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FNP: Systems Review > Urology > Flashcards

Urology Flashcards

1
Q
  • Sexually active female with a missed period for 6-7 weeks.
  • Complaints of lower abdominal/pelvic pain or intermittent cramping.
  • Pain worsens when in supine or with jarring.
  • Pain can radiate to shoulder, if ruptured
A
  • Ectopic Pregnancy
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2
Q
  • Teenage to young male complains of nodule, sensation, of heaviness, aching, one larger testicle.
  • Can present as a new onset of hydrocele
  • Usually painless and asymptomatic until metastasis.
  • More common in White males age 15 to 30
A
  • Testicular Cancer
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3
Q
  • Risk Factors for UTIs include
A
  • Female gender = highest during reproductive years
  • Pregnancy
  • History of UTIs or History of recurrent UTIs
  • Failure to void after sex (honeymoon bladder)
  • Spermacide use
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4
Q
  • School-age male with complaints of abrupt onset of blue-colored round mass located on the testicular surface.
A
  • Torsion of the Appendix Testes (Blue Dot Sign)

* Send to E/R

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5
Q

This drug class is known to cause sexual dysfunction:

A

*SSRIs (Prozac, Paxil, Zoloft)…SSRIs are known to cause sexual dysfunction in males…Antidepressants (Bupropion/Wellbutrin) have less sexual dysfunction effects.

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6
Q

If a woman is breastfeeding, what Vitamin supplement does her infant need IMMEDIATELY?

A

Vitamin D

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7
Q

The most common cause of “NON-GONOCOCCAL” urethritis is:

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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8
Q
  • This develops in the testes, in approximately 3 months.

* It is stimulated by both testosterone and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

Spermatogenesis

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9
Q

The caloric content of breast milk and infant formula used:

A

20Kcal/30ml

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10
Q
  • Also known as the appendix of the testes.
  • A small, round, pedunculated polyp-like structure that is attached to the testicular surface.
  • Most commonly in school-aged boys
A
  • Blue Dot Sign

* MEDICAL EMERGENCY: REFER TO E/R

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11
Q
  • Blue Dot Sign is caused by what?
A
  • Infarction and Necrosis of the Appendix Testes
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12
Q
  • Treatment for Acute prostatitis in a male less than 35 years of age includes:
A
  • Rocephin 250mg IM and Doxycycline 100mg BID x 10 days (usually due to S.T.I)
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13
Q
  • Treatment for Chronic prostatitis includes:
A
  • Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, or Ofloxacin p.o daily for 4-6 weeks.
  • Alternative: Bactrim B.I.D for 4-6 weeks
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14
Q

What is the most common non-sexual cause of Acute Prostatitis in Adult to middle age men?

A

Enterobacter

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15
Q
  • What is the most common cause of Acute Prostatitis in Older men?
A

E. Coli and Proteus

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16
Q

Proscar (Finesteride) is an example of a:

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitor

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17
Q
  • A yeast infection of the penis.

* Mainly found in uncircumcised, diabetic, and immunocompromised males.

A
  • Balantitis
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18
Q
  • Treatment for Balantitis includes:
A

Topical Antifungals (azole) creams

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19
Q
  • Inflammatory localized disorder of the penis that causes fibrotic plaques on the tunica albuginea.
  • Results in painful, crooked erections, with palpable nodules.
A

Peyronies Disease (Refer to Urologists)

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20
Q
  • 1st line medications for erectile dysfunction includes:
A
  • Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor (Sildenafil/Viagra and Vardenafil/Levitra)
  • Take 30 to 60 minutes before sex
  • Duration is 4 hours
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21
Q

Sildenafil/Viagra and Vardenafil/Levitra should be taken how:

A
  • On an empty stomach (foods and fats delay the action of the medication)
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22
Q
  • Taladafil/Cialis should be taken when?
A
  • 2 hours before sex.

* Duration is 36 hours.

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23
Q
  • Foreskin stuck in the retracted position.

* Cannot be pushed back from glans penis due to edema.

A

Phimosis

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24
Q

How many organism must a urinalysis read in order to be considered as a UTI

A
  • 100,000 or 10,000 CFU of one organism.
  • 10,000 or higher WBCs (Leukocytes)
  • Nitrates (+)
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25
Q
  • Treatment for “Uncomplicated” UTI for women includes:
A
  • 3 days of Nitrofurantoin/Macrobid (1st choice).

* Bactrim or Septra B.I.D for 3 days.

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26
Q
  • Uncomplicated UTI for men includes:
A
  • 7-10 days of Nitrofurantoin/Macrobid (1st choice)
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27
Q
  • For complicated UTIs, treatment would include
A
  • Antibiotic, and…

* Antispasmotic (Pyridium or Urispas)

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28
Q
  • What is the most common form of incontinence?
A
  • Mixed-incontinence
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29
Q
  • Treatment for urge, stress, or mixed incontinence
A
  • Weight loss
  • Kegal Exercise (Pelvic muscle exercises)
  • Frequent voiding
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30
Q
  • Filamentous structures are likely:

* Uniform, oval structures are likely:

A
  • Hyphae

* Yeast

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31
Q
  • A prostate with a tumor with feel:
A
  • Nodular
  • Asymmetrical
  • Indurated
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32
Q
  • Post menopausal bleeding, which pathologies should be considered 1st?
A
  • Uterine Pathology, and…

* Endometrial Pathology

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33
Q
  • If a pap smear with HPV co-testing is negative, when would the next cervical cancer screening be done.
A
  • In 5 years.
34
Q
  • The American Cancer Society recommends that the average man starts screening for prostate cancer at what age?
A
  • 50 years of age (Caucasians)
35
Q
  • Hot flashes during menopause are related to a fluctuation in which hormone?
A
  • Estrogen levels
36
Q
  • The most common cause of epididymitis in men is?
A
  • Chlamydia Trachomatis infection
37
Q
  • The primary risk factor for the development of breast cancer in women of average risk is:
38
Q
  • Common clinical presentation of an inguinal hernia is:
A
  • Groin or Abdominal pain, with a scrotal mass
39
Q
  • Infections of the upper urinary tract and renal parenchyma

* #1 risk factor is untreated/undertreated UTI

A
  • Acute Pylelonephritis
40
Q
  • The difference between pyelonephritis and UTI is:
A
  • The presence of Pyuria.
41
Q
  • Treatment for Acute Pyelonephritis includes:
A
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Augmentin + Rocephin (Quinolone allergy or inability to take quinolones)
  • Must Get A Culture Before Starting Tx*
42
Q
  • Screening Test is an ELISA
43
Q
  • This STI produces a Malodorous Discharge:
A
  • Trichomoniasis and Bacterial Vaginosis
44
Q
  • DNA probe is used for screening this STI
A
  • Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
45
Q
  • FTA-ABS and MHA-TP are diagnostic test for this STI
46
Q
  • The screening for Syphillis is:
A
  • RPR or VDRL
47
Q
  • Treatment for Bacterial Vaginosis includes:
A
  • Metronidazole (Flagyl) 500mg B.I.D x 7 days (Alternative from 1st line)
48
Q
  • 1st line treatment for Trichomoniasis includes:
A
  • Metronidazole/Flagyl 2mg p.o as a single dose or Tidazole 2mg p.o as a single dose
49
Q
  • Known as a Chlamydial and/or Gonococcal infection of the liver capsule (NOT THE LIVER ITSELF).
  • Results in extensive scarring between the liver capsule and abdominal contents.
A
  • Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome (Peri-Hepatitis)
50
Q
  • The scars of Peri-Hepatitis/Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome look like:
A
  • Violin Strings
51
Q

Treatment for Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome, and “COMPLICATED” Chlamydia or Gonorrhea includes:

A
  • Ceftriaxone 250 IM x 1 dose, plus…

* Doxycycline 100mg B.I.D x 14days

52
Q
  • Acute febrile reaction than can occur during the 1st 24 hours after treatment of syphilis.
  • An immune mediated reaction that usually resolves spontaneously.
  • Treatment is supportive.
A
  • Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction
53
Q
  • Treatment for Chlamydia Trachomatis includes:
A
  • Azythromycin 1gm p.o in a single dose, or…

* Doxycycline 100mg p.o B.I.D x 7 days

54
Q
  • What medication is used for the treatment of chlamydia in pregnant women
A
  • Azythromycin
55
Q
  • STD with new onset of swollen red knee (or another joint) is usually caused by:
A
  • Disseminated Gonorrheal Infection (DGI).
56
Q

A possible complication of severe eclampsia include:

A
  • Abruptio Placenta
57
Q
  • This culture is recommended for “Screening” to diagnose Pharyngeal gonorrheal or proctitis.
A
  • Thayer-Martin Culture
58
Q
  • Amenorrhea
  • Nausea and Vomiting
  • Breast Changes
  • Fatigue
    Urinary Frequency
    **The above mentioned are what ____ signs of pregnancy
A
  • Presumptive Signs of Pregnancy
59
Q
  • Red, tender, sometimes swollen lump on the affected scrotum.
  • Usually caused by spread of bacteria from the urethra or bladder.
  • Most common infections include chlamydia and/or gonorrhea.
A
  • Epidymitis
60
Q
  • Probable Signs of Pregnancy include:
A
  • Goodell’s sign (Softening of the cervix)
  • Chadwick’s sign (Blue coloration of the cervix and vagina)
  • Hegar’s sign (softening of the uterine)
  • Ballotment
  • “Quickening” (baby movements)
61
Q
  • To determine the effectiveness of the 5 alpha reductase inhibitor (Proscar), what needs to be done.
A
  • Obtain a PSA and multiply by 2

* Proscar shrinks the prostate by 50%

62
Q
  • TORCH infections can cause:
A
  • Microcephaly.
  • Mental Retardation.
  • Hepatosplenomegaly.
  • Intrauterine Growth Retardation.
63
Q
  • Breast buds and Testicular growth take place in what Tanner Stage?
A

Tanner Stage II

64
Q

In Tanner Stage III, how do the breast on a female appear?

A

Breast and Areola development are on one mound

65
Q

When does “Menarche” begin

A

Within 1 to 2 years after Tanner Stage II

66
Q

Condyloma Acuminata are also known as:

A

Genital Warts from HPV

67
Q

A boggy prostate is usually indicative of:

A
  • Bacterial prostatitis (NOT BPH)
68
Q

Surgical interventions for BPH should be considered in the following:

A
  • Ineffective lifestyle modifications
  • Recurrent UTIs
  • Recurrent or persistent hematuria
  • Bladder stones
  • Renal insufficiency
69
Q
  • Non-Infectious Epididymitis is common in
A
  • Men who sit for long periods of time
  • Men who lift “heavy” objects
  • Men who do “extreme” upper body or abdomen workouts.
70
Q
  • Vesicular or ulcerative lesions on the external genitalia (often not noted by the patient)
  • Progresses to inguinal lymphadenitis or buboes.
  • It is caused by “Chlamydia Trachomatis”
A
  • Lymphogranulomas
71
Q

Treatment for Epididymitis in a male

A
  • Cetriaxone 250mg I.M x one, then…
  • Doxycycline 100mg B.I.D x 10 days
  • * Treat just like GC Chlamydia**
72
Q

Treatment for Epididymitis in a male > 35 years of age

A
  • Ciprofloxacin 500mg daily x 7-10 days, or…
  • Levofloxacin 500mg to 750mg daily x 10-14 days, or…
  • Ofloxacin 300mg daily x 10 days
    * Give a Fluroquinolone*
73
Q
  • Acute onset of Suprapubic or Perineal pain/discomfort, that may radiate to the back or rectum.
  • High Fever and Chills
  • UTI symptoms such as urinary frequency, dysuria, nocturia, or cloudy urine.
  • Digital Rectal Exam (DRE) reveals a warm, BOGGY, tender prostate
A
  • Acute Prostatitis
74
Q
  • Chronic Prostatitis symptoms include:
A
  • Gradual onset
  • Prostate can feel normal
  • May be asymptomatic or may have “Irritatiing” UTI symptoms: urinary frequency, dysuria, nocturia
  • ***NO SYSTEMIC SYMPTOMS (i.e fever, chills)
75
Q
  • Adverse effects of Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (Viagra/sildenafil, Vardenafil/Levitra, Taladenafil/Cialis) include:
A
  • Headache
  • Flushing
  • Priaprism
  • HYPOTENSION
76
Q
  • Abrupt onset of painful, red, swollen testicle
  • Frequently accompanied by nausea/vomiting
  • Cremasteric reflex is MISSING
  • A medical emergency (Refer to E/R)
A
  • Testicular Torsion
77
Q
  • What is the “Cremasteric Reflex”
A
  • Whichever thigh is stroke, the testicle on that side (ipsilateral side) will rise closer to the body.
  • Missing Cremasteric Reflex = Testicular Torsion (send to E/R).
78
Q
  • CryptoOrchidism increases the risk of:
A
  • Testicular Cancer
79
Q
  • A WBC cast is significant of
A
  • Pyelonephritis
80
Q
  • An RBC cast and proteinuria are diagnostic for:
A
  • Glomerulonephritis

FNP: Systems Review (10 decks)

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