Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PSYCHOLOGY GRE TEST PREP > unknown written flashcards > Flashcards

unknown written flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
GRE® Vocabulary flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

functionalism

A

concerned with how mental processes help people adapt to their environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

fixed action pattern

A

behavior that is relatively stereotyped and species-typical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is based on the principles of classical conditioning

A

systematic desensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

law of effect

A

if a response is followed by an annoying consequence, the animal will be less likely to emit that response in the future

if you don’t study for a test and fail it, you will study in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

operant conditioning

A

reward learning based on the relationship of actions and their consequences

ex: a dog sits because it knows it will be given a treat
ex: a girl does not talk out of turn in class so she can go to recess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

discriminative stimulus

A

in operant conditioning it indicates the organisms behavior will have consequences

ex: a bird will peck only on red keys if they know the green key will not give them food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

theory of motivation

A

behavioral reinforcement occurs when. biological drive is reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

variable interval

A

best when behavior is reinforced at the first response of made after a variable amount of time has elapsed since the last reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

variable ratio

A

when a behavior is reinforced after a varying number of responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the important factors when considering the effects of modeling on learning

A

attention
retention
reproduction
motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

systematic desensitization

A

treats phobias by pairing object of fear with relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

modeling

A

therapeutic technique in which the client learns the appropriate behavior through imitating someone else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

flooding

A

behavioral modification technique that is used to treat anxiety disorder by exposing the client to the anxiety inducing stimulus

someone scared of dogs is immediately put in a room with one and asked to pet it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what study is two point discrimination addressed in

A

cutaneous sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does it mean if a scale has a +0.15 correlation with other standardized scales AND a +1.00 exists between the student who has taken it twice’s scores

A

low construct validity

high reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

order effects

A

issue in research design where the order of the tasks influences the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ANOVA

A

compares means of more than two groups though comparison of between group and within group variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

domain reference testing

what does it ask

A

criterion reference testing

what the test taker knows about a specific context domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

correlation coefficient

A

measures if two variables are related

ex: when it is summer, ice cream sales go up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

counterbalancing

A

controls unintended order effects by administering variables in all possible sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

standard error of measurement

A

how much on avg we expect observed score to vary from actual score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

confounding variables

A

unintended IVs

ex: in weight gain, not only how much you eat, but gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

construct validity

A

how well a test measures the intended theoretical construct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

phenomenon that refers to the approach to personality that focuses on group case studies

A

nomothetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is true if a distribution has low variability

A

SD is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

between-subjects design

A

different trials to different groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

within-subjects design

A

different trials to same groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

statistic

A

mean of a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

parameter

A

mean of a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does it mean if a students test has a standard error measurement of 0

A

they will always score at a point that reflect their actual ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

factor analysis

A

uses correlation coefficients to reduce a large amount of variables to a few factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

alternate form method

A

using more than two forms of a test to determine reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

demand characteristics

A

cues that suggest what the researcher expects from research participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

reliability

A

consistency of a test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ratio scale

A

real numbers with a true zero point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are t scores

what is the mean

what is the standard deviation

A

scores converted to a normal distribution

mean is 50

standard deviation is 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

t tests

A

compares means of two groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

type 1 error

A

rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

type 2 error

A

failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

significance test

A

test the probability of an observed difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

nominal scale

A

labels observations instead of quantifying them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

external validity

A

generalizability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

variance

A

SD squared

describes how much each score varies from the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

deviation intelligence quotients

A

IQ score that tells us how far a person’s IQ score is from others their age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

chi square test

A

testing for an association between 2 categorical variables

ex: are marriage and education level related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

inferential stats

A

making an inference of the sample to provide an estimate of population characteristics

ex: asking 100 people on campus if they want to join greek like to make an assumption on the population of students at ECU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

predictive validity

A

use of some criterion scores obtained in advance and validating them to scores obtained later

ex: GRE scores predicting future performance in grad school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

criterion validity

A

how well the test can predict a person’s performance on an established test of the same skill or knowledge area

ex: job applicant taking a test during an interview, if the test accurately predicts how well they will perform on the job, it has criterion validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

sequential cohort study

A

studies groups of subjects from diff ages over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

control group design

A

treating both groups equally other than the fact that only one group gets the treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what kind of data is used when participants only choose one of something

