ENT

Question 1

About the function of the outer hair cells we can get objective information on
A) tympanometry
B) BERA
C) otoacoustic emission
D) investigation of stapedial reflex

Answer 1

C) otoacoustic emission

Question 2

The term “acoustic impedance” refers to the
A) pressure in the middle ear.
B) resonancy of the external ear.
C) hearing loss of inner ear origin.
D) acoustic resistance.
E) spatial hearing.

Answer 2

D) acoustic resistance.

Question 3

ORL - 4 The patients has no ear pain in:
A) perichondritis of the ear
B) herpes zoster oticus
C) angina
D) otosclerosis
E) lymphadenitis of the neck

Answer 3

D) otosclerosis

Question 4

Rinne’s test is informative in:
A) conductive hearing loss
B) sensorineural hearing loss
C) perforation of the tympanic membrane
D) sudden hearing loss

Answer 4

A) conductive hearing loss

Question 5

Tenderness with pressure on the tragus or traction on the auricle is typical in:
A) othematoma
B) external otitis
C) mastoiditis
D) otosclerosis

Answer 5

B) external otitis

Question 6

The patient suffers from vertigo and unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for 1 hour. The probable diagnosis is:
A) acoustic neurinoma
B) neuronitis vestibularis
C) vertebrobasilar insufficiency
D) Ménière’s disease

Answer 6

D) Ménière’s disease

Question 7

The patient suffers from hearing loss on the right side. Weber test is lateralized to the right side. Probable cause of the hearing loss is:
A) otosclerosis on the left side
B) cerumen on the right side
C) Ménière’s disease on the right side
D) sensorineural hearing loss on the right side

Answer 7

B) cerumen on the right side

Question 8

By the help of Valsalva maneuver we can
A) diagnose otosclerosis
B) ventilate the middle ear
C) detect nystagmus
D) exclude conductive hearing loss
E) evaluate the respiratory function of the nose

Answer 8

B) ventilate the middle ear

Question 9

Which part of the tympanic membrane should be preferred when doing a paracentesis?
A) antero-inferior quadrant
B) antero-superior quadrant
C) postero-superior quadrant
D) postero-inferior quadrant

Answer 9

A) antero-inferior quadrant

Question 10

What can develop in the middle ear due to short-term obstruction of the Eustachian tube?
A) transsudate
B) haematoma
C) tympanosclerosis
D) acute inflammation
E) exudate

Answer 10

A) transsudate

Question 11

In adult patients with unilateral, recurring catarrh of the Eustachian tube you should exclude…
A) peritonsillar abscess.
B) adenoid hypertrophy.
C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx.
D) deviated septum.

Answer 11

C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx.

Question 12

Possible complications of mastoiditis do not include:
A) meningitis
B) subperiosteal abscess
C) cavernous sinus trombosis
D) Bezold-abscess
E) otogenic hidrocephalus

Answer 12

E) otogenic hidrocephalus

Question 13

Adequate therapy of a confirmed otosclerosis is
A) mastoidectomy
B) paracentesis
C) transnasal Eustachian tube inflation
D) stapedectomy or stapedotomy

Answer 13

D) stapedectomy or stapedotomy

Question 14

ORL - 18 Peripheral facial palsy cannot be caused by:
A) polyomyelitis
B) herpes zoster oticus
C) mastoiditis
D) chronic otitis media with cholesteatoma
E) otosclerosis

Answer 14

E) otosclerosis

Question 15

The anatomic structure(s) opening into the middle nose cavity is/are:
A) nasofrontal and nasolacrimal ducts
B) sphenoidal sinus and Eustachian tube
C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells
D) posterior ethmoid cells
E) only the maxillary sinus

Answer 15

C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells

Question 16

During the treatment of a nasal furuncle always avoid
A) hospitalization and bed rest
B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion
C) parenteral antibiotic therapy
D) application of warm compresses

Answer 16

B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion

Question 17

ORL - 21 For the treatment of a simple rhinitis we recommend
A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days
B) antibiotics
C) NSAIDs
D) corticosteroids

Answer 17

A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days

Question 18

Most relevant therapy of allergic rhinitis consists of:
A) vasoconstrictor agents
B) antibiotics
C) NSAIDs
D) elimination of the allergen

Answer 18

D) elimination of the allergen

Question 19

Oezena
A) is a form of atrophic rhinitis
B) involves foul-smelling lesion of the mucosa
C) has unknown etiology
D) becomes better with aging
E) is characterized by all the above statements

Answer 19

E) is characterized by all the above statements

Question 20

An elder patient presents with unilateral sanguinous, purulent, foul-smelling nasal discharge. You think of:
A) frontal sinusitis
B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus
C) ozaena
D) infected dental cyst
E) angiofibroma

Answer 20

B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus

Question 21

Most common location of nasal bleeding:
A) nasopharynx
B) middle turbinate
C) superior meatus
D) anterior part of nasal septum
E) posterior part of the nasal septum

Answer 21

D) anterior part of nasal septum

Question 22

In acute upper airway infection of an infant, one-sided swelling of the upper and lower eyelid appears. Which condition would you think of?
A) acute rhinitis
B) acute maxillary sinusitis
C) acute ethmoiditis
D) allergic reaction

Answer 22

C) acute ethmoiditis

Question 23

Adenotomy is indicated in
A) chronic sinusitis
B) otitis media
C) sleep apnoe
D) adenoid hypertrophy
E) each of the above conditions

Answer 23

E) each of the above conditions

Question 24

The term “blow-out fracture” refers to a(n)
A) frontobasal fracture.
B) zygomatic fracture.
C) cheekbone fracture.
D) orbital floor fracture.
E) frontal bone fracture.

Answer 24

D) orbital floor fracture.

Question 25

Osteoma of a paranasal sinus A) metastatizes to the bones B) is a congenital lesion C) most commonly affects swimmers D) should be surgically removed E) can be treated with radiotherapy

Answer 25

D) should be surgically removed

Question 26

A middle-aged male patient has a painless, freely mobile mass of about 30 mm in one parotid gland for 5 years. Facial nerve funtion is intact. The probable diagnose is A) osteoma in the external acoustic meatus B) glomus caroticum tumor C) pleomorph adenoma D) salivary stone in the parotid gland E) malignant tumor of the parotid gland

Answer 26

C) pleomorph adenoma

Question 27

Necrotic, coated lesion of the tonsils suggests a(n) A) scarlatina-associated tonsillitis B) mononucleosis C) agranulocytic angina D) tonsillitis follicularis E) herpangina

Answer 27

C) agranulocytic angina

Question 28

Adequate therapy of chronic tonsillitis includes A) suction of the tonsils B) squeezing the detritus out of the tonsils C) high doses of antibiotics D) tonsillectomy

Answer 28

D) tonsillectomy

Question 29

After tonsillectomy, urgent hospitalization is needed if the patient presents with A) oedema of the soft palate and uvula B) tenderness of cervical lymph nodes C) haemoptoe D) intense pain irradiating into the ears E) swallowing difficulties

Answer 29

C) haemoptoe

Question 30

The patient ate fish and has a stiching sensation upon swallowing. First you'll search for the fishbone A) on the tonsils and root of the tongue B) in the piriform sinus C) in the epipharynx D) in the laryngeal vestibule

Answer 30

A) on the tonsils and root of the tongue

Question 31

Treatment of tonsillogenic sepsis requires A) immediate tonsillectomy performed with antibiotic protection B) application of broad-spectrum antibiotics C) cryotherapy of the tonsils performed with antibiotic protection D) therapeutic punction of cerebrospinal liquor E) splenectomy

Answer 31

A) immediate tonsillectomy performed with antibiotic protection

Question 32

In a patient with prolonged hoarseness (dysphonia) you have to perform a laryngoscopy, or even a histological test after A) 8 days B) 3 weeks C) 8 weeks D) 3 months E) 1 year

Answer 32

B) 3 weeks

Question 33

Reinke-oedema is located on/in the A) epiglottis B) uvula C) piriform sinus D) vallecules E) vocal chords

Answer 33

E) vocal chords

Question 34

Symptoms of acut laryngitis do not include A) haemoptoe B) hoarseness C) laryngeal pain D) coughing E) hiperaemic vocal chords

Answer 34

A) haemoptoe

Question 35

The most common malignant tumor of the larynx is: A) adenocarcinoma B) chondrosarcoma C) adenocystic carcinoma D) squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 35

D) squamous cell carcinoma

Question 36

Surgical treatment of T1a vocal chord cancer is A) laryngectomy B) horizontal resection of the larynx C) vertical resection of the larynx D) chordectomy E) arytenoidectomy

Answer 36

D) chordectomy

Question 37

Intratracheal intubation should be replaced by tracheostomy after A) 6 hours B) 48 hours C) 8 days D) 4 weeks E) it should not be replaced at all

Answer 37

B) 48 hours

Question 38

Inspiratory dyspnea is a typical symptom of A) cardiac insufficiency B) bronchial asthma C) upper airway dyspnea D) psychogenic dyspnea

Answer 38

C) upper airway dyspnea

Question 39

A patient living with tracheostomy cannula suddenly begins to suffocate. The first thing you do is to A) suction the trachea through the cannula B) refer the patient to a specialist C) remove the cannula immediately and dilate the stoma with a nasal speculum D) force the patient to cough

Answer 39

C) remove the cannula immediately and dilate the stoma with a nasal speculum

Question 40

Swallowed foreign bodies most commonly get stuck A) in the hypopharynx B) at the first isthmus of the esophagus C) at the second isthmus of the esophagus D) where the esophagus opens into the stomach E) at the pylorus

Answer 40

B) at the first isthmus of the esophagus

Question 41

Esophageal varicosity is a concomitant disease of A) cardiac decompensation B) stricture of the cardia C) esophageal tumor D) hepatic cirrhosis E) malignant struma

Answer 41

D) hepatic cirrhosis

Question 42

The condition in which the cause of dysphagia cannot be detected on swallow radiography is A) esophageal diverticulum B) cervical spondylarthrosis C) esophageal carcinoma D) globus hystericus E) esophageal spasm

Answer 42

D) globus hystericus

Question 43

The best radiographic modality for the diagnosis of an esophageal foreign body is A) chest X-ray B) barium swallow test C) swallow radiography without contrast media D) swallow radiography with absorbable contrast media

Answer 43

D) swallow radiography with absorbable contrast media

Question 44

Etiology of median cervical cyst or fistule is a A) remaining thoracic duct B) remaining thyroglossal duct C) laryngocele D) struma

Answer 44

B) remaining thyroglossal duct

Question 45

Surgical solution of a median cervical cyst or fistule is A) extirpation of the fistule together with the hyoid bone B) extirpation of the fistule and the cyst together with the middle section of the hyoid bone C) extirpation of the fistule up to the root of the tongue

Answer 45

B) extirpation of the fistule and the cyst together with the middle section of the hyoid bone

Question 46

The most frequently injured nerve during thyroid surgery is A) hypoglossal nerve B) accessory nerve C) superior laryngeal nerve D) recurrent laryngeal nerve E) brachial plexus

Answer 46

D) recurrent laryngeal nerve

Question 47

The term "unilateral radical neck dissection" means A) removal of the metastatic-suspect lymph nodes on one side of the neck B) removal of all cervical lymph nodes together with sternocleidomastoid muscle and internal jugular vein and nervus accessorius on one side C) removal of jugular lymph nodes together with the larynx D) removal of cervical fat tissues and cervical lymph nodes

Answer 47

B) removal of all cervical lymph nodes together with sternocleidomastoid muscle and internal jugular vein and nervus accessorius on one side

Question 48

A pulsating tumor palpable on one side of the neck probably indicates a A) thyreioditis B) mediastinitis C) tumor adjoining to the carotid artery D) foreign body in the hypopharynx

Answer 48

C) tumor adjoining to the carotid artery

Question 49

Sialolithiasis A) is most common in the parotid gland B) affects most frequently the submandibular gland C) is detected mostly in the sublingual gland D) can be effectively treated with a special diet

Answer 49

B) affects most frequently the submandibular gland

Question 50

Tongue burn is not present in A) pernicious anemia B) vitamin deficiency C) glossitis D) Plummer–Vinson syndrome E) lingua nigra pilosa (black hairy tongue)

Answer 50

E) lingua nigra pilosa (black hairy tongue)

Question 51

Follicular tonsillitis should be treated with A) penicillin for 10 days B) doxycycline for 1 week C) prompt removal of the tonsils D) local administration of medicines (with a swab) on the tonsils and systemic painkillers

Answer 51

A) penicillin for 10 days

Question 52

Persistance of a broncial foreign body may lead to A) pneumonia B) bronchiectasia C) pulmonary abscess D) all the above conditions

Answer 52

D) all the above conditions

Question 53

Holzknecht–Jacobson sign indicates that A) both sides of the lung functions equally B) an unilateral bronchial foreign body causes the mediastinum move towards the affected side C) a pulmonary emphysema is present D) a pulmonary tumor giving radiography signs is detected E) radiographic contour of the mediastinum is widened

Answer 53

B) an unilateral bronchial foreign body causes the mediastinum move towards the affected side

Question 54

Adequate measures in case of an esophageal foreign body A) radiography with absorbable contrast media and esophagoscopy B) introduction of an esophageal tube C) dilation of the cardia D) administration of painkillers, spasmolitics

Answer 54

A) radiography with absorbable contrast media and esophagoscopy

Question 55

Disorders of voice formation A) dysphonia B) lisping C) sputtering D) stuttering E) aphasia

Answer 55

A) dysphonia

Question 56

Stroboscopy is used in otorhinolaryngology for the evaluation of A) vocal fold vibration B) paranasal sinuses C) esophageal motions D) nasal breathing

Answer 56

A) vocal fold vibration

Question 57

Complications of a middle ear choleoksteatoma may be 1) labyrinthitis 2) cavernous sinus thrombosis 3) facial nerve palsy 4) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy 5) subperiosteal abscess A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct C) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct D) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct E) the 4th and 5th answers are correct

Answer 57

A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

Question 58

Ototoxic antibiotics include 1) chloramphenicol 2) streptomycin 3) tetracyclin 4) gentamycin 5) neomycin A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct D) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct E) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

Answer 58

E) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

Question 59

Sensorineural hearing loss may develop after the following viral infections 1) mumps 2) chickenpox 3) rubeola 4) measles 5) serous meningitis A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct D) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct E) the 4th and 5th answers are correct

Answer 59

C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

Question 60

Conservative therapy of paranasal sinusitis involves 1) decongestion nosedropp usement 2) tamponade of the middle meatus 3) punction and rinsing of the paranasal sinus 4) X-ray radiation therapy 5) adminstration of antibiotics A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct C) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 60

C) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

Question 61

Nasal congestion (obstructed nadal breathing) can be caused by 1) nasal polyposis 2) deviated septum 3) perforated septum 4) choanal atresia 5) laryngeal recurrent nerve palsy A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct C) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct D) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 61

D) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct

Question 62

Underlying cause of epistaxis may be 1) trombocytopenia 2) morbus Osler 3) vasomotor rhinitis 4) lacrimal gland obstruction 5) hypertension A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct C) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 62

C) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct

Question 63

Indications of tonsillectomy are 1) chronic tonsillitis 2) tonsillar hypertrophy in sleep apnoe syndrome 3) peritonsillar abscess 4) tonsillogenic sepsis 5) suspected focus of tonsillogenic origin A) the 1st and 5th answers are correct B) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct C) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 63

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 64

The patient reports a foreign body in the esophagus. In addition to laryngoscopy we 1) make him/her eat bread immediately 2) give him/her antibiotics and spasmolytics 3) perform radiography of the esophagus with absorbable contrast nedia 4) oesophagoscopy 5) scintigraphy A) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct B) the 2nd and 5th answers are correct C) the 3rd and 4th answers are correct D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 64

C) the 3rd and 4th answers are correct

Question 65

Tonsillar carcinoma 1) more common in females than in males 2) patient's medical history often includes alcohol and/ or nicotine abuse 3) gives lymphogenic metastases in 60% of the cases 4) appears together with clinical metasases in 25% of the cases 5) results in a 5 year postoperative survival in 35% of the patients A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct B) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct C) the 1st and 4th answers are correct D) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 65

B) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

Question 66

Symptom of bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is 1) dysphagia 2) inspiratory stridor 3) changes in voice A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct B) the 2nd and 3rd answers are correct C) none of the above is correct

Answer 66

B) the 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 67

Praecancerotic lesions of the larynx include 1) Sjögren's syndrome 2) adult form of laryngeal papilloma 3) Quincke oedema 4) leukoplakia 5) pachydermia A) the 1st and 2nd answers are correct B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct C) the 3rd and 4th answers are correct D) the 1st and 4th answers are correct E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 67

B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

Question 68

Slow-growing lump on the neck may be the sign of 1) cervical metastasis 2) non-Hodgkin-lymphoma 3) struma 4) pulsion diverticulum 5) cervical cyst A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct C) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct D) the 1st and 4th answers are correct

Answer 68

A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct