Unit 6 Flashcards
The genome of a virus is composed of?
Any of the above
*Single-stranded DNA
*RNA
*double-stranded DNA
What requirements do viruses have for replications?
They must be inside a living cell
What is the correct sequence of viral infection of naked viruses?
Attachment, penetration, replication, cell lysis
When is the best time to collect a specimen for culture from a patient suspected of having a viral disease?
Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms
What is the composition of viral transport media?
Isotonic buffered saline with protein
What is an unsuitable temperature for virsuses because it allows the development of ice crystals?
-20C
All of the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections, except
Growth on artificial media
Which of the following describes cytopathic effects seen in viral culture?
The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus
The cytopathic effect demonstrating intranuclear inclusions is associated with
CMV
The noroviruses are most noted for producing
Gastroenteritis
Which of the following is the best description of a primary cell culture?
It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer and in which very little cell division occurs
Which of the following describes a diploid cell culture that is not a primary culture?
It is a culture of cells that can divide, but passage is limited to about 50 generation
Which of the following is the description of continuous cell cultures?
Cells often have variable numbers of chromosomes and can be sub cultured indefinitely
What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of viral infection?
Syncytia
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by
Coronavirus
Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infection except
Meningitis
What type of genome do herpesviruses have?
- dsDNA
Which virus has been linked to Kaposi sarcoma?
Human herpesvirus 8
Which serologic marker would be expected to be found in the serum of someone successfully vaccinated against Hepatitis B virus (HBV)?
Anti-HBs
Presence of this HBV serologic marker indicates is highly infectious
HBs antigen
What virus causes genital herpes?
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Symptomatic congenital infection with CMV includes all the following except
Meningitis
Complications of EBV infection include all the following except
Acute glomerulonephritis
Which cancer is associated with EBV?
Burkitts lymphomas
What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause?
Chickenpox
What type of cancer is associated with HPV?
Cervical
What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children?
Rotavirus
Poliovirus is transmitted primarily by
Fecal-oral
Which one of the following viruses causes a viral hemorrhagic fever?
Ebola virus
What virus causes Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?
Sin Nombre virus
What virus is the most common cause of Arboviral encephalitis in the world?
Japanese Encephalitis (JE) virus
What is the most common flavivirus infection in the United States?
St. Louis Encephalitis
What virus causes the measles?
Rubeola virus
What is the most common virus isolated from infant with lower respiratory infections and cause croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis and interstitial pneumonia?
RSV
What virus is the major cause of common cold?
Rhinovirus
Which of the following is true of the virus the causes of AIDS?
Human retrovirus
What viral genus causes rabies?l
Lyssavirus
Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen?
Hepatitis C virus
What is a prion?
A proteinaceous infectious particle
What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru and “mad cow” disease?
Prion
What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru and “mad cow” disease?
Prion
What virus causes immune suppression in the host by targeting and destroying the hosts CD4+ T cells?
HIV
The classic example of a bite-wound infection is
Rabies
How is hepatitis B transmitted
Blood and body fluids
Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal-oral route?
Hepatitis A
Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a live transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer?
Heptatits C
All of the following are identifiable viral agents of gastrointertitis except
CMV
The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with HBV and HIV is
Needle stick
Infection with CMV in non immune pregnant women can cause
Microencephalopathy
When reading culture plates from respiratory specimens, what must the microbiologist take into consideration?
The types of organisms normally found at the culture site
What does the presence of a-hemolytic colonies on a throat culture indicate?
These organisms are normal microbiota found in the pharynx
What should a microbiologist do if he or she finds a-hemolytic colonies on a properly collected sputum specimen on a patient suspected of having lobar pneumonia?
Do a full workup to identify the organism
A patients normal pharyngeal biota can be altered by all of the following except
Visiting a nursing home
All of the following factors can help the microbiologist differentiate between colonization and infection except
Presence of a pure culture or mixed biota on the culture plates
What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia adults?
Streptococcus pneumonia
What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections?
All of the above
*obstruction by a foreign body
*alterations in the viscosity of the mucus
*immature anatomica development
What bacterium may cause up to 50% of all cases of pneumonia in the summer months?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
What is helpful when initiating antimicrobial therapy?
Knowing the pathogens most likely to cause a particular type of infection
Elements of the respiratory tract that can help prevent infection include
All of the above
*nasal hair
*normal microbiota
*coughing
All the following are virulence factors that allow microorganisms to produce disease, except
Mucus production
Why is pharyngitiis produced by group A streptococcus treated with antimicrobial agents?
To prevent rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
What are the two most frequently identified bacterial causes of community-acquired sinusitis?
Streptococcus pneumonia and haemophilus influenzae
Acute sinusitis usually occurs as a complication of
The common cold
What common condition will predispose individuals to acute sinusitis?
Allergies
All of the following are complications of acute sinusitis except
Acute pharyngitis
What organism are most frequently isolated from cultures of Individuals with otitis media?
Strepcoccus pneumonia and haemophilus influenza
What is the most common localized infection of the upper respiratory tract in preschool-age patients?
Otitis media
Why do most physicians treat otitis media empirically?
The predominant infection causing organisms are known
What organism is the predominant cause of epiglottis?
Haemophilus influenza
What is the most common complication of pertussis?
Pneumonia
What is the specimen of choice for recovery of Bordetella pertussis?
Nasopharyngeal swabs
What virus causes community-wide seasonal outbreaks of bronchiolitis in infants?
Respiratory syncytial virus
How is acute bronchitis differentiated from acute pneumonia?
The degree and extent of involvement of the lower respiratory tract with the infectious process
Most influenza epidemics and pandemics
Follow a recombination event in causative agents genome
What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months?
Viral pathogens
Patient with influenzae virus infection are predisposed to
Secondary bacterial pneumonia
Nosocomial pneumonia is commonly caused by all of the following except
Streptococcus pneumonia
What is empyema?
A collection of Purulent fluid in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall
What is a chronic pneumonia?
A pneumonia that appears to resolve clinically, but where radiographic lung abnormalities persist for a long period
What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
All of the following are potentially pathogenic organisms found in the nasopharyngeal of healthy individuals except
Streptococcus mutans
What is the most common bacterium found on the skin’?
Coagulate-negative staphylococci
Which of the following organisms is responsible for for impetigo?
Streptococcus pyogenes
A group of swim team members breaks out in a rash folliculitis) the day after swimming at the pool. What organism is probably responsible for this outbreak?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What is a form of follicilitis in bearded men?
Sycosis Barbae
Which of these is an abscess that extends more deeply into the subcutaneous tissue and may have multiple draining sites?
Carbuncle
Besides antimicrobial therapy, how are most carbuncles treated?
Surgical drainage
What condition presents as a localized area of mildly painful erythema, warmth, and swelling of the skin with poorly demarcated margins?
Cellulitis
What is erysipelas?
A superficial form of cellulitis
What is the most well-known type of myonecrosis?
Gas gangrene
What condtion causes the nail margin to become painful, red, warm and swollen with pus?
Paronychia
What organism is known to cause severe necrotic cellulitis and primary sepsis?
Vibrio vulnificus
Purpura fulminant, a skin manifestation of disseminated intravascular coagulation, is associated with which condition?
Meningococcemia
What happen in the later stages of toxic shock syndrome as a result of the production of toxic shock syndrome toxin-1?
Desquamation
What causes scarlet fever?
Erythrogenic toxin
What organism produces “rat bite fever?”
Steptobacillus moniliformis
What organisms causes the Buruli ulcer?
Mycobactrium ulcerans
What is the best method of diagnosing scabies?
Skin scrapings
The clinical syndrome of Rocky Mountain spotted fever Can be confused with which of the following conditions?
Meningococcemia
A common cause of eumycetoma
Madurella sp.
What is a circumscribed, hyperkeratotic, rough-textured, painless papule called?
Wart
What disease results from a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that presents as vesicular eruption in a unilateral dermatomal distribution?
Shingles
What is hepatitis whitlow?
Primary herpetic lesions of the finger
What causes rubeola?
Paramyxovirus
What causes rubella?/
Togaviridae
What causes erythemia infectionsum?
Parvovirus
All of the following viruses cause a characteristic viral syndrome, which includes severe bleeding manifestations except
Junin virus
What is ringworm?
A fungal skin infection
What is thrush?
Oral candidiasis
What is swimmers itch?
Cercariae larvae penetrate human skin, causing dermatitis
In august, a 30 year old man presents with an ulcer on his leg with swelling of the lymph nodes in the surrounding area. He reports taking numerous hikes in the woods behind is house hunting rabbits. He does not recall any animal bites. What disease should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Tularemia
What is the most significant predisposing factor to clostridium difficile-associated disease?
Antimicrobial therapy
All of these patient history questions will help focus the search for the cause of diarrhea, except
Did the patient eat any hot food?
The urea breath test is a noninvasive test to detect infection caused by
Helicobacter pylori
Presence of red colonies with black centers on xylose-lysine-decarboxylase medium is indicative of
Nonlactose fermenter and H2S positive
What defense mechanism does the colon have to guard against infection?
IgA secretion
What is the most common cause of travelers diarrhea?
E. Coli
What is the most common cause of death patients with diarrhea?
Dehydration
What type of diarrheal illness has no fever and no blood or pus in the stool?
Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins
What type of diarrheal illness has a rapid onset of symptoms after food ingestion (usually <12 hours)?
Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins
All of the following organisms can cause enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea, except
Salmonella typhi
What type of diarrheal illness produces fever, leukocytosis is PB and fecal leakocytes?
Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface in invaded
All of the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surfaces to produce diarrhea, except
Vibrio cholerae
What common organism invades the full thickness of the bowel with lymphatic spread?
Salmonella typhi
The presence of yellow colonies on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-salt-sucrose medium is suggestive of
Vibrio cholerae
What virus is the leading cause of diarrhea in children younger than age 5 years?
Rotavirus
What virus causes an acute self-limited diarrheal illness that is highly contagious through contaminated food, water, fomites or person-to-person contact and is associated with vomiting and low-grade fever?
Norovirus
A fecal isolate identified as E. Coli produces clear colonies on MacConkey agar with sorbitol
Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli
What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in the world?
Campylobacter jejuni
Disease caused by which of the following organisms has fever, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and stools with gross blood and pus?
Campylobacter jejuni
What is the environmental reservoir of campylobacter?
Wild and domestic animals
What organism that causes gastrocenteritis can be found in aquaculture-farmed fish?
Salmonella
What organ is colonized in a patient that carries salmonella typhi?
Gallbladder
What toxin does Shigella spp. produce?
Shiga
What diarrheal pathogen can produce a disease that can lead to hemolytic-uremic syndrome?
Enterophemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
What types of stools are characteristic of someone who has cholera?
Rice water stools
A man and his family drive to the coast and have an oyster dinner. A couple of days later, the man arrives at the emergency department with a fever, bullous skin lesions, and diarrhea. He is extremely ill and appears septic. The microbiologist notices curved gram-negative rods on the stool gram stain. What is the most probable organism causing this condition?
Vibrio vulnificus
What is the most important cause of iatrogenic diarrhea in adults?
Clostridium difficile
What is the most commonly identified intestinal parasite in the United States?
Giardia lamblia
Although uncommon, what intestinal parasite is known to leave the colon and cause metastatic disease, especially liver abscesses?
Cryptosporidium parvum
A physician has requested a stool culture for Yersinia, which of the following would be the most appropriate medium to use?
Colistin-irgasan-novobiocin
All of the following organisms are commonly implicated in a foodborne outbreak, except
Salmonella typhi
A microbiologist is reading a gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance. What is the most likely organism?
All of the above
What organism grows a best at 42 C and in a reduced oxygen atmosphere (5-10%)?
Campylobacter jejuni
This is a form of food poisoning that can be life threatening even from otherwise healthy patients
C. Botulinum
What is the volume of CSF in an average adult?
90-150 mL
All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis, except
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A college student is examined at the emergency department; he is disoriented with a fever, intense headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. His friends say that he has been sick for about 2 days and that his condition worsened over the last 3 hours. The serum electrolytes are normal, but the patient WBC is 12,000 cells/L. What test should the physician order next?
CSF gram stain and culture
What is the first step in developing bacterial meninigitis?
Nasopharyngeal colonization by a meningeal pathogen
E. Coli. Is isolated from the spinal fluid of a 3-day old infant. What is the most likely source of the bacterium?
Birth canal
What organism is a common cause of meningitis in neonates and infants up to 3 months of age?
Streptocococcus agalactiae
What condition is characterized by lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF but a lack of identifiable organism after routine culture and gram stain?
Aseptic meningitis
All of the following virsues can resist inactivation by gastric acid except
Herpesvirus
What is EV is commonly associated with neurological illness?
Coxsackievirus B
What type of meningitis is usually uncomplicated and resolves in 2-7 days?
Enteroviral
Common Arboviruses that cause meningitis include all the following except
Venezuelan equine encephalitis
What is a common neurologic complication with the mumps virus?
Aseptic meningitis
Gram-positive diplococci, with a halo, are seen on a STAT CSF taken from an adult who presented to the ER with high fever, still neck, and confusion. You should suspect
steptococcus pneumonia
Syphilic involvement in CNS can take all of the following forms except
Aseptic meningitis
All of the following are common fungal causes of CNS infection except
Candida albicans
What fungus causes chronic meningitis in patients with HIV infection?
Cryptococcus neoformans
A teenager and her friends spend the day swimming in a lake and picnicking. The next day, she starts to feel sick complaining of a headache and general malaise. The following morning, she is very ill and is rushed to the ER. Many neurologic changes are noted. Despite the staffs best efforts, she dies. Autopsy reveals the presence of small Protozoa in her brain tissue. What is the most probable organism that caused her death?
Naegleria Fowleri
Infection with what organism results in a chronic meningoencephalitis, more commonly known as sleeping sickness?
Trypanosoma Brucei
All of the following are common causes of viral encephalitis, except
Toroviruses
All of the following are important arboviruses, except
Lassa fever virus
What virus, spread by y the mosquito, causes a typically self-limiting illness but can be associated with a rash, aseptic meningitis, myelitis and fatal encephalitis?
WNV
A farmer is bitten by a raccoon. He washed the wound with soap and water and then puts a dressing on it. A couple of days later, he begins to feel tired and the wound painful. About 2 days later, the farmer begins to feel agitated. He has a seizure and hallucination. What condition matches the farmers symptoms and history?
Rabies
From where do most cerebral abscesses spread?
all of the above
*middle ear infections
* mastoiditis
*paranasal sinus infections
What are the most common bacteria isolated from nontraumatic brain abscesses?
Streptococcus
CSF specimens should be analyzed for infectious agents as quickly as possible. How should a specimen collected in the hospital be transported to the laboratory?
Room temperature
A CSF sample collected from a child yields the following results: turbid, very high total protein levels, and very low glucose levels. What would the probable diagnosis be?
Bacterial meningitis
Which of the following is an example of primary bacteremia source?
An infected heart valve
Which of the following is an example of secondary bacteremia source?
The Lung
What organism is the most common cause of community-acquired bacteremia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
What condition results when there is a procedural manipulation of body site containing normal microbiota, causing those bacteria to enter the bloodstream?
Transient bacteremia
What is the most common clinical manifestations associated with continuous bacteremia?
Endocarditis?
All of the following factors are associated with an unfavorable outcome in bacteremia except
Surface wound or abscess
Bacteremias are least often associated with which of the following patient conditions?
Those undergoing elective outpatient surgical procedures
What immunosuppressive agent can increase a patients risk of bacteremia?
All of the above
*cancer chemotherapy
*corticosteroid therapy
*transplant maintenance therapy
What underlying condition predisposes a person to a polymicrobial bacteremia?
All of the above
*intravenous drug use
*burns
*GI tract sources
A vaccine is available to prevent septicemia and invasive infections, particularly in children, caused by this organism?
Haemophilus influenza
Which of the following has been suggested as a biomarker of fungal sepsis?
(1-3)-B-D-glucan
Bacteremia with this organism often leads to endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, hepatic abscess or pyomyositis
Staphylococcus aureus
What organism is primary found in septicemia originated from an upper urinary tract infection?
E. Coli
Lipopolysaccharides is gram-negative bacteria and the lipoteichoic acid and Peptidoglycan in gram-positive bacteria cause which of the following to be released in the human the body?
All of the above
*TNF
*IL-1
*IL-6
Common sites associated with bacteremia and sepsis include all of the following except
Reproductive organs
All of the following organisms are noted colonizers of indwelling catheters except
Strepococcus pyogenes
How does a biofilm protect the organisms from host defenses?
All of the above
*by inhibiting phagocytosis
* by inhibiting chemotaxis
*by suppressing the lymphoproliferative response
What organism is most commonly associated with bacteremia due to acute pyelonephritis?
E. Coli
Meningitis following bacteremia and septicemia are often associated with Neisseria meningitidis and
Streptococcus pneumonia
What condition leads to most cased bacteremia arising from intrabdominal infections?
Peritonitis
What can happen when a transient bacteremia produced from a dental procedure or superficial skin infection?
Cardiac valves can be seeded with bacteria
What type of a medical implant device is commonly associated with osteomyelitis, which will then lead to bacteremia?
Prosthetic joints
Abnormal conditions that may indicate the presence of bacteremia include all of the following except
Anemia
When drawing blood for blood cultures in a child younger than age 10 years. How much blood should be drawn?
1% of total blood volume
The recommendation of three sets of blood culture drawn at 1-hour intervals is recommended to diagnose which of the following conditions?
Infective endocasrditis
If a patient with a bacteremia is receiving appropriate antimicrobial therapy for a known infection but is not responding to treatment, how does the physician find out if another organism is causing the problem?
Redraw the blood cultures using an antimicrobial removal device
Sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) performs all the following functions in the blood culture bottles except
Act as bacterial nutrient
Septi-cheK is which type of blood culture system?
Biphasic broth-slide system
What is the principle of a continuous monitoring blood culture system?
The amount of CO2 produced is measured as a growth index and compared with a threshold
Separate venipunctures were performed to collect three sets of blood cultures from a patient with an artificial heart value. The first and third sets grew a gram-positive pleomorphic rod in 1-2 bottles while the second set has no growth in either bottle. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
The blood cultures were contaminated with skin biota
A patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia has developed a fever causing the physician to request blood cultures times three. Each set of cultures grow an a-hemolytic streptococcal organism. What is the most likely explanation for these results?
The patient probably has an infection with a-hemolytic step.
Which of the following organisms is inhibited by the anticoagulant SPS?
Peptostreptococcis anaerobius
What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection?
Urethral mucosa
What characteristic of urine inhibits growth of many pathogens?
Low pH
All of the following can contribute to reduced leukocyte chemotaxis is the renal medulla, except
Reduced water reabsorption
UTI in children is associate with significant morbidity and long-term medical problems, including all the following except
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
The atypical clinical presentation of a geriatric patient with a UTI includes all the following except
Burning upon urination
All of the following are reasons why institutional patients have more UTIs than noninstitionalized patents, except
Less frequent emptying of the bladder
A young woman goes to her physician complaining of dysuria, frequency, urgency and suprapubic pain. A urinalysis shows hematuria, positive protein, positive leukocyte esterase, and a positive nitrite. What is a probable diagnosis?
UTI
The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following except
Septicemia
When a patient has an indwelling urinary catheter, what symptoms may be present indicating a UTI?
Flank pain and fever
Bacteria gain access to the urinary tract by all of the following routes, except
The neurologic route
What Gardnerella vaginalis can be cause of UTIs, its presence in urine generally indicates
Vaginal contamination
What is the most common way for the renal parenchyma to become infected with gram-positive bacteria?
Hematogenous route
What is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs?
E. Coli
What organisms usually cause UTIs in older men in conjunction with prostatic hypertrophy?
Enterococcus spp.
What group has the most UTIs caused by staphylcoccus Saprophyticus?
Symptomatic sexually active young women
What organisms growing in a urine culture can generally be considered contaminants?
Bacillus spp.
What is one factor that can contribute to the incidence of candiduria in hospitalized patients?
Increased use of broad-spectrum antimicrobial agents
What might candiduria signify?
All of the above
*bladder or renal parenchymal infection
*Urinary tract fungus ball
*disseminated candidiasis
Urine cultures are performed for all the following reasons, except to
Test for chlamydia
The criteria used to determine the presence of a UTI include all the following except
Patient history
A 22-year-old female with dysuria and urinary frequency submits a urine sample. There is no growth on routine media after 48 hours. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Urethral syndrome
What is the most commonly used method to collect urine samples?
Voided midstream specimen
What is the definitive method for collecting uncontaminated urine specimens?
Suprapubic aspirate
What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature?
Sodium borate
How must urine specimens be handled after collection?
Immediately refrigerate
Screening methods for UTIs are appropriate for which of the following?
Urine specimens with significant pyuria and bacteriuria
What size calibrated loops should be used to inoculate a urine sample that was collected by suprapubic aspiration
?
0.1 mL
In what type of specimen is the etiologic agent of acute prostatitis usually recovered?
Straight catheterization
All of the following features should be considered in a UTI workup, except
Nitrite positive
What do specimens with multiple uropathogens indicate?
Probable contamination
What makes cervicitis difficult to diagnose?
Lack of well-recognized symptoms
Although Neisseria gonorrhoeae usually grows in the cervix and male urethra, all the following sites can support growth, except
Ears
A Mano has sex with a woman on Saturday night. On Wednesday he notices dysuria, pyuria, and a urethral discharge. He goes to his physician who orders a gram stain of the discharge. The results of the gram stain show greater than 25 wbc/hpf, moderate gram-negative intracellular diplococci, and 3+ gram-negative diplococci. What is the mostly likely diagnosis?
Gonorrhea
All of the following conditions can occur in women with undiagnosed cervical gonorrhea, except
Pharyngitis
What percentage of women patients who are positive are Neisseria gonorrhoeae a typically also have genital chlamydia?
42%
PID is a complication occasionally seen following infections caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis
What is the advantage over cultures of performing nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) for cases for Gonococcal urethritis?
The tests are highly sensitive and specific
What is required for culturing chlamydia?
Tissue cultures
What is the infective particle of chlamydia?
Elementary body
The greatest risk for cervical cancer is genital infection by
HPV
What cells are found in BV?
Clue cells
What condition is characterized by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and a decrease in lactobacilli in the vagina?
BV
Many women who have BV complain of a fishy odor from vaginal secretions. What causes the odor?
Amines
What is the main symptom of primary syphilis?
Chancre
Which of the following is a symptom for secondary syphilis?
Perianal condylomata lata
Which of the following is a symptom of tertiary syphilis?
Gummas
What organism causes chancroid?
Haemophilus ducreyi
Why are there so many cases of genital herpes in the United States?
Lesions shed virus when asymptomatic
How is genital herpes transmitted?
Sexual contact with secretion from infected sites
Nontreponemal antibody tests from syphilis include all of the following except
EIA
All of the following are a cause ulcerative STIs, except
Gonorrhea
Nongonococcal urethritis is most commonly cause.d by which of the following organisms?
Chlamydia trachomatis
What percentage of heptatis B infections are transmitted through sexual contact?
50%
A microbiologist is reading a vaginal culture. She see the very white colonies that are y-hemolytic on a blood agar plate by appears to have feet. What organisms could this possibly be?
Yeast
During the childbearing years, the Normal flora of the vagina maintain a low pH, thus encouraging colonization with all the following types of organisms except
Enteric gram-negative rods
Which of the following is the most common causative agent of urethritis?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
What is a zoonotic infection?
An infection that can naturally spread from animals to humans
Zoonotic infections that spread from animal to human and then can be transmitted human to human, include all the following except
Tularemia
Zoonotic infections that spread from animal to human, then cannot be transmitted directly to other humans, include all the following except
Influenza
What are the natural hosts for the plague-causing, Yersinia pestis?
Rats
What is the classic symptom of bubonic plague?
Painful swollen lymph nodes
What disease is transmitted by ixodes dammini?
Lyme disease
What finding is characteristic of early Lyme disease?
Bulls-eye rash and flulike symptoms
If you are bitten by a dog, which of the following organisms is most likely to cause an infection at the site of the bite?
Pasteurella multocida
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae normally infects all the following animals except
Rodents
Even though this organism is part of the canine and feline normal oral biota, most infections occur in patients that have had a splenectomy, have cancer, or abuse drugs,. What organism is this?
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
All of the following organisms cause cat-scratch disease in humans, except
Borrelia burdorferi
What disease is known as the woolsortrs disease?
Anthrax
Bacillus anthracis is a natural pathogen for what types of animals?
Herbivores
What is the most common form of anthrax?
Cutaneous
Bacillus anthracis produces all the following virulence factors, except
Lipopolysaccharide
All of the following symptoms are among common presentations in tularemia, except
Cholera-like
What is another name for brucellosis?
Undulant fever
How do humans often become infected with leptospirosis?
Directly from animal urine
In the first phase of leptospirosis, humans exhibit all the following symptoms except
Hepatitis
Patients who develop Weil’s syndrome have all the following symptoms except
Congestive heart failure
Rickettsial organisms, which cause disease in human, are transmitted by which of the following methods?
Arthropod vectors
Pathogens within the family Anaplasmataceae infect which cell type in humans?
Phagocytes