A

nominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is true about z scores

A

mean of a distribution is 0
standard deviation is 1
68% fall between -1 and 1
96% fall between -2 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what approach to personality focuses on individual case studies

A

idiographic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

value hypothesis

A

risky shift occurs in situations where riskiness is valued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the classic study of group and intergroup reactions where development of group norms and interactions between groups were studied in depth

A

robber’s cave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

social influence

A

presence of others affects your judgement of an event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ethology

A

study of animals in their natural environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

humanism

A

belief in notion of free will

people should be considered as wholes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

self-perception theory

A

Bem’s theory that when attitudes yourself are weak, you observe their own behavior and attribute it to yourself

ex: I love to workout so I am healthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

fictional finalism

A

person is motivated more by their expectations of the future more than the values of past experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

structuralism

A

refers to breaking consciousness into elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the uncovering and discharge of repressed emotion

A

abreaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

semantic feature comparison model

A

when you have to quickly decide about categorizations to see if a test item is apart of a certain characteristic

ex: “birds fly”: most birds do fly, but some cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

altruism

A

helping behavior where the intent s to benefit others at a cost to yourself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

primacy effect

A

1st impressions are more important than subsequent impressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

functional autonomy

A

drives can become independent of their original motive

ex: man trying to perfect his craft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

reaction formation

A

defense mechanism that when a repressed wish is warded off with it’s diametrical opposite
ex: acting like you hate the boy you have a crush on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

actor observer effect

A

actors are seen as dispositional

observers are seen as situational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

boomerang effect

A

attitude change in the opposite direction from the persuader’s message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is instinctual drift

A

tendency for natural or instinctual behaviors to spontaneously reappear during conditioning trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

broca’s aphasia

A

impairments in producing spoken language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

social comparison theory

A

tendency to evaluate the self in comparison with others drives affiliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

self- disclosure theory

A

refers to conditions that prohibit or facilitate the process of revealing intimate aspects of self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is associated with attributing success to external causes

A

low self esteem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

proprioception

A

sense of bodily position including vestibular and kinesthetic senses

ex: close your eyes and touch your nose or knowing if feet are on grass or concrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

termperament

A

ind diffs have a genetic basis which is the foundation of personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

supression

A

CONSCIOUS form of forgetting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

protection motivation theory

A

proposed that an appeal to fear produces an attitude change under particular conditions
ex: stopping smoking when getting lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

isomorphism

A

1-1 correspondent between the object in perceptual field and the pattern of stimulation in the brain

pairing only one object in A with one object in B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

psychodynamic/ psychoanalytic theory

A

existence of the unconscious internal states that motivate overt actions of people
determines personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

equity theory

A

we expect to be rewarded for good behavior and punished for bad behavior
feel guilty when equity is not present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

consistency theory

A

people prefer consistency between attitudes and behaviors and will chance or resist changing based on this preference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is used by cognitive psychologists to measure cognitive processes

A

latency
eye movements
gaze durations
semantic recognition

84
Q

behavioral contracts

A

therapy style that is a negotiated agreement by 2 parties that stipulates the behavioral change desired and lists consequences of certain actions

85
Q

paradoxical intervention

A

therapy technique that makes the client do the activity they are seeking treatment for

86
Q

transference

A

thinking your therapist will do things to you that others have done to you in the past

87
Q

countertransference

A

in psychoanalysis:

therapist experiences emotions in response to the patients’ transference

88
Q

aphaGia

A

impairment in the ability to eat

89
Q

somatoform disorder

A

presence of physical symptoms not related to medical condition

ex: hypochondria

90
Q

conversion disorders

A

unexplained symptoms affecting voluntary motor of sensory functions
used to be referred to as hysteria

ex: thinking you fell of your bike and not moving your arm

91
Q

disassociative disorder (multiple personality disorder)

A

2+ personalities that recurrently take control of a person’s behavior

92
Q

what is classified as a neurodevelopment disorder in the DSMV

A

adhd
tourettes
asd
intellectual disability

93
Q

prodromal phase

A

phase before schizophrenia is diagnosed, characterized by poor adjustment

94
Q

what is classified as a disassociative disorder in the DSMV

A

amnesia
fugue
identity disorders
depersonalization

95
Q

double blind hypothesis

A

people with schizophrenia receive contradictory messages from caregivers during childhood which makes them see their perceptions as unreliable

96
Q

schizoid personality disorder

A

detached from social relationships and restricted range of emotional expression

97
Q

agoraphobia

A

fear of leaving the house and spending time in populated areas because of fear of having a panic attack and not being able to escape

98
Q

norepinephrine

A

controls alertness and wakens

involved in implicating mood disorders such as depression and mania

99
Q

dopamine hypothesis

A

biochemical explanation for schizophrenia that suggests symptoms associated arise form an excess of dopamine activity at certain cites in the brain

100
Q

acrophobia

A

irrational fear of heights

101
Q

preparedness

A

inborn tendency to associate certain stimuli with certain consequences
ex: phobias related to survival are easier to induce in the lab

102
Q

fetal period

A

last stage of prenatal development

marked by measurable brain activity

103
Q

lutenizing hormone

A

surge causes ovulation

prepares for pregancy

104
Q

germinal period

A

first 2 weeks
period of rapid cell division
ends with implantation of cellular mass into uterine wall

105
Q

phylogeny

A

evolutionary development in humans

106
Q

reactance

A

when social pressure to behave in a particular way threatens a persons sense of freedom, they will react in a way to reassert that freedom

ex: sneaking out when parents give a curfew

107
Q

embryonic stage

A 
3rd stage
embryo increases in size dramatically
develop human appearance 
limb motion 
produces androgen in baby boy testes embryo
develops nerve cells in the spine
108
Q

zygote

A

single fertilized cell created in conception when sperm and egg cells combine

109
Q

progesterone

A

prepares for pregnancy

secretion regulated by luteinizing hormone

110
Q

follicle stimulating hormone

A

gonadtropin that
stimulate ovaries through follicular growth and estrogen secretion

development of primary sex hormones

111
Q

pheromones

A

communicate with other animals

112
Q

hormones

A

communicate with a single organism

113
Q

what is the neural basis for pitch perception

A

location on the basilar membrane that vibrates

114
Q

what are current views on feature detectors in auditory and visual systems

A

feature detectors have been clearly demonstrated in both modalities

115
Q

frequency

A

number of sound wave cycles per second

measured in hertz

116
Q

what are the four basic components of language

A

phonology
syntax
semantics
pragmatics

117
Q

pitch

A

subjective experience of the frequency of sound

makes things sound higher or lower

118
Q

where do high frequency sounds maximally vibrate on the basilar membrane

A

beginning of the cochlea, near the oval window

119
Q

where do low frequency sounds maximally vibrate on the basilar membrane

A

near the apex

120
Q

what are dichotic listening tasks used to study

A

selective attention

ex: one message in each ear, only pay attention to one of them

121
Q

intensity

A

amplitude or height of air pressure wave and its related loudness

122
Q

linguistic relativity hypothesis (whorfian hypothesis)

A

our perception of reality is determined by the content of language

ex: sexism in language due to fireMAN policeMAN

123
Q

aphasias language disorders are in what part of the brain?

A

Brocas and wernickes areas

124
Q

syntax

A

grammatical arrangement of words in sentences

ex: S+V+DO, or she is a person v she am a person

125
Q

semantics

A

literal meaning of words and sentences

126
Q

what is a morpheme

A

smallest part of a word that has meaning

“un” “break” “able” has three

127
Q

what is a phoneme

A

smallest sound of unit in language

a letter

128
Q

what part of memory is being tested when you take a multiple choice test

A

recognition

129
Q

iconic memory

A

visual sensory memory that fades quickly

ex: you look at tori scrolling through insta and can close your eyes and see the picture

130
Q

law of pragnanz

A

perceptual organization is as good as possible

131
Q

levels of processing theory

what are they analyzed in

A

deeper information is encoded, the longer we will remember it

sensory memory (listening in class)
short term memory (reading/ taking notes in class)
long term memory (elaboration)
132
Q

generation recognition model

A

recall tasks tap the same basic process of assessing information in memory as recognition tasks, they just involve an extra step

133
Q

field independence & field dependence

A

field independent people: rely less on others for support

field dependent people: learning in a social way

ex: I am field independent

134
Q

Atkinson shiffrin model

A 
composed of: 
sensory memory (1-3 secs)
short term memory (15-30 secs)
long term memory (1 sec-lifetime)

ex: autistic savants do not have to rehearse to get things into long term memory

135
Q

top down processing

A

environment influences thinking

when people recognize objects by using conceptual processes such as memory, or expectations about the whole object

ex: bad handwriting is easier to read in sentences rather than words
ex: stroop effect

136
Q

semantic memory

A

declarative memory that deals with remembering general knowledge

especially the meaning of words and sentences

ex: knowing that grass is green

137
Q

declarative memory

A

fact memory

138
Q

dissonance theory

A

tendency to change thoughts or behaviors in response to those perceived consistencies

ex: vaping but I know it is bad for me, I am in a state of dissonance

139
Q

agnosia

A

impairment in perceptual recognition

ex: seeing a coffee and can touch it but not name it

140
Q

adaptive control of thought model (ACT model)

A

describes memory in terms of procedural and declarative memory

ex: tori gave the pink phone to charli, who is VP, can be broken down into
- tori gave charli the phone
- the phone is pink
- charli is VP3

141
Q

paivo’s dual code hypothesis

A

abstract info is encoded verbally
concrete info is encoded visually

ex: when thinking of a dog, you can say the word dog or think of an image

142
Q

iconic and echoic memory

A

refer to the brief storage of events at the sensory level, prior to encoding at a deeper level

  • iconic is sensory memory for vision
  • echoic is sensory memory for hearing
143
Q

auditory memory

A

echoic memory

144
Q

eidetic memory

A

photographic memory

145
Q

elaborative rehearsal

A

process of organizing information and associating it with what you already know to put it in long term memory

146
Q

bottom up processing

A

retrieval of sensory information from environment to build perceptions

Ex: you see the shape of a B and know that it is B

147
Q

perceptual sets

A

expectations we have about perception due to past experiences

148
Q

what is an example of a schema

A

never seeing a sparrow but calling it a bird because it has wings

149
Q

what is the primary deficit in anterograde amnesia

A

impairment of recalling new events

150
Q

proactive inhibition

A

what you learned before effects what you are learning now

ex: unable to remember a friend’s new phone number because you learned her last one

151
Q

retroactive inhibition

A

what you are learning now effects what you learned earlier

ex: if I took a Spanish class, I would not remember how to speak French

152
Q

what lobe of the brain deals with problem solving and reasoning

A

frontal lobe

153
Q

what increased activity bring about fight or flight

A

SNS

ex: scared seeing a snake, sympathetic

154
Q

what is the result of damage to the ventromedial region of the hypothalamus

A

hyperphagia aka overeating

155
Q

what sensory systems are involved with AFFERENT pathways

A

ALL sensory systems

156
Q

what lobe deals with somasensatory processing

A

parietal lobe

157
Q

projection area

A

receives incoming sensory info

sends out motor impulse commands

158
Q

phrenology

A

study of psychological functions in areas of the brain

characteristics in people are attributed to the shape of their brain

159
Q

ACH

A

found in CNS and PNS
linked to alzheimers
transmits nerve impulses to muscles, helps with learning and memory

160
Q

sedative hypnotic drugs

A

slows down CNS by sending GABA

reduces anxiety

161
Q

tricyclic antidepressants

A

transmit norepinephrine and serotonin at the synapse

162
Q

parallel distributed process

A

info processing is distributed across the brain and is done in a parallel fashion

  • processing several pieces at once rather than at different times
    ex: you see a face, not eyes, nose, lips etc
163
Q

wernickes aphasia

A

impairment in UNDERSTANDING spoken languages

164
Q

rebound effect

A

when you are deprived of REM sleep, you will spend more time in REM sleep at a later time

165
Q

behavioral stimulants

A

increase behavioral activity by increasing motor activity or counterbalancing fatigue
stimulates receptors for norepinephrine, dopamine and serotonin

166
Q

absolute threshold

A

minimum of stimulus energy needed to activate a sensory system

smallest amount of energy needed to detect the stimulus half the time

167
Q

genes

A

located on chromosomes

basic units of transmitting heredity

168
Q

hyperpolarization

A

increase in membrane potential that decreases possibility of generating a nerve impulse

makes the cell membrane more negative

169
Q

innate releasing mechanism

A

serves to connect the stimulus with the right response

ex: when a dog sees a cat running away from them, their IRM tells them to chase it because it is automatic and instinctual

170
Q

interneurons

A

in the spinal cord

connect sensory neurons to motor neurons which forms the reflex arc

171
Q

proximal stimulus

A

info our sensory reception receives about the object

ex: light reflecting off the page of a book that stimulates photoreceptors and retina

172
Q

connectionism

A

theory of information that is compared to a complex neural network

173
Q

apraxia

A

impairment in the organization of voluntary action

ex: unable to brush your hair

174
Q

mental chronometry

A

measures the time between a stimulus presentation and reaction time

ex: time between answering that a pigeon is a bird, and answering that a penguin is a bird

175
Q

motor neurons

A

transmit motor commands from the brain to muscles along EFFERENT fibers

176
Q

diploid cells

A

contain 23 pairs of chromosomes

177
Q

Stevens power law

A

relates intensity of stimulus and sensation

178
Q

single cell recording

A

records the response cell by placing a microelectide in the cortex

179
Q

signal detection theory

A

non sensory factors such as attitudes, expectations and knowledge can influence sensory perception

we notice things based on how much we are paying attention AND how strong they are

180
Q

sign stimulus

A

brings about a particular FAP

ex: fish with a red belly gives the rival the sign stimulus to attack that fish

181
Q

transduction

A

physical energy is translated to neural impulses or action potential
2nd step in sensory information processing

182
Q

sensory memory

A

fleeting impressions of sensory stimuli

includes iconic and echoic memory

183
Q

psychophysics

A

measures the relationship between physical stimuli and psychological responses to it

  • measures absolute threshold
    ex: giving the participant the smallest amount of watermelon to see if they can taste it
184
Q

reception

A

first step in all sensory information processing

each sensory system has receptors that react to physical external energy

185
Q

which stimuli trigger the start of a behavior

A

consummatory, sign, supernormal, releaser

186
Q

what is semantic priming

A

idea that nodes are primed by the activation of nearby nodes when exposed to related words

187
Q

what reinforcement schedule is hardest to extinguish

A

VR

188
Q

resting potential

A

waiting to be transformed into a nerve impulse

189
Q

what produces the gonadotropic hormones

A

pituitary gland

190
Q

law of specific nerve energies

A

each sensory nerve is excited by one and only one type of nerve energy

191
Q

neurocognitive disorder

A

loss of intellectual functioning

192
Q

depolarization

A

2nd stage in firing cycle

anytime the membrane’s voyage moves toward a neutral charge of 0 MV

193
Q

what is the opponent process theory

A

the appearance of afterimages of different colors than the original stimulus

194
Q

what does the blind spot refer to

A

the area where the optic nerve connects with the retina

195
Q

induced motion

A

illusion of movement occurring when everything around the spot of light is moved

196
Q

what is used to study visual perception in infants

A

preferential looking

197
Q

what is the main difference between the theory of color vision put forth by Hemholtz and that put forth by Hering?

A

Hering’s theory emphasizes the importance of three opposing pairs of color receptors
RG, BY, black white

198
Q

lateral inhibition

A

process of inhibiting the response of adjacent retinal cells resulting in sharpening and highlighting of the borders between light and dark areas

199
Q

duplexity/duplicity theory of color vision

A

retina contains two types of photoreceptors

200
Q

emmert’s law

A

describes relationship between size constancy and apparent distance

the farther away the object appears to be, the more the scaling device in the brain will compensate for its retinal size by enlarging our perception of the object

201
Q

motion parralax

A

cue for depth perception that occurs during movement when objects closer to the door appear to move

202
Q

phi phenomenon

A

illusion of movement when two dots are flashed in different locations on a screen seconds apart and are perceived as one moving dot

203
Q

subtractive color mixture

A

occurs when we mix pigments

204
Q

two point thresholds

A

min distance between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be perceived as two different stimuli

205
Q

size constancy

A

when an object appears to retain its size despite its image on the retina changing in size

206
Q

what should one do to perceive fine details of an object in full daylight

A

look so that the image falls directly on the fovea

207
Q

visual agnosia

A

impairments in visual recognition whereby you can see an object and not recognize it

PSYCHOLOGY GRE TEST PREP (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions