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ENT Flashcards

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1
Q

About the function of the outer hair cells we can get objective information on
A) tympanometry
B) BERA
C) otoacoustic emission
D) investigation of stapedial reflex

A

C) otoacoustic emission

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2
Q

The term “acoustic impedance” refers to the
A) pressure in the middle ear.
B) resonancy of the external ear.
C) hearing loss of inner ear origin.
D) acoustic resistance.
E) spatial hearing.

A

D) acoustic resistance.

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3
Q

ORL - 4 The patients has no ear pain in:
A) perichondritis of the ear
B) herpes zoster oticus
C) angina
D) otosclerosis
E) lymphadenitis of the neck

A

D) otosclerosis

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4
Q

Rinne’s test is informative in:
A) conductive hearing loss
B) sensorineural hearing loss
C) perforation of the tympanic membrane
D) sudden hearing loss

A

A) conductive hearing loss

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5
Q

Tenderness with pressure on the tragus or traction on the auricle is typical in:
A) othematoma
B) external otitis
C) mastoiditis
D) otosclerosis

A

B) external otitis

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6
Q

The patient suffers from vertigo and unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for 1 hour. The probable diagnosis is:
A) acoustic neurinoma
B) neuronitis vestibularis
C) vertebrobasilar insufficiency
D) Ménière’s disease

A

D) Ménière’s disease

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7
Q

The patient suffers from hearing loss on the right side. Weber test is lateralized to the right side. Probable cause of the hearing loss is:
A) otosclerosis on the left side
B) cerumen on the right side
C) Ménière’s disease on the right side
D) sensorineural hearing loss on the right side

A

B) cerumen on the right side

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8
Q

By the help of Valsalva maneuver we can
A) diagnose otosclerosis
B) ventilate the middle ear
C) detect nystagmus
D) exclude conductive hearing loss
E) evaluate the respiratory function of the nose

A

B) ventilate the middle ear

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9
Q

Which part of the tympanic membrane should be preferred when doing a paracentesis?
A) antero-inferior quadrant
B) antero-superior quadrant
C) postero-superior quadrant
D) postero-inferior quadrant

A

A) antero-inferior quadrant

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10
Q

What can develop in the middle ear due to short-term obstruction of the Eustachian tube?
A) transsudate
B) haematoma
C) tympanosclerosis
D) acute inflammation
E) exudate

A

A) transsudate

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11
Q

In adult patients with unilateral, recurring catarrh of the Eustachian tube you should exclude…
A) peritonsillar abscess.
B) adenoid hypertrophy.
C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx.
D) deviated septum.

A

C) malignant tumor in the epipharynx.

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12
Q

Possible complications of mastoiditis do not include:
A) meningitis
B) subperiosteal abscess
C) cavernous sinus trombosis
D) Bezold-abscess
E) otogenic hidrocephalus

A

E) otogenic hidrocephalus

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13
Q

Adequate therapy of a confirmed otosclerosis is
A) mastoidectomy
B) paracentesis
C) transnasal Eustachian tube inflation
D) stapedectomy or stapedotomy

A

D) stapedectomy or stapedotomy

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14
Q

ORL - 18 Peripheral facial palsy cannot be caused by:
A) polyomyelitis
B) herpes zoster oticus
C) mastoiditis
D) chronic otitis media with cholesteatoma
E) otosclerosis

A

E) otosclerosis

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15
Q

The anatomic structure(s) opening into the middle nose cavity is/are:
A) nasofrontal and nasolacrimal ducts
B) sphenoidal sinus and Eustachian tube
C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells
D) posterior ethmoid cells
E) only the maxillary sinus

A

C) maxillary sinus, frontal sinus and anterior and middle ethmoid cells

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16
Q

During the treatment of a nasal furuncle always avoid
A) hospitalization and bed rest
B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion
C) parenteral antibiotic therapy
D) application of warm compresses

A

B) incision and pressing (squeezing) of the lesion

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17
Q

ORL - 21 For the treatment of a simple rhinitis we recommend
A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days
B) antibiotics
C) NSAIDs
D) corticosteroids

A

A) nasal drops for 5 to 7 days

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18
Q

Most relevant therapy of allergic rhinitis consists of:
A) vasoconstrictor agents
B) antibiotics
C) NSAIDs
D) elimination of the allergen

A

D) elimination of the allergen

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19
Q

Oezena
A) is a form of atrophic rhinitis
B) involves foul-smelling lesion of the mucosa
C) has unknown etiology
D) becomes better with aging
E) is characterized by all the above statements

A

E) is characterized by all the above statements

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20
Q

An elder patient presents with unilateral sanguinous, purulent, foul-smelling nasal discharge. You think of:
A) frontal sinusitis
B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus
C) ozaena
D) infected dental cyst
E) angiofibroma

A

B) malignant tumor of the nose or a paranasal sinus

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21
Q

Most common location of nasal bleeding:
A) nasopharynx
B) middle turbinate
C) superior meatus
D) anterior part of nasal septum
E) posterior part of the nasal septum

A

D) anterior part of nasal septum

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22
Q

In acute upper airway infection of an infant, one-sided swelling of the upper and lower eyelid appears. Which condition would you think of?
A) acute rhinitis
B) acute maxillary sinusitis
C) acute ethmoiditis
D) allergic reaction

A

C) acute ethmoiditis

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23
Q

Adenotomy is indicated in
A) chronic sinusitis
B) otitis media
C) sleep apnoe
D) adenoid hypertrophy
E) each of the above conditions

A

E) each of the above conditions

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24
Q

The term “blow-out fracture” refers to a(n)
A) frontobasal fracture.
B) zygomatic fracture.
C) cheekbone fracture.
D) orbital floor fracture.
E) frontal bone fracture.

A

D) orbital floor fracture.

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25
Q

Osteoma of a paranasal sinus
A) metastatizes to the bones
B) is a congenital lesion
C) most commonly affects swimmers
D) should be surgically removed
E) can be treated with radiotherapy

A

D) should be surgically removed

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26
Q

A middle-aged male patient has a painless, freely mobile mass of about 30 mm in one parotid gland for 5 years. Facial nerve funtion is intact. The probable diagnose is
A) osteoma in the external acoustic meatus
B) glomus caroticum tumor
C) pleomorph adenoma
D) salivary stone in the parotid gland
E) malignant tumor of the parotid gland

A

C) pleomorph adenoma

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27
Q

Necrotic, coated lesion of the tonsils suggests a(n)
A) scarlatina-associated tonsillitis
B) mononucleosis
C) agranulocytic angina
D) tonsillitis follicularis
E) herpangina

A

C) agranulocytic angina

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28
Q

Adequate therapy of chronic tonsillitis includes
A) suction of the tonsils
B) squeezing the detritus out of the tonsils
C) high doses of antibiotics
D) tonsillectomy

A

D) tonsillectomy

29
Q

After tonsillectomy, urgent hospitalization is needed if the patient presents with
A) oedema of the soft palate and uvula
B) tenderness of cervical lymph nodes
C) haemoptoe
D) intense pain irradiating into the ears
E) swallowing difficulties

A

C) haemoptoe

30
Q

The patient ate fish and has a stiching sensation upon swallowing. First you’ll search for the fishbone
A) on the tonsils and root of the tongue
B) in the piriform sinus
C) in the epipharynx
D) in the laryngeal vestibule

A

A) on the tonsils and root of the tongue

31
Q

Treatment of tonsillogenic sepsis requires
A) immediate tonsillectomy performed with antibiotic protection
B) application of broad-spectrum antibiotics
C) cryotherapy of the tonsils performed with antibiotic protection
D) therapeutic punction of cerebrospinal liquor
E) splenectomy

A

A) immediate tonsillectomy performed with antibiotic protection

32
Q

In a patient with prolonged hoarseness (dysphonia) you have to perform a laryngoscopy, or even a histological test after
A) 8 days
B) 3 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) 3 months
E) 1 year

A

B) 3 weeks

33
Q

Reinke-oedema is located on/in the
A) epiglottis
B) uvula
C) piriform sinus
D) vallecules
E) vocal chords

A

E) vocal chords

34
Q

Symptoms of acut laryngitis do not include
A) haemoptoe
B) hoarseness
C) laryngeal pain
D) coughing
E) hiperaemic vocal chords

A

A) haemoptoe

35
Q

The most common malignant tumor of the larynx is:
A) adenocarcinoma
B) chondrosarcoma
C) adenocystic carcinoma
D) squamous cell carcinoma

A

D) squamous cell carcinoma

36
Q

Surgical treatment of T1a vocal chord cancer is
A) laryngectomy
B) horizontal resection of the larynx
C) vertical resection of the larynx
D) chordectomy
E) arytenoidectomy

A

D) chordectomy

37
Q

Intratracheal intubation should be replaced by tracheostomy after
A) 6 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 8 days
D) 4 weeks
E) it should not be replaced at all

A

B) 48 hours

38
Q

Inspiratory dyspnea is a typical symptom of
A) cardiac insufficiency
B) bronchial asthma
C) upper airway dyspnea
D) psychogenic dyspnea

A

C) upper airway dyspnea

39
Q

A patient living with tracheostomy cannula suddenly begins to suffocate. The first thing you do is to
A) suction the trachea through the cannula
B) refer the patient to a specialist
C) remove the cannula immediately and dilate the stoma with a nasal speculum
D) force the patient to cough

A

C) remove the cannula immediately and dilate the stoma with a nasal speculum

40
Q

Swallowed foreign bodies most commonly get stuck
A) in the hypopharynx
B) at the first isthmus of the esophagus
C) at the second isthmus of the esophagus
D) where the esophagus opens into the stomach
E) at the pylorus

A

B) at the first isthmus of the esophagus

41
Q

Esophageal varicosity is a concomitant disease of
A) cardiac decompensation
B) stricture of the cardia
C) esophageal tumor
D) hepatic cirrhosis
E) malignant struma

A

D) hepatic cirrhosis

42
Q

The condition in which the cause of dysphagia cannot be detected on swallow radiography is
A) esophageal diverticulum
B) cervical spondylarthrosis
C) esophageal carcinoma
D) globus hystericus
E) esophageal spasm

A

D) globus hystericus

43
Q

The best radiographic modality for the diagnosis of an esophageal foreign body is
A) chest X-ray
B) barium swallow test
C) swallow radiography without contrast media
D) swallow radiography with absorbable contrast media

A

D) swallow radiography with absorbable contrast media

44
Q

Etiology of median cervical cyst or fistule is a
A) remaining thoracic duct
B) remaining thyroglossal duct
C) laryngocele
D) struma

A

B) remaining thyroglossal duct

45
Q

Surgical solution of a median cervical cyst or fistule is
A) extirpation of the fistule together with the hyoid bone
B) extirpation of the fistule and the cyst together with the middle section of the hyoid bone
C) extirpation of the fistule up to the root of the tongue

A

B) extirpation of the fistule and the cyst together with the middle section of the hyoid bone

46
Q

The most frequently injured nerve during thyroid surgery is
A) hypoglossal nerve
B) accessory nerve
C) superior laryngeal nerve
D) recurrent laryngeal nerve
E) brachial plexus

A

D) recurrent laryngeal nerve

47
Q

The term “unilateral radical neck dissection” means
A) removal of the metastatic-suspect lymph nodes on one side of the neck
B) removal of all cervical lymph nodes together with sternocleidomastoid muscle and internal jugular vein and nervus accessorius on one side
C) removal of jugular lymph nodes together with the larynx
D) removal of cervical fat tissues and cervical lymph nodes

A

B) removal of all cervical lymph nodes together with sternocleidomastoid muscle and internal jugular vein and nervus accessorius on one side

48
Q

A pulsating tumor palpable on one side of the neck probably indicates a
A) thyreioditis
B) mediastinitis
C) tumor adjoining to the carotid artery
D) foreign body in the hypopharynx

A

C) tumor adjoining to the carotid artery

49
Q

Sialolithiasis
A) is most common in the parotid gland
B) affects most frequently the submandibular gland
C) is detected mostly in the sublingual gland
D) can be effectively treated with a special diet

A

B) affects most frequently the submandibular gland

50
Q

Tongue burn is not present in
A) pernicious anemia
B) vitamin deficiency
C) glossitis
D) Plummer–Vinson syndrome
E) lingua nigra pilosa (black hairy tongue)

A

E) lingua nigra pilosa (black hairy tongue)

51
Q

Follicular tonsillitis should be treated with
A) penicillin for 10 days
B) doxycycline for 1 week
C) prompt removal of the tonsils
D) local administration of medicines (with a swab) on the tonsils and systemic painkillers

A

A) penicillin for 10 days

52
Q

Persistance of a broncial foreign body may lead to
A) pneumonia
B) bronchiectasia
C) pulmonary abscess
D) all the above conditions

A

D) all the above conditions

53
Q

Holzknecht–Jacobson sign indicates that
A) both sides of the lung functions equally
B) an unilateral bronchial foreign body causes the mediastinum move towards the affected side
C) a pulmonary emphysema is present
D) a pulmonary tumor giving radiography signs is detected
E) radiographic contour of the mediastinum is widened

A

B) an unilateral bronchial foreign body causes the mediastinum move towards the affected side

54
Q

Adequate measures in case of an esophageal foreign body
A) radiography with absorbable contrast media and esophagoscopy
B) introduction of an esophageal tube
C) dilation of the cardia
D) administration of painkillers, spasmolitics

A

A) radiography with absorbable contrast media and esophagoscopy

55
Q

Disorders of voice formation
A) dysphonia
B) lisping
C) sputtering
D) stuttering
E) aphasia

A

A) dysphonia

56
Q

Stroboscopy is used in otorhinolaryngology for the evaluation of
A) vocal fold vibration
B) paranasal sinuses
C) esophageal motions
D) nasal breathing

A

A) vocal fold vibration

57
Q

Complications of a middle ear choleoksteatoma may be
1) labyrinthitis
2) cavernous sinus thrombosis
3) facial nerve palsy
4) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
5) subperiosteal abscess

A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
E) the 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

58
Q

Ototoxic antibiotics include
1) chloramphenicol
2) streptomycin
3) tetracyclin
4) gentamycin
5) neomycin

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
E) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

E) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

59
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss may develop after the following viral infections
1) mumps
2) chickenpox
3) rubeola
4) measles
5) serous meningitis

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
E) the 4th and 5th answers are correct

A

C) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct

60
Q

Conservative therapy of paranasal sinusitis involves
1) decongestion nosedropp usement
2) tamponade of the middle meatus
3) punction and rinsing of the paranasal sinus
4) X-ray radiation therapy
5) adminstration of antibiotics

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

61
Q

Nasal congestion (obstructed nadal breathing) can be caused by
1) nasal polyposis
2) deviated septum
3) perforated septum
4) choanal atresia
5) laryngeal recurrent nerve palsy

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

D) the 1st, 2nd and 4th answers are correct

62
Q

Underlying cause of epistaxis may be
1) trombocytopenia
2) morbus Osler
3) vasomotor rhinitis
4) lacrimal gland obstruction
5) hypertension

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct
D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 1st, 2nd and 5th answers are correct

63
Q

Indications of tonsillectomy are
1) chronic tonsillitis
2) tonsillar hypertrophy in sleep apnoe syndrome
3) peritonsillar abscess
4) tonsillogenic sepsis
5) suspected focus of tonsillogenic origin

A) the 1st and 5th answers are correct
B) the 1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
C) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
D) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

E) all of the answers are correct

64
Q

The patient reports a foreign body in the esophagus. In addition to laryngoscopy we
1) make him/her eat bread immediately
2) give him/her antibiotics and spasmolytics
3) perform radiography of the esophagus with absorbable contrast nedia
4) oesophagoscopy
5) scintigraphy

A) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
B) the 2nd and 5th answers are correct
C) the 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

C) the 3rd and 4th answers are correct

65
Q

Tonsillar carcinoma
1) more common in females than in males
2) patient’s medical history often includes alcohol and/ or nicotine abuse
3) gives lymphogenic metastases in 60% of the cases
4) appears together with clinical metasases in 25% of the cases
5) results in a 5 year postoperative survival in 35% of the patients

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
C) the 1st and 4th answers are correct
D) the 1st, 4th and 5th answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

66
Q

Symptom of bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is
1) dysphagia
2) inspiratory stridor
3) changes in voice

A) the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) the 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
C) none of the above is correct

A

B) the 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

67
Q

Praecancerotic lesions of the larynx include
1) Sjögren’s syndrome
2) adult form of laryngeal papilloma
3) Quincke oedema
4) leukoplakia
5) pachydermia

A) the 1st and 2nd answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
C) the 3rd and 4th answers are correct
D) the 1st and 4th answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct

A

B) the 2nd, 4th and 5th answers are correct

68
Q

Slow-growing lump on the neck may be the sign of
1) cervical metastasis
2) non-Hodgkin-lymphoma
3) struma
4) pulsion diverticulum
5) cervical cyst

A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
B) the 2nd, 3rd and 4th answers are correct
C) the 3rd, 4th and 5th answers are correct
D) the 1st and 4th answers are correct

A

A) the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct

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