URINE SAMPLES AND MOLECULAR TESTING Flashcards

1
Q

Random samples

A

may be collected at any time, with no additional preparation or cleansing

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2
Q

random urine samples are used for

A

urine chemistry testing (creatinine, total protein,
electrolytes, microalbumin), but they are to be avoided for routine urinalysis or culture testing due
to the possibility of erroneous results and an increased chance of contamination

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3
Q

Midstream clean catch collection

A

comprises cleansing the skin near and around the urethra

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4
Q

Midstream clean catch is ideal for

A

urinalysis, bacterial culture,
and sensitivity testing

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5
Q

Catheterized specimens

A

collected by passing a hollow tube, or catheter, through the urethra
and into the bladder.

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6
Q

what are catheterized specimens useful for

A

bacterial culture testing, but it may
be used for other routine tests as well.

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7
Q

Suprapubic collection

A

a sterile environment when a needle is placed through the
abdomen and into the bladder.

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8
Q

Aspirated urine provides

A

a sterile sample that is free of outside
contamination and is ideal for bacterial cultures and cytologic examination

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9
Q

Nephrostomy tubes

A

catheters placed through the skin and directly into the kidney

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10
Q

What are nephrostomy catheters used for?

A

to drain or collect urine when output through the ureters in not possible. Samples may be
used for routine urinalysis testing or bacterial culture

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11
Q

The colony count is in colony forming units per mL

A

(number of colonies) × 100

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12
Q

No growth observed on media after 48 hours of incubation is

A

expected in normal clean-catch,
catheterized, suprapubic aspirate and in surgically obtained urine samples

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13
Q

Fewer than 10
colonies observed is

A

not considered a significant finding in clean-catch or catheterized specimens,
and no further workup is needed

**any bacterial growth of urine collected from sterile
sources is significant and requires further investigation

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14
Q

colony counts between 10
and 100 may be tested further if

A

a patient is having symptoms indicative of a urinary tract infection
(UTI)

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15
Q

> 100 colonies of mixed organisms exhibiting one
predominant organism is

A

a significant finding, and the predominant bacteria will be tested further

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16
Q

> 100 of a pure, single organism is

A

indicative of a UTI, and further workup is required to properly
identify the organism and perform antibiotic sensitivity testing for guide treatment options

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17
Q

Microscopic and macroscopic urinalysis findings are evaluated and correlated with

A

urine culture
findings in the determination of UTIs

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18
Q

which chemical reactions on a
urine dipstick indicate the presence or absence of bacteria in a sample?

A

Nitrite, pH, and leukocyte esterase

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19
Q

positive nitrite dipstick result indicates

A

infection is from common UTI-causing
bacteria, including E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas, and Enterobacter species, as they will reduce
nitrate to nitrite

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20
Q

positive leukocyte esterase result indicates

A

UTI because WBCs are
commonly found in areas of infection

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21
Q

alkaline pH may indicate

A

the presence of infection-
causing bacteria in urine because some bacteria hydrolyze urea into the alkaline substance
ammonia

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22
Q

Macroscopic observations of WBCs and bacteria in urine sediment are

A

correlated
with urine culture results in the determination of a UTI

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23
Q

Colony morphology is evaluated by the following characteristics in urine cultures

A
  • Colony size
  • Form and margins
  • Elevation
  • Surface features, texture, and consistency
  • Color, transparency, and iridescence
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24
Q

Colony morphology is categorized by

A

size, form, margins, and elevation characteristics

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25
Q

Colony size is categorized by diameter

A

o Pinpoint or punctiform < 1 mm
o Small 1–2 mm
o Medium 3–4 mm
o Large > 5 mm

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26
Q

Morphological Forms are categorized as

A

o Circular, symmetrical circle
o Irregular, lacking symmetry
o Filamentous, exhibiting threadlike branching
o Rhizoid, exhibiting a branching, rootlike shape

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27
Q

The margins, or edges, of a colony are most commonly evaluated as

A

o Entire, meaning smooth
o Undulate, meaning wavy
o Lobular, fingerlike growth spreading outward
o Scalloped, rounded projections resembling a scallop shell
o Filiform, thin and wavy layers spreading outward

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28
Q

Colony elevations are
categorized by the following shapes:

A

o Flat
o Raised
o Convex, curved or rounded upward
o Crateriform, sunken in the middle
o Umbonate, with the middle protruding upward

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29
Q

Textures are described with the following terms:

A

o Smooth,
o Wrinkled, shriveled
o Rough, granular
o Dull, no shine
o Glistening, shining

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30
Q

The consistency of colonies is described as the following:

A

o Moist
o Dry
o Viscid, thick and sticky
o Mucoid, moist and sticky
o Butyrous, butter-like

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31
Q

Colony transparency is categorized as

A

o Transparent, clear, see-through
o Translucent, semiclear, frosted-glass appearance
o Opaque, unable to see through
o Iridescent, color changing in reflective light

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32
Q

Sheep blood and chocolate agars often yield the following colony colors

A

o White
o Cream
o Yellow

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33
Q

Differential and selective medias can produce many colors based on the organism’s
biochemical properties such as:

A

o Pink
o Green
o Blue
o Black

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34
Q

Catalase positive

A

bubbling produced

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35
Q

catalase negative

A

no bubbling produced

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36
Q

coagulase positive

A

visible clumping

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37
Q

coagulase negative

A

no visible clumping or agglutination

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38
Q

oxidase test

A

is used for a presumptive identification of Neisseria species and P.
aeruginosa

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39
Q

oxidase positive

A

development of a dark-purple color within 10 seconds

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40
Q

oxidase negative

A

colorless, or remains the original color of the colony

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41
Q

Indole test

A

used for a presumptive identification of E. coli and differentiation of
swarming Proteus species

42
Q

Indole positive

A

rapid development of a blue or green-blue color

43
Q

Indole negative

A

no color change

44
Q

PYR test

A

used to identify Enterococcus species and group A beta-hemolytic
streptococci through the presence of the enzyme pyrrolidonyl

45
Q

PYR positive

A

development of bright red color

46
Q

PYR negative

A

No color change or a yellow-orange color

47
Q

Urease test

A

used to detect C. neoformans in sputum samples and differentiate
pathogenic Shigella and Salmonella species from nonpathogenic Proteus species in stool
cultures

48
Q

Urease positive

A

color change to magenta

49
Q

Urease negative

A

no color change, pH paper remains yellow

50
Q

Triple sugar iron slant (TSI)

A

used for presumptive identification of many Gram-negative
bacilli, most commonly the enteric pathogens in the Enterobacteriaceae family.

51
Q

TSI agar contains the following:

A
  • Sugars — glucose, lactose, and sucrose
  • Nutrient source — peptone
  • Sulfur source — sodium thiosulfate
  • Indicator — ferric ammonium citrate
  • pH indicator — phenol red
52
Q

TSI is inoculated using

A

a needle carrying a pure colony of the organism to be identified

53
Q

K/K slant/butt

A

Slant, red; butt, red No sugars fermented, no reaction

54
Q

K/A slant

A

Slant, red; butt, yellow Glucose fermented; lactose and sucrose not
fermented

55
Q

A/A slant

A

Slant, yellow; butt, yellow Glucose fermented; lactose, sucrose, or
both fermented

56
Q

G notation

A

Bubbles/splitting in the butt of the agar Gas production

57
Q

H2S notation

A

Black precipitate H2S production

58
Q

which testing method measures an organism’s ability to hydrolyze an
amino acid to form an amine?

A

Decarboxylase testing, also called Moeller’s method

59
Q

Decarboxylase positive

A

purple color change compared to orange in the control tube

60
Q

Decarboxylase negative

A

No color change, or yellow color in the test and control tubes

61
Q

what test is performed to definitively identify yeast species in clinical
specimens

A

Carbohydrate utilization testing

62
Q

Carbohydrate utilization positive

A

color change or growth around the disk

63
Q

Carbohydrate utilization negative

A

no color change or growth around the disk

64
Q

Motility testing is done to determine

A

if an organism is motile or not, allowing for further
differentiation among organisms

65
Q

what are the two methods for determining motility

A

the hanging
drop method and the semisolid agar method

66
Q

what objective is used to examine samples in the hanging drop method?

A

40x

67
Q

what determines positive motility using the hanging drop method?

A

aka “true motility”
organisms change position
darting across field

68
Q

what determines negative motility using the hanging drop method?

A

organisms may appear active
remain in same position

69
Q

what determines positive motility using the semisolid agar method?

A

organisms spread out into medium from initial inoculation site

70
Q

what determines negative motility using the semisolid agar method?

A

organisms will remain in same site as inoculation

71
Q

what testing determines the identification and differentiation of Haemophilus species?

A

X and V factor

72
Q

what organism is the most important to identify in X and V factor testing?

A

H. influenzae

73
Q

what conditions occur from H. influenzae?

A

meningitis and pneumonia

74
Q

what indicates a positive X and V factor test?

A

X & V: growth around the XV disk only

75
Q

what indicates a positive V factor?

A

-growth around the V disk
-light growth around the XV disk
-no growth around X disk

76
Q

what indicates a positive X factor?

A

-growth around the X disk
-light growth around the XV disk\
-no growth around the V disk

77
Q

what indicates a negative XV factor?

A

growth on the entire surface of agar

78
Q

what is latex agglutination testing used for?

A

qualitative and semiquantitative evaluations of virulent organisms

79
Q

what organisms are used in latex agglutination testing?

A

Cryptococcus species

80
Q

what is monoclonal antibody testing used for?

A

testing for antigens produced by H. pylori
or toxigenic C. diff strains

81
Q

what components comprise organism identification and susceptibility testing?

A

-incubator
-automated reader
-data terminal
-printer
-LIS connectivity

82
Q

what methods are used to determine biochemical reactions to known isolates?

A

-turbidity
-colorimetry
-fluorescent
-MALDI-TOF MS

83
Q

what does MALDI-TOF MS stand for?

A

Matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization time-of-flight mass spectrometry

84
Q

what are the two phases of MALDI-TOF?

A

-ionization
-time-of-flight

85
Q

what occurs during the ionization phase of the MALDI-TOF MS?

A

-sample is fixed to crystalline matrix
-then is bombarded by a laser
-laser vaporizes molecules into a vacuum and ionizes without destroying them

86
Q

what occurs during the TOF MS phase of the MALDI-TOF MS?

A

-separates ions based on mass-to-charge ratio
-determines the time each molecule takes to reach detector
-patterns are compared to known patterns

87
Q

what testing method allows for testing of multiple pathogens simultaneously?

A

multiplex molecular methods

88
Q

what are multiplex systems used for the detection of?

A

respiratory or GI pathogens

89
Q

what regions does genetic sequencing target?

A

16s ribosomal RNA in individual bacteria

90
Q

what are the variable regions on the 16s gene?

A

V2, V3, V4, V6, V7, V8, V9

91
Q

What is testing is used to find the correct agent and appropriate concentration to rid a bacterial infection?

A

antibiotic susceptibility and resistance testing

92
Q

what are the most commonly used testing methods for antimicrobial susceptibility testing and resistance?

A

dilutions and disk diffusion

93
Q

what method requires multiple tubes in varying concentrations of antibiotics with the test isolate?

A

broth dilution

94
Q

what is considered the lowest concentration of drug necessary for inhibiting growth and multiplication?

A

MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

95
Q

what is considered the lowest concentration of a drug resulting in death?

A

minimum bactericidal concentration

96
Q

what method observes the zone size of bacterial growth inhibition?

A

disk diffusion

97
Q

when is an organism considered susceptible?

A

when there is no bacterial growth around an antibiotic disk

98
Q

when is an organism considered intermediate?

A

smaller zone, but not small enough to be considered resistant
may need a higher dose of antibiotics

99
Q

when is an organism considered resistant?

A

having no zone of inhibition

100
Q
A