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Urology Flashcards

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1
Q

Which plays the main role in the development of testicular tumor?
A) injury
B) testicular torsion
C) retentio testis (cryptorchidism)
D) genetic predisposition

A

C) retentio testis (cryptorchidism)

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2
Q

In which typical disease complains the patient pain when touching his scrotum?
A) testicular tumor
B) epididymitis
C) hydrocele
D) varicocele

A

B) epididymitis

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3
Q

The most specific palpation sign of prostate cancer is:
A) enlarged, pasta like
B) cartilage hard
C) enlarged, painful
D) enlarged, painless

A

B) cartilage hard

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4
Q

Why do we not see pus cells in the urine which was proved to be pus positive with KOH test?
A) the urine is alkaline
B) besides the pus cells, there are also bacterial cells too
C) the urine is acidic
D) there are crystals in the urine

A

A) the urine is alkaline

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5
Q

What is specific for the female urine
A) it has higher pH level
B) it contains a lot of epithelial cells
C) it contains always some red blood cells
D) it contains always some pus cells

A

B) it contains a lot of epithelial cells

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6
Q

The normal serum creatinine level is:
A) 60-120 micromol/liter
B) 6-12 micromol/ liter
C) 6-120 microgramm/ liter
D) 60-120 milligram / liter

A

A) 60-120 micromol/liter

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7
Q

The following diagnoses are synonyms. The only exception is:
A) hypernephroma
B) Grawitz- tumor
C) renal cell carcinoma
D) renal adenoma

A

D) renal adenoma

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8
Q

The testicular torsion:
A) is always on both sides
B) children most likely wake up because of scrotal pain
C) immediately causes a high fever
D) is more common on the right side

A

B) children most likely wake up because of scrotal pain

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9
Q

It is typical for renal colic, except:
A) kidney sensitivity
B) nausea, vomiting
C) pain in the labias or in the testicles
D) sensitivity at the McBurney’s point

A

D) sensitivity at the McBurney’s point

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10
Q

The conversion of testosterone into dihydrotestosterone is done by:
A) 5α-reductase
B) 7-β-citosterine
C) aromatase
D) acid phosphatase

A

A) 5α-reductase

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11
Q

Which of the following factors plays a certain role in the epidemiology of prostate cancer?
A) age
B) genetic factors
C) hormone levels
D) most likely all three

A

D) most likely all three

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12
Q

The following factor has an important role in the etiology of urothelial cancer:
A) smoking
B) alcohol
C) bensidin
D) bensin

A

A) smoking

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13
Q

Charrière =
A) 0,5 mm
B) 3 mm
C) 1 mm
D) 0,33 mm

A

D) 0,33 mm

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14
Q

The main symptom of stress incontinence is:
A) urination urgency
B) incontinence during nights
C) low abdominal pain
D) incontinence after increased abdominal pressure
E) burning in the vagina

A

D) incontinence after increased abdominal pressure

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15
Q

Urodynamic examination is recommended:
A) in case of hematuria
B) in case of pyuria and fever
C) imperative urinary stimuli and involuntary discharge of urine from the bladder when coughing
D) in case of abnormal bleeding

A

C) imperative urinary stimuli and involuntary discharge of urine from the bladder when coughing

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16
Q

When feeling a painless node in the testis the next step should be:
A) observation, making up a next consultation
B) send him to urology
C) antibiotics and control
D) investigation because of potential chronic prostatitis

A

B) send him to urology

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17
Q

Dysuria can be a symptom of:
1) bladder stone
2) prostate cancer
3) acute prostatitis
4) phimosis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

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18
Q

Cause of pollakisuria:
1) Ormond’s disease
2) urine retention in the bladder
3) stress incontinence
4) urethritis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

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19
Q

Cause of urinary total retention:
1) bladder tumor
2) prostatitis acuta
3) bladder stone
4) bladder paralysis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

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20
Q

Inflammations with fever:
1) acute pyelonephritis
2) acute prostatitis
3) acute epididymitis
4) acute cystitis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

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21
Q

What tests can detect prostate cancer?
1) PSA
2) DRE (digital rectal examination)
3) biopsy
4) abdominal CT

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

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22
Q

Cystography is indicated in:
1) bladder fistula
2) detecting or excluding bladder trauma
3) examine bladder diverticulum
4) diagnosing cystitis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

23
Q

Ultrasound
1) is better than intravenous urography to detect kidney tumors
2) is better than intravenous urography to detect urothelial tumor
3) is better than CT to detect prostate diseases
4) in the urological ultrasound examinations the 15000-20000 Mhz frequency is used

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

24
Q

In the andrological examination the following hormone levels are measured:
1) testosterone
2) FSH
3) LH
4) Parathormone

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

25
Q

The testicular ultrasound examination is good to detect:
1) infertility
2) testicular tumor
3) azoospermia
4) orchidoepididymitis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

26
Q

The chloride level can be high :
1) in kidney failure
2) after ureterosigmoideostomy
3) because of increased intake of sodium hydrogencarbonate from soda pops
4) in hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

27
Q

To prevent superficial bladder tumors bladder installation can be performed with:
1) BCG
2) Bleomycin
3) Mitomycin C
4) Vincristin

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

28
Q

Continent urinary diversions are:
1) ureterocutaneostomy
2) orthotopic ileal bladder
3) cutaneous uretero-ileostomy (Bricker bladder)
4) Sigma rectum pouch (Mainz pouch II)

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

29
Q

Invasive bladder tumor treatment options:
1) Mitomycin, Epirubicin
2) radical cystectomy
3) local chemotherapy
4) resection of bladder wall

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

30
Q

Pyelonephritis gravidarum:
1) is mostly on the left side
2) therapy = pregnancy interruption
3) frequent in the first trimester
4) hydronephrosis can be detected with ultrasound

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

D) only the 4th answer is correct

31
Q

Not a transurethral procedure:
1) internal urethrotomy
2) ESWL (Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy)
3) inserting urethral catheter with cystoscopy
4) epicystostomy

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

32
Q

Which factors have negative effect on potency?
1) diabetes
2) hyperthyroidism
3) beta blockers used in hypertension
4) antidiabetics

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

33
Q

Acute kidney failure laboratory values:
1) hyperkalemia
2) hypermagnesemia
3) acidosis
4) hyponatremia

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

34
Q

Cause of acute anuria:
1) fungal infections
2) methyl alcohol
3) ethylene glycol
4) sodium hydroxide

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

35
Q

Which are the testicular tumor markers?
1) PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)
2) β-hCG
3) testosterone
4) AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein)

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

36
Q

Which of the following drugs are used to improve incontinence in females?
1) Doxycycline
2) Ditropan (oxybutynin)
3) Minipress (prazosin)
4) Ephedrine

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

37
Q

Cause(s) of erectile dysfunction:
1) antihypertensive drugs
2) induratio penis plastica
3) prostatovesiculitis
4) alcoholism

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

38
Q

Which of the following can be used to separate kidney cyst from tumor?
1) ultrasound
2) IVP (Intravenous pyelogram)
3) CT
4) retrograde pyelography
5) angiography

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

39
Q

Symptoms of acute pyelonephritis:
1) Both side kidney pain
2) kidney sensitivity to touch
3) fever
4) pyuria
5) macroscopic haematuria

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

40
Q

Cause of pain associated with posture or movement can be:
1) rheumatic disease
2) vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)
3) kidney stone stuck in the ureter
4) nephroptosis
5) spinal disc herniation

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

41
Q

Cause of macroscopic haematuria can be:
1) renal adenocarcinoma
2) acute pyelonephritis
3) vesicoureteral reflux
4) acute cystitis
5) bladder tumor

A) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

B) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

42
Q

Pair the lab marker with the most relevant number marked clinical status!
A) PSA
B) AFP
C) β-hCG
D) alkaline phosphatase
E) all of them
F) none of them

URO - 46 - Elevated level can be a predictive sign of bone metastases in prostate cancer.
URO - 47 - After the TUR surgery of bladder cancer it should be frequently checked.
URO - 48 - The normal level could be higher than 6,5 ng/ml after the age of 80.
URO - 49 - Elevated level can be found in the early stage prostate cancer too.
URO - 50 - In the case of seminoma extending through the tunica albuginea elevated level can be found.

A

46- D
47- F
48- A
49- A
50- F

43
Q

Pair the andrological abnormalities with the letter signed clinical references!
A) erectile dysfunction
B) infertility
C) male menopause
D) retrograde ejaculation

URO - 51 - It can caused by varicocele
URO - 52 - It appears as a frequent complication after TUR (transurethral resection) surgery.
URO - 53 - It can caused by beta blockers.
URO - 54 - One way of the treatment can be a vacuum constriction device

A

51- B
52- D
53- A
54- A

44
Q

Pair the the kidney stone(s) to the typical description!
A) uric acid stone
B) cystine kidney stone
C) calcium oxalate kidney stone
D) struvite kidney stone

URO - 56 - A high, alkaline pH level increases the risk of developing these type of kidney stones.
URO - 57 - the so called negative stone
URO - 58 - Good solubility when treated with drugs.
URO - 59 - To prevent the recurrence D-Penicillamin or Thiola can be used.
URO - 60 - In case of presence, reduced meat diet is recommended

A

56- D
57- A
58- A
59- B
60- A

45
Q

Pair the diagnostic procedure name(s) to the relevant description!
A) URS (ureterorenoscopy)
B) PCNL (Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy)
C) ESWL (Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy)
D) all of them
E) none of them

URO - 61 - non-endoscopic procedure
URO - 62 - used in kidney stone treatment
URO - 63 - Used in BPH treatment
URO - 64 - The procedure is performed through the skin
URO - 65 - It can be a diagnostic procedure too.
URO - 66 - The procedure is only performed in intubation narcosis

A

61- C
62- D
63- E
64- B
65- A
66- E

46
Q

In case of acute renal colic the first choice should be narcotic pain medication, so patients having renal colic should be directed to urology department immediately.

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

E) both the statement and the explanation are false

47
Q

3 months after the TUR surgery of bladder tumor cystoscopy should be performed because this is the best way to detect the possible recurrence.

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

48
Q

After the TUR surgery of superficial bladder tumors local BCG bladder installation should be performed, because this is the only drug for this procedure.

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;

49
Q

If the urine flows through the small intestine constant bacteruria will be detected, so patients will have hyperchloremic acidosis.

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true

50
Q

Before radical prostatectomy (PSA under 10 ng/ml) regional lymph node dissection should be performed, because the result influences the possibly occurring adjuvant therapy.

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

51
Q

Renal colic is a relative contraindication to IVP, because no filtration appears in the kidneys during the colic period.

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;
B) both the statement and the explanation are true but there is no causal relationship between them;
C) the statement is true, but the explanation is false;
D) the statement is false, but the explanation itself is true
E) both the statement and the explanation are false

A

A) both the statement and the explanation are true and a causal relationship exists between them;

52
Q

First diagnostic procedure
:A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of frequent urination. He also complains about low back and leg pain. There is no blood in the urine, urination is not painful, comes in weak yellow stream.
A) DRE (digital rectal examination)
B) PSA (prostate specific antigen)
C) Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
D) prostate biopsy

A

A) DRE (digital rectal examination)

53
Q

By performing the TRUS procedure an increased, non homogenic prostate is found. The capsule is ruptured. The PSA level is 20 ng/ml. The DRE shows a large, not sensitive prostate with hard, uneven surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of frequent urination. He also complains about low back and leg pain. There is no blood in the urine, urination is not painful, comes in weak yellow stream.
A) PCA (prostate cancer)
B) BPH (Benign prostatic hyperplasia)
C) chronic prostatitis
D) acute prostatitis

A

A) PCA (prostate cancer)

54
Q

As a result of the diagnostic steps a prostate cancer of stage T3cN1M1 is found, the treatment can be:
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of frequent urination. He also complains about low back and leg pain. There is no blood in the urine, urination is not painful, comes in weak yellow stream.
1) radical prostatectomy
2) bilateral orchiectomy
3) hormone therapy with LHRH agonists
4) Anti-androgen therapy
5) estrogen hormone therapy

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
E) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

A

E) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

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