Unit Deployment Process

Question 1

Large-scale combat operations are?

Answer 1

extensive joint combat operations in terms of scope and size of forces committed, conducted as a campaign aimed at achieving
operational and strategic objectives

Question 2

Deploying Principles are?

Answer 2

• Precision
• Synchronization.
• Knowledge.
• Speed

Question 3

Precision applies to?

Answer 3

every activity and piece of data. Its effect is far-reaching, and the payoff is speed.

Question 4

Synchronization normally requires?

Answer 4

explicit coordination among the deploying units and staffs, supporting units and staffs, a variety of civilian agencies, and other Services.

Question 5

Knowledge is?

Answer 5

One of the more critical pieces in deployment planning is the knowledge upon which decisions are made. There is a short period of time during which the deploying commander must make crucial decisions on employment. These decisions set the tone for the remainder of the deployment. Many decisions are very hard to change and have significant adverse impacts if changed; others are irrevocable.

Question 6

Speed is?

Answer 6

is the proper focus on the velocity of the entire force projection process, from planning to force closure. Critical elements of speed associated with force projection include agile (state-of-the-art) ports, submission of accurate information, safe and efficient loading, trained unit movement personnel at all levels, timely arrival of throughput enablers, maintaining unit integrity, delivering capability rather than entire units, and force tracking information.

Question 7

Phases of Deployment are?

Answer 7

I. Deployment planning- interwoven through all phases
II. Pre-deployment activities
II. Movement- includes 2 segments: fort to port and port to port
IV. (Not discuss in this lesson) Joint RSOI

Question 8

The initial activity in deployment planning is?

Answer 8

developing a plan using the
Military Decision Making Process (MDMP).

Question 9

Pre-deployment planning includes:

Answer 9

analyze the mission
structure forces
refine deployment data
prepare the force
schedule movement

Question 10

Successful deployment planning requires:

Answer 10

knowledge of the unit’s deployment responsibilities

understanding of the total deployment process

Question 11

What is Force Projection?

Answer 11

the ability to project the military instrument of national power from the United States or another theater, in response to requirements for military operations

Question 12

THE SEQUENTIAL MODEL DIRECTS?

Answer 12

UNITS, ONCE MOBILIZED, TO ASSEMBLE AT HS OR OTHER EQUIPMENT POINTS OF ORIGIN (EPO) TO PREPARE SOLDIERS AND DEPLOYING EQUIPMENT FOR MOVEMENT TO AN MFGI. RC UNITS COMPLETE POST-MOBILIZATION TASKS USING DEPLOYING EQUIPMENT. ONCE VALIDATED FOR DEPLOYMENT

Question 13

THE SIMULTANEOUS MODEL DIRECTS?

Answer 13

UNITS, ONCE MOBILIZED, TO ASSEMBLE AT HS OR OTHER EPO TO PREPARE SOLDIERS AND ORGANIC EQUIPMENT FOR MOVEMENT. DEPLOYING EQUIPMENT IS MOVED TO THE PORT OF EMBARKATION (POE) AND SOLDIERS MOVE, WITH TO ACCOMPANY TROOPS (TAT) EQUIPMENT.

Question 14

What is a MFGI?

Answer 14

a Mobilization Force Generation Installation are Army installations, Joint bases, or federally active state-operated installations designated to provide mobilization support for both current and contingency operations. MFGIs provide pre and post mobilization readiness support, deployment preparation in support of Combatant Command requirements.

Question 15

What is a PPP?

Answer 15

Army installation, joint bases, capable of deploying one or more Army brigades or larger formations IAW Combatant Command requirements.

Question 16

Installations designated as Power Projected Platforms (PPP) can deploy a Brigade sized force or larger upon notification to meet CCMD OPLAN requirements within?

Answer 16

10 days or less.

Question 17

Mobilization Force Generation Installation (MFGIs) designated as Primary and Active are capable of mobilizing designated forces within?

Answer 17

14 days of notification of alert.

Question 18

Ready-to-load date (RLD).

Answer 18

This date is when a unit must be prepared to depart its origin (installation for AC and Mobilization Station for RC). Note that on our example TPFDD the RLD is given as C0 or C-Day.

Question 19

Available-to-load date (ALD).

Answer 19

This is the date when the unit must be ready to load an aircraft or ship at the POE. On our example TPFDD the unit has three days (C-Day, C+1 and C+2) to move from their installation/Mobilization Station to the POE.

Question 20

Earliest arrival date (EAD).

Answer 20

This represents the earliest date on which a unit, a re-supply shipment, or replacement personnel, can be accepted at a POD during a deployment (this might be dictated by the tactical situation or congestion at the POD).

Question 21

‘Latest arrival date’ (LAD)

Answer 21

represents the latest date on which a unit, a re-supply shipment, or replacement personnel can be accepted at a POD to support the concept of operations

Question 22

Required delivery date (RDD).

Answer 22

This is the date (specified by the combatant commander) by which a unit, re-supply shipment, or replacement personnel must have arrived at the POD and completed offloading to support the concept of operations.

Question 23

UDL

Answer 23

unit deployment list

Question 24

Planning for packing & loading unit equipment is an important deployment preparation activity:

Answer 24

Involves identifying actual space, weight, packaging material & external transport requirements

Proper planning saves valuable time when ordered to deploy

Question 25

Weights for most military cargo is marked on the package; however, you must verify actual weights:

Answer 25

Unmarked cargo must be weighed before loading

Total shipment weight should be equal to the sum of the individual cargo weights

Dense cargo can cause a container/vehicle’s weight limit to be reached before the cargo space is filled

Question 26

pointed Container Control Officer (CCO) is responsible for?

Answer 26

control, reporting, use and maintenance of all DoD – owned and controlled intermodal containers and equipment from time received until dispatched within their AOR.

Question 27

The 463L pallet weighs?

Answer 27

290 pounds without cargo

Question 28

The pallet must be loaded such that the Center of Balance (CB) of the pallet lies within?

Answer 28

24” by 28” rectangle at the center of the pallet.

Question 29

General loading guidance for pallet?

Answer 29

Metal on metal contact is not allowed and mitigated with wood or cardboard.

HAZMAT material must be labeled and stored properly

Question 30

DD Form 1750 identifies, in detail, the contents of a?

Answer 30

container, vehicle, trailer carrying secondary cargo, 463L pallet, and/or multi-pack box

Question 31

The four segments of reception staging onward movement and integration (RSOI) are:

Answer 31

Reception

Staging

Onward Movement

Integration

Question 32

Reception is?

Answer 32

is the process of receiving, off-loading, marshalling, and transporting of personnel, equipment, and materiel from strategic and/or intratheater deployment phase to a sea, air, or surface transportation POD to the marshalling area.

Question 33

Staging is?

Answer 33

assembling, temporarily holding, and organizing arriving personnel, equipment, and materiel into forces and capabilities and preparing them for onward movement, tactical operations, or Service reintegration.

Question 34

Onward movement is?

Answer 34

the process of moving forces, capabilities, and
accompanying materiel from reception facilities, marshalling areas, and SAs to TAAs and/or OAs or onward from the POD or other reception areas to the home/demobilization station.

Question 35

Integration is?

Answer 35

the synchronized transfer of capabilities into an operational
commander’s force prior to mission execution or back to the component/Service.

Question 36

TPFDD is?

Answer 36

Time Phased Force Deployment Data

a database that contains information about the movement of military units and forces, as well as cargo and personnel, over time

Question 37

Reception functions consists of:

Answer 37

Personnel

Airfield management (A/DACG)

Materials handling equipment (MHE)

Maintenance

Transportation resources

Security

Hazardous cargo handling

Medical

Question 38

Staging functions consists of:

Answer 38

Ship arrival and departure coordination

Coordination for transportation for onward movement

Movement control from seaport of debarkation (SPOD) to marshalling area

Hazardous cargo handling

Port support activity (PSA)

Field services

Question 39

Onward movement functions consists of:

Answer 39

Food, water, lighting, billeting, showers, and latrines

Security

Communications

Materials and cargo handling

Question 40

Integration functions consists of:

Answer 40

Synchronized transfer of mission-ready forces and capabilities into the CCDR’s force

Tasks which may take hours or days to complete

Force closure as reported by the commander of the unit (force tracking)

Deploying force has completed movement to the specified OA/destination (force closure)

Question 41

CDDP

Answer 41

Command Deployment Discipline Program

a tool for commanders to evaluate their unit’s or their subordinate unit’s deployment readiness

combines policy and doctrinal deployment requirements under one program to enable commanders at all levels to maintain their organizations at their appropriate deployment readiness posture to meet Army mission

Question 42

DREs

Answer 42

Deployment Readiness Exercises

To synchronize and integrate army power projection efforts in order to exercise and evaluate the total deployment process

Question 43

Name three documents that as a platoon leader, you would provide to the UMO for deployment?

Answer 43

FORSCOM Form 285-R (Vehicle Load Card),
DD Form 1750 (Packing List)
Destination Placard