteinuria, spike-like deposition, adult

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis; associated with chronic infection, autoimmune disease, or an underlying carcinoma

89
Q

GI hormones stimulate insulin release following oral consumption of glucose

A

Incretin, glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1), gastric inhibitory peptide (glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, GIP)

90
Q

An infant born to a hypertensive women, renal failure

A

ACE inhibitor fetopathy (AIF); impaired angiotensinogen metabolism

91
Q

Mechanism of action of Statins

A

Increased LDL receptor-mediated endocytosis in hepatocytes, decreased circulating LDL levels

92
Q

ApoB-48, a truncated form of ApoB-100, is produced by

A

Intestinal enterocytes; ApoB-100 is produced by hepatocytes.

93
Q

Testis, Gram stain shows neutrophils but no organisms

A

Chlamydia trachomatis; treat with bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor (e.g., azithromycin).

94
Q

Penicillin and probenecid

A

Imipenem and cilastatin; combinations of an antibiotic with a drug that inhibits renal tubular secretion of the antibiotic.

95
Q

Tetracycline side effects

A

Tooth discoloration, retarded bone formation.

96
Q

Hypertension, hypokalemia, deficiencies of cortisol and sex steroids

A

17_-hydroxylase deficiency (congenital adrenal hyperplasia)

97
Q

Cough syncope

A

Decreased venous return to the heart

98
Q

DNA from skin cells accumulates covalently bound adjacent pyrimidines

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum; defects in DNA repair process

99
Q

t(14; 18), Bcl-2

A

Follicular lymphoma

100
Q

Spider angiomas

A

High estrogen

101
Q

Flesh-colored skin nodules (cafe-au-lait), axillary freckling, pigmented iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules)

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1, Schwann cells proliferations in the skin nodules

102
Q

Normal distribution, 68/95/99 rule

A

68% within 1 SD, 95% within 2 SDs, 99.7% within 3 SDs of the mean.

103
Q

Drug raising HDL level

A

Niacin; use Aspirin to diminishe the side effects

104
Q

Abdominal cramping, loose and blood stools, neutrophils accumulate in the crypt mucosa

A

Ulcerative colitis

105
Q

Ovarian follicular atresia

A

Apoptosis

106
Q

Agglutination inhibition test

A

Presence of agglutination is considered a negative result

107
Q

Urinary retention due to taking antidepressant drug

A

Tricyclic antidepressant (e.g., amitriptyline)

108
Q

Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

A

Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) are the most common cause of RFLP.

109
Q

Paclitaxel coating in coronary artery stents

A

Inhibiting intimal hyperplasia

110
Q

Fever, chills, sore throat, a single-strand RNA virus that replicates in the nucleus

A

Influenza A

111
Q

Effect of insulin on the GLUT4 protein in adipose cells

A

Translocates the protein to the cell membrane

112
Q

Muscle that pulls the distal clavicular fragment inferolaterally

A

Deltoid; Trapezius draws superomedially

113
Q

Numbness of the anterolateral leg and dorsal foot

A

Injury of common peroneal nerve

114
Q

Seven transmembrane _-helical domains

A

G protein

115
Q

High blood ammonium, increased urinary orotic acid (accumulation of carbamoyl phosphate)

A

Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency

116
Q

Defective proline hydroxylation

A

Failure of triple-helix formation and stabilization by pro-alpha chains during collagen synthesis

117
Q

Bacterial host DNA is packages into a bacteriophage (viron instead of viral genome)

A

Transduction, no new virus synthesized. Virion is able to infect cells, but not able to produce progeny.

118
Q

Temporal lobe herniated through tentorium

A

Uncal herniation; oculomotor nerve affected

119
Q

Multiple physical complaints including four pain symptoms, two GI symptoms, one sexual symptom and one pseudoneurological symptom before age 30

A

Somatization disorder

120
Q

The number of CAG (polyglutamine) repeats increases

A

Huntington disease; anticipation

121
Q

Postmenopausal female, vertebral fracture following minor trauma

A

Osteoporosis; ovarian hypofunction, estrogen deficiency

122
Q

Memory impairment in an alcoholic patient

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

123
Q

17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency, insufficient sex hormones and cortisol and overproduce aldosterone

A

LH and ACTH increased, renin decreased

124
Q

Heterozygote of MCAD deficiency

A

Have half the normal level of MCAD activity while remaining phenotypically normal

125
Q

Biochemical pathway that uses glycine and succinyl-CoA as substrates in liver

A

Heme synthesis

126
Q

Fatigue, muscle cramps and weakness

A

Hypokalemia

127
Q

Tuberculosis of the lumbar vertebrae

A

Psoas major muscle involved, abcess in the groin

128
Q

Young patient preseting with herpes zoster (grouped or solitary vesicles on an erythematous base in a dermatomal distribution)

A

test HIV

129
Q

Antihypertensive drug that causes increased renin level and decreased angiotensin II and aldosterone levels

A

ACE inhibitor (e.g., captopril)

130
Q

Virus antigen that gains acces to the cell by non-normal way(injection) treated as extrinsic protein

A

MHC II are expressed by macrophages and B cells, recognized by CD4 helper T cells

131
Q

Elderly female, pain and stiffness in fingers after knitting

A

Osteoarthritis; repeated mechanical trauma

132
Q

Mechnical ventilation, respiratory acidosis, hypoxemia

A

Increased physiologic dead space and/or physiologic right-to-left shunt

133
Q

Microsatellite instability

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC, Lynch syndrome)

134
Q

Female, dyspareunia, red/blue punctate lesions on the bladder mucosa

A

Endometriosis; infertility

135
Q

HIV, abdominal pain, diarrhea, colonoscopy shows erythema, ulcerations and nodular lesions.

A

CMV (herpesvirus) colitis

136
Q

Antiretroviral medication derived from gp41 on HIV

A

Enfuvirtide; prevent HIV viral fusion and entry into host cells

137
Q

Severe lower extremity in the absence of an explanation for such edema (e.g., right heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis or nephrotic syndrome)

A

Inferior vena cava (IVC) obstruction

138
Q

Flank pain, flank mass, hematuria, increased hemoglobin

A

Excessive erythropoietin produced by renal cell carcinoma

139
Q

A single point mutation in the viral protease region of the HIV pol gene

A

Resistance to all protease inhibitors, with the suffix “-navir”. (e.g., indinavir, ritonavir)

140
Q

Cerebellar and retinal hemangioblastomas

A

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome; renal cell carcinoma, pheochromocytoma

141
Q

Decreased 2,3-BPG

A

Increased oxygen affinity of normal hemoglobin; dissociation curve resembles that of fetal hemoglobin (HbF).

142
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

Copper deposits in the cornea (Kayser-Fleischer ring)

143
Q

Phagocytosis of bacterials by neutrophils

A

NADPH oxidase; Neutrophil oxidative (respiratory) burst

144
Q

Point mutation resulting in the substitution of one amino acid for another

A

Missense mutation

145
Q

A firm, mobile breast nodule in young woman, increasing in size during pregnancy, lactation or menstrual cycle

A

Fibroadenoma

146
Q

Mutation of chromosome 9p21

A

Dysplastic nevus syndrome; family history of melanoma

147
Q

Widening of the mediastinum and an abnormal aortic contour on chest x-ray, chronic uncontrolled hypertension, normal EKG

A

Aortic dissection

148
Q

Drugs that increase choloride conductance produced by GABA

A

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates; Flumazenil competitively inhibits benzodiazepines.

149
Q

Cardiovascular response to exercise: increased heart rate and LV end-diastolic volume, decreased LV end-systolic volume, unchanged LV end-diastolic pressure

A

Normal response to exercise

150
Q

Chronic alcohol consumption

A

Cerebellar degeneration; derivative of the rhombencephalon

151
Q

A short _-helix protein fragment with leucine residues at every seventh position

A

Leucine zipper dimerization domain; nucleic acid-binding domain

152
Q

Painless lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, weight loss, owl’s eyes cell (Reed-Sternberg)

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

153
Q

G protein-coupled receptor stimulates hydrolysis of membrane-bound phospholipids

A

Phospholipase C -> IP3 -> DAG -> Ca2+ efflux -> Protein Kinase-c

154
Q

The first reaction in the synthesis of pyrimidines using CO2 occurs in

A

Cytosol

155
Q

Pain due to flex the hip against resistance

A

Psoas muscle inflammation

156
Q

Chronic alcoholic, foot edema, exertional dyspnea

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

157
Q

What structure of mycobacterial cell membranes is responsible for Carbolfuchsin stain (acid-fast staining)

A

Mycolic acid; inhibited by isoniazid.

158
Q

Crescentic proliferations of the epithelial cells lining Bowman’s space on histologic examination

A

Anti-GBM disease (Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, RPGN); IgG deposits.

159
Q

Irregular vaginal bleeding and high _-hCG within weeks after childbirth

A

Choriocarcinoma

160
Q

An enlarged parathyroid gland and three small atrophic parathyroid glands

A

Negative feedback inhibition; parathyroid adenoma

161
Q

Acne drugs binding nuclear receptors

A

Retinoid (isotretinoin, acitretin, tretinoin, adapalene, and tazarotene)

162
Q

Major risk factors for coronary artery disease

A

Smoking, dyslipidemia, hypertension, diabetes, prior ischemic heart disease

163
Q

Which structures pass through the diaphragm alongside the esophagus?

A

Vagus trunks

164
Q

Mechanism of action of amlodipine (calcium channel blocker)

A

Decreases afterload and cardiac work by causing arteriolar vasodilatation

165
Q

Young adult, pancreatic islet cells have a high set point for insulin secretion

A

Glucokinase deficiency; maturity onset diabetes of the yourng (MODY)

166
Q

Severe hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, administration of fructose causes lactic acidosis

A

von Gierke disease (glycogen storage disease type I), glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

167
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, hypotonia in infant, PAS-positive intracellular granules (glycogen accumulation within lysosomes)

A

Pompe disease (glycogen storage disease type II), lysosomal enzyme deficiency (acid maltase, acid alpha-glucosidase)

168
Q

Male, infertility, gynecomastia, small firm testes, low testosterone, increased LH and estradiol

A

Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY); karyotype analysis for diagnosis

169
Q

Typical lab findings of DIC

A

Low fibrinogen and pletelets, prolongation of PT and PTT, increased fibrin degradation products

170
Q

Subtherapeutic INR (low INR, warfarin is metabolized faster)

A

P450 inducer (e.g., phenobarbital antiepileptic therapy)

171
Q

Blue-black discoloration of the skin, nails, cartilage and sclerae

A

Ochronosis; tyrosine degradation impairment, alkaptonuria

172
Q

Sickle cell anemia, bone pain

A

Osteomyelitis, Gram-negative rod (Selmonella)

173
Q

Pinpoint pupils, loss of horizontal gaze, quadriparesis, decerebrate posturing, and rapidly evolving coma culminating in death within hours

A

Pontine hemorrhage

174
Q

Brain tumor, increased intracranial pressure

A

Vasogenic edema

175
Q

Reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis, urethritis

A

Reiter syndrome; urogenital infection with Chlamydia trachomatis

176
Q

Which structure within the female genital tract has two types of epithelium

A

Cervix; columnar epthelium and stratified squamous epithelium

177
Q

Lockjaw

A

Tetanus; exotoxin-induced muscle spasm

178
Q

Anti-HAV IgM positive

A

Acute hepatitis A

179
Q

Menigitis in AIDS, yeast in CSF

A

Cryptococcus neoformans infection; treat with amphotericin B (binds ergosterol, creating pores in fungal cell membranes).

180
Q

Reddish-purple skin patches in AIDS

A

Kaposi sarcoma; associated human herpes virus-8 (HHV-8)

181
Q

Fail to concentrate urine with dehydration, increased vasopressin

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI); renal tubular dysfunction

182
Q

Renal tubular dysfunction due to lung nodule

A

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

183
Q

Platelet inhibition drugs that are analogs of the carboxyl terminal of the delta chain of fibrinogen

A

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist (abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban); competitive inhibitor of integrin

184
Q

Clopidogrel coadministrated with omeprazole increases the risk of thrombosis

A

Clopidogrel must be activated by P450, a P450 inhibitor (omeprazole) would decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel.