Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

states mcqs > Rheumatology > Flashcards

Rheumatology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
U.S. Geography flashcards
1
Q

Which symptom is NOT typical to lower leg nerve root compression?
A) Positive Lasegue-sign
B) Tenderness at the Valleix points
C) Positive femoral sign
D) Loss of the Achilles tendon reflex
E) Patellar ballottement

A

E) Patellar ballottement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What medicine is NOT used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Methotrexate
B) Leflunomide
C) Methylprednisolone
D) Diclofenac
E) Colchicine

A

E) Colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is an interleukin-6 R-inhibitor biological drug?
A) Etanercept
B) Adalimumab
C) Tocilizumab
D) Infliximab
E) Rituximab

A

C) Tocilizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which clinical symptom is NOT characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Early morning stiffness in the hands
B) Symmetrical small joint inflammation of the hands
C) Small joint erosions on X-ray
D) Anti-CCP positivity
E) Early low back pain with sacroiliitis

A

E) Early low back pain with sacroiliitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which symptom is NOT characteristic of Felty syndrome?
A) Inflammatory arthritis
B) High titer rheumatoid factor positivity
C) Splenomegaly
D) Pneumoconiosis
E) Granulocytopenia

A

D) Pneumoconiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

It does NOT belong to the characteristics of adult-onset Still’s disease
A) Pigmented villonodular synovitis
B) High fever
C) Maculopapular rash on the upper arms
D) Arthralgia
E) Visceral symptoms

A

A) Pigmented villonodular synovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

It does NOT belong to the diagnostic criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus:
A) Anti-DNA positivity
B) Nervous system manifestation
C) Erosive arthritis
D) Renal involvement
E) Butterfly (malar) rash

A

C) Erosive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which is the most common autoimmune disease among the following?
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Systemic sclerosis
D) Sjögren syndrome
E) Dermatomyositis

A

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which advanced disease state could be characterized by subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules?
A) Polymyalgia rheumatica
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
E) Systemic sclerosis

A

C) Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the listed diseases is more common in men?
A) Ankylosing spondylitis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Polymyalgia rheumatica
E) Sjögren syndrome

A

A) Ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the base (first-line) therapy for rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Sulfasalazine
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Methotrexate
D) Chloroquine
E) Azathioprine

A

C) Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most important immunological marker of mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)?
A) Anti-CCP
B) Antinuclear factor
C) Anti-SSA
D) Anti-U1RNP
E) Anti-SSB

A

D) Anti-U1RNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What joints are NOT affected in rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints
B) Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints
C) Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints
D) Knee joints
E) Radiocarpal joints

A

C) Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What side effect is NOT characteristic of the antirheumatic biological treatment?
A) Bone marrow depression
B) Elevated liver enzymes
C) Growing joint complaints
D) Allergic skin reaction
E) Latent tuberculosis flare-up

A

C) Growing joint complaints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Symptoms of sarcoidosis, EXCEPT:
A) Granulomatous systemic process
B) Bilateral hilaris lymphadenopathy
C) Erythema nodosum
D) Arthritis
E) Polychondritis

A

E) Polychondritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What subgroup of juvenile idiopathic arthritis is characterized primarily by rheumatoid factor positivity?
A) Polyarthritis
B) Systemic form
C) Oligoarthritis
D) Enthesopathic arthritis
E) Psoriatic arthritis

A

A) Polyarthritis

17
Q

NOT a symptom of Scheuermann’s disease:
A) Dorsal hyperkyphosis
B) Forwardly wedge-shaped vertebrae formation
C) Uneven vertebrae closing plates
D) Moderate back pain of teenagers
E) Association of avascular necrosis of femoral head

A

E) Association of avascular necrosis of femoral head

18
Q

It does NOT belong to seronegative spondyloarthritis:
A) Ankylosing spondylitis
B) Reactive arthritis
C) Enteropathic arthritis
D) Polymyalgia rheumatica
E) Psoriatic arthritis

A

D) Polymyalgia rheumatica

19
Q

NOT characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis:
A) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B) Low back pain worsens after activity, improves after rest
C) Low back pain worsens during early morning rest, improves with activity
D) Early bilateral sacroiliitis
E) Syndesmophytes on spinal X-ray

A

B) Low back pain worsens after activity, improves after rest

20
Q

Characteristics of joint processes associated with inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD), EXCEPT
A) Especially lower extremities oligoarthritis
B) Spondarthritis of the spine
C) Effectiveness of infliximab therapy
D) Effectiveness of sulfasalazine therapy
E) Effectiveness of methotrexate therapy

A

E) Effectiveness of methotrexate therapy

21
Q

Which pathogen causes Lyme disease?
A) Campylobacter jejuni
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
D) Coxsackie virus
E) Epstein-Barr virus

A

C) Borrelia burgdorferi

22
Q

What symptom group is NOT characteristic of Lyme disease?
A) Erythema migrans
B) Arthralgia - Arthritis
C) Neurological lesions
D) Cardiac changes
E) Severe gastrointestinal symptoms

A

E) Severe gastrointestinal symptoms

23
Q

Which medicine is NOT effective for treating an acute gout attack?
A) Allopurinol
B) Corticosteroid
C) Colchicine
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
E) TNF-α inhibiting biological agents

A

A) Allopurinol

24
Q

What is the absolute classification criteria for gout diagnosis?
A) Detection of synovial monosodium monohydrate crystals
B) Uric acid nephrolithiasis
C) Occurrence of acute flares of gouty arthritis
D) The presence of tophuses
E) Hyperuricemia

A

A) Detection of synovial monosodium monohydrate crystals

25
Q

What is the most important laboratory symptom of primary osteoporosis?
A) Elevated alkaline phosphatase
B) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C) Elevated parathyroid hormone levels
D) Decreased serum calcium levels
E) None of the above

A

E) None of the above

26
Q

Which bone disease is NOT characterized by elevated serum alkaline phosphatase?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteomalacia
C) Primary hyperparathyroidism
D) Paget’s disease of the bones
E) Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

A) Osteoporosis

27
Q

What condition does NOT lead to increased formation of osteoarthritis?
A) Hip joint dysplasia
B) Significant weight gain
C) Varus / valgus deformity
D) Excessive arthritis
E) HLA B-27 positivity

A

E) HLA B-27 positivity

28
Q

In which joints does Heberden’s osteoarthritis develop?
A) In distal interphalangeal joints
B) In proximal interphalangeal joints
C) In knee joints
D) In the small joints of the leg
E) Anywhere

A

A) In distal interphalangeal joints

29
Q

Typical symptoms of lumbar discus herniation, EXCEPT
A) Antalgic posture
B) Strong lumbar back pain
C) Motor weakness of the lower extremities
D) Loss of tendon reflexes on the lower limbs
E) Acute abdominal complaints

A

E) Acute abdominal complaints

30
Q

NOT a characteristic hand change of rheumatoid arthritis:
A) Erosions of the small joints
B) Subluxations of the small joints
C) “Pencil in cup” lesion
D) Bone ankylosis
E) Swan-neck and boutonniere finger deformity on the hands

A

C) “Pencil in cup” lesion

31
Q

It does NOT play an important role in the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis:
A) Activation of Th1 line
B) Activation of the Th17 line
C) Activation of the Th2 line
D) Decreased operation of Treg cells
E) Decreased formation of cathepsins

A

E) Decreased formation of cathepsins

32
Q

Which illness is associated with increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate of the following?
1) Osteoporosis
2) Psoriatic arthritis
3) Osteoarthritis
4) Rheumatoid arthritis
5) Polymyalgia rheumatica

A) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
E) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct

A

B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

33
Q

What are the contraindications of antirheumatic biological therapy?
1) Strong joint arthritis
2) Active tuberculosis
3) NYHA class 3-4 heart failure
4) The existence of malignant disease
5) Rheumatoid factor positivity

A) the 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

A

C) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct

34
Q

Genetic subtypes predominant to rheumatoid arthritis:
1) HLA DRB101
2) HLA DRB104
3) HLA DRB1*10
4) HLA B27
5) HLA B35

A) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

A

C) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

35
Q

Characteristics of juvenile idiopathic arthritis
1) Begins before the age of 16
2) Growth restriction of the child
3) Reduced mental development of the child
4) Joint pain is generally mild
5) Biological therapy not applicable

A) the 1st, 2.nd and 4th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
E) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2.nd and 4th answers are correct

36
Q

Clinical changes in ankylosing spondylitis:
1) Ankylosing inflammation of the spine
2) Association of acute anterior uveitis
3) More frequent association of lymphomas
4) Peripheral enthesitis
5) Sicca syndrome

A) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
D) the 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
E) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

B) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct

37
Q

Which drugs are used to treat osteoporosis from the following?
1) Bisphosphonates
2) Teriparatide
3) Hyaluronic acid
4) Denosumab against RANKL
5) Chondroitin sulphate

A) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
C) the 1st., 2nd and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
E) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct

states mcqs (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions