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MLT Microbiology > Unit 6 > Flashcards

Unit 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The genome of a virus is composed of?

A

Any of the above
*Single-stranded DNA
*RNA
*double-stranded DNA

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2
Q

What requirements do viruses have for replications?

A

They must be inside a living cell

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3
Q

What is the correct sequence of viral infection of naked viruses?

A

Attachment, penetration, replication, cell lysis

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4
Q

When is the best time to collect a specimen for culture from a patient suspected of having a viral disease?

A

Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms

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5
Q

What is the composition of viral transport media?

A

Isotonic buffered saline with protein

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6
Q

What is an unsuitable temperature for virsuses because it allows the development of ice crystals?

A

-20C

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7
Q

All of the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections, except

A

Growth on artificial media

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8
Q

Which of the following describes cytopathic effects seen in viral culture?

A

The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus

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9
Q

The cytopathic effect demonstrating intranuclear inclusions is associated with

A

CMV

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10
Q

The noroviruses are most noted for producing

A

Gastroenteritis

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11
Q

Which of the following is the best description of a primary cell culture?

A

It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer and in which very little cell division occurs

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12
Q

Which of the following describes a diploid cell culture that is not a primary culture?

A

It is a culture of cells that can divide, but passage is limited to about 50 generation

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13
Q

Which of the following is the description of continuous cell cultures?

A

Cells often have variable numbers of chromosomes and can be sub cultured indefinitely

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14
Q

What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of viral infection?

A

Syncytia

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15
Q

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by

A

Coronavirus

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16
Q

Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infection except

A

Meningitis

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17
Q

What type of genome do herpesviruses have?

A
  • dsDNA
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18
Q

Which virus has been linked to Kaposi sarcoma?

A

Human herpesvirus 8

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19
Q

Which serologic marker would be expected to be found in the serum of someone successfully vaccinated against Hepatitis B virus (HBV)?

A

Anti-HBs

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20
Q

Presence of this HBV serologic marker indicates is highly infectious

A

HBs antigen

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21
Q

What virus causes genital herpes?

A

Herpes simplex virus type 2

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22
Q

Symptomatic congenital infection with CMV includes all the following except

A

Meningitis

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23
Q

Complications of EBV infection include all the following except

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

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24
Q

Which cancer is associated with EBV?

A

Burkitts lymphomas

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25
Q

What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause?

A

Chickenpox

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26
Q

What type of cancer is associated with HPV?

A

Cervical

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27
Q

What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children?

A

Rotavirus

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28
Q

Poliovirus is transmitted primarily by

A

Fecal-oral

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29
Q

Which one of the following viruses causes a viral hemorrhagic fever?

A

Ebola virus

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30
Q

What virus causes Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?

A

Sin Nombre virus

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31
Q

What virus is the most common cause of Arboviral encephalitis in the world?

A

Japanese Encephalitis (JE) virus

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32
Q

What is the most common flavivirus infection in the United States?

A

St. Louis Encephalitis

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33
Q

What virus causes the measles?

A

Rubeola virus

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34
Q

What is the most common virus isolated from infant with lower respiratory infections and cause croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis and interstitial pneumonia?

A

RSV

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35
Q

What virus is the major cause of common cold?

A

Rhinovirus

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36
Q

Which of the following is true of the virus the causes of AIDS?

A

Human retrovirus

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37
Q

What viral genus causes rabies?l

A

Lyssavirus

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38
Q

Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen?

A

Hepatitis C virus

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39
Q

What is a prion?

A

A proteinaceous infectious particle

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40
Q

What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru and “mad cow” disease?

A

Prion

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41
Q

What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru and “mad cow” disease?

A

Prion

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42
Q

What virus causes immune suppression in the host by targeting and destroying the hosts CD4+ T cells?

A

HIV

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43
Q

The classic example of a bite-wound infection is

A

Rabies

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44
Q

How is hepatitis B transmitted

A

Blood and body fluids

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45
Q

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal-oral route?

A

Hepatitis A

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46
Q

Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a live transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer?

A

Heptatits C

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47
Q

All of the following are identifiable viral agents of gastrointertitis except

A

CMV

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48
Q

The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with HBV and HIV is

A

Needle stick

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49
Q

Infection with CMV in non immune pregnant women can cause

A

Microencephalopathy

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50
Q

When reading culture plates from respiratory specimens, what must the microbiologist take into consideration?

A

The types of organisms normally found at the culture site

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51
Q

What does the presence of a-hemolytic colonies on a throat culture indicate?

A

These organisms are normal microbiota found in the pharynx

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52
Q

What should a microbiologist do if he or she finds a-hemolytic colonies on a properly collected sputum specimen on a patient suspected of having lobar pneumonia?

A

Do a full workup to identify the organism

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53
Q

A patients normal pharyngeal biota can be altered by all of the following except

A

Visiting a nursing home

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54
Q

All of the following factors can help the microbiologist differentiate between colonization and infection except

A

Presence of a pure culture or mixed biota on the culture plates

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55
Q

What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia adults?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

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56
Q

What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections?

A

All of the above
*obstruction by a foreign body
*alterations in the viscosity of the mucus
*immature anatomica development

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57
Q

What bacterium may cause up to 50% of all cases of pneumonia in the summer months?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

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58
Q

What is helpful when initiating antimicrobial therapy?

A

Knowing the pathogens most likely to cause a particular type of infection

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59
Q

Elements of the respiratory tract that can help prevent infection include

A

All of the above
*nasal hair
*normal microbiota
*coughing

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60
Q

All the following are virulence factors that allow microorganisms to produce disease, except

A

Mucus production

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61
Q

Why is pharyngitiis produced by group A streptococcus treated with antimicrobial agents?

A

To prevent rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis

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62
Q

What are the two most frequently identified bacterial causes of community-acquired sinusitis?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia and haemophilus influenzae

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63
Q

Acute sinusitis usually occurs as a complication of

A

The common cold

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64
Q

What common condition will predispose individuals to acute sinusitis?

A

Allergies

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65
Q

All of the following are complications of acute sinusitis except

A

Acute pharyngitis

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66
Q

What organism are most frequently isolated from cultures of Individuals with otitis media?

A

Strepcoccus pneumonia and haemophilus influenza

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67
Q

What is the most common localized infection of the upper respiratory tract in preschool-age patients?

A

Otitis media

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68
Q

Why do most physicians treat otitis media empirically?

A

The predominant infection causing organisms are known

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69
Q

What organism is the predominant cause of epiglottis?

A

Haemophilus influenza

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70
Q

What is the most common complication of pertussis?

A

Pneumonia

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71
Q

What is the specimen of choice for recovery of Bordetella pertussis?

A

Nasopharyngeal swabs

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72
Q

What virus causes community-wide seasonal outbreaks of bronchiolitis in infants?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

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73
Q

How is acute bronchitis differentiated from acute pneumonia?

A

The degree and extent of involvement of the lower respiratory tract with the infectious process

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74
Q

Most influenza epidemics and pandemics

A

Follow a recombination event in causative agents genome

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75
Q

What usually causes community-acquired pneumonias in children during the winter months?

A

Viral pathogens

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76
Q

Patient with influenzae virus infection are predisposed to

A

Secondary bacterial pneumonia

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77
Q

Nosocomial pneumonia is commonly caused by all of the following except

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

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78
Q

What is empyema?

A

A collection of Purulent fluid in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall

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79
Q

What is a chronic pneumonia?

A

A pneumonia that appears to resolve clinically, but where radiographic lung abnormalities persist for a long period

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80
Q

What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

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81
Q

All of the following are potentially pathogenic organisms found in the nasopharyngeal of healthy individuals except

A

Streptococcus mutans

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82
Q

What is the most common bacterium found on the skin’?

A

Coagulate-negative staphylococci

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83
Q

Which of the following organisms is responsible for for impetigo?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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84
Q

A group of swim team members breaks out in a rash folliculitis) the day after swimming at the pool. What organism is probably responsible for this outbreak?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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85
Q

What is a form of follicilitis in bearded men?

A

Sycosis Barbae

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86
Q

Which of these is an abscess that extends more deeply into the subcutaneous tissue and may have multiple draining sites?

A

Carbuncle

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87
Q

Besides antimicrobial therapy, how are most carbuncles treated?

A

Surgical drainage

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88
Q

What condition presents as a localized area of mildly painful erythema, warmth, and swelling of the skin with poorly demarcated margins?

A

Cellulitis

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89
Q

What is erysipelas?

A

A superficial form of cellulitis

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90
Q

What is the most well-known type of myonecrosis?

A

Gas gangrene

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91
Q

What condtion causes the nail margin to become painful, red, warm and swollen with pus?

A

Paronychia

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92
Q

What organism is known to cause severe necrotic cellulitis and primary sepsis?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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93
Q

Purpura fulminant, a skin manifestation of disseminated intravascular coagulation, is associated with which condition?

A

Meningococcemia

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94
Q

What happen in the later stages of toxic shock syndrome as a result of the production of toxic shock syndrome toxin-1?

A

Desquamation

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95
Q

What causes scarlet fever?

A

Erythrogenic toxin

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96
Q

What organism produces “rat bite fever?”

A

Steptobacillus moniliformis

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97
Q

What organisms causes the Buruli ulcer?

A

Mycobactrium ulcerans

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98
Q

What is the best method of diagnosing scabies?

A

Skin scrapings

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99
Q

The clinical syndrome of Rocky Mountain spotted fever Can be confused with which of the following conditions?

A

Meningococcemia

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100
Q

A common cause of eumycetoma

A

Madurella sp.

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101
Q

What is a circumscribed, hyperkeratotic, rough-textured, painless papule called?

A

Wart

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102
Q

What disease results from a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that presents as vesicular eruption in a unilateral dermatomal distribution?

A

Shingles

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103
Q

What is hepatitis whitlow?

A

Primary herpetic lesions of the finger

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104
Q

What causes rubeola?

A

Paramyxovirus

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105
Q

What causes rubella?/

A

Togaviridae

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106
Q

What causes erythemia infectionsum?

A

Parvovirus

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107
Q

All of the following viruses cause a characteristic viral syndrome, which includes severe bleeding manifestations except

A

Junin virus

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108
Q

What is ringworm?

A

A fungal skin infection

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109
Q

What is thrush?

A

Oral candidiasis

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110
Q

What is swimmers itch?

A

Cercariae larvae penetrate human skin, causing dermatitis

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111
Q

In august, a 30 year old man presents with an ulcer on his leg with swelling of the lymph nodes in the surrounding area. He reports taking numerous hikes in the woods behind is house hunting rabbits. He does not recall any animal bites. What disease should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

A

Tularemia

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112
Q

What is the most significant predisposing factor to clostridium difficile-associated disease?

A

Antimicrobial therapy

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113
Q

All of these patient history questions will help focus the search for the cause of diarrhea, except

A

Did the patient eat any hot food?

114
Q

The urea breath test is a noninvasive test to detect infection caused by

A

Helicobacter pylori

115
Q

Presence of red colonies with black centers on xylose-lysine-decarboxylase medium is indicative of

A

Nonlactose fermenter and H2S positive

116
Q

What defense mechanism does the colon have to guard against infection?

A

IgA secretion

117
Q

What is the most common cause of travelers diarrhea?

A

E. Coli

118
Q

What is the most common cause of death patients with diarrhea?

A

Dehydration

119
Q

What type of diarrheal illness has no fever and no blood or pus in the stool?

A

Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

120
Q

What type of diarrheal illness has a rapid onset of symptoms after food ingestion (usually <12 hours)?

A

Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins

121
Q

All of the following organisms can cause enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea, except

A

Salmonella typhi

122
Q

What type of diarrheal illness produces fever, leukocytosis is PB and fecal leakocytes?

A

Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface in invaded

123
Q

All of the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surfaces to produce diarrhea, except

A

Vibrio cholerae

124
Q

What common organism invades the full thickness of the bowel with lymphatic spread?

A

Salmonella typhi

125
Q

The presence of yellow colonies on thiosulfate-citrate-bile-salt-sucrose medium is suggestive of

A

Vibrio cholerae

126
Q

What virus is the leading cause of diarrhea in children younger than age 5 years?

A

Rotavirus

127
Q

What virus causes an acute self-limited diarrheal illness that is highly contagious through contaminated food, water, fomites or person-to-person contact and is associated with vomiting and low-grade fever?

A

Norovirus

128
Q

A fecal isolate identified as E. Coli produces clear colonies on MacConkey agar with sorbitol

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli

129
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in the world?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

130
Q

Disease caused by which of the following organisms has fever, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and stools with gross blood and pus?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

131
Q

What is the environmental reservoir of campylobacter?

A

Wild and domestic animals

132
Q

What organism that causes gastrocenteritis can be found in aquaculture-farmed fish?

A

Salmonella

133
Q

What organ is colonized in a patient that carries salmonella typhi?

A

Gallbladder

134
Q

What toxin does Shigella spp. produce?

A

Shiga

135
Q

What diarrheal pathogen can produce a disease that can lead to hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Enterophemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)

136
Q

What types of stools are characteristic of someone who has cholera?

A

Rice water stools

137
Q

A man and his family drive to the coast and have an oyster dinner. A couple of days later, the man arrives at the emergency department with a fever, bullous skin lesions, and diarrhea. He is extremely ill and appears septic. The microbiologist notices curved gram-negative rods on the stool gram stain. What is the most probable organism causing this condition?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

138
Q

What is the most important cause of iatrogenic diarrhea in adults?

A

Clostridium difficile

139
Q

What is the most commonly identified intestinal parasite in the United States?

A

Giardia lamblia

140
Q

Although uncommon, what intestinal parasite is known to leave the colon and cause metastatic disease, especially liver abscesses?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

141
Q

A physician has requested a stool culture for Yersinia, which of the following would be the most appropriate medium to use?

A

Colistin-irgasan-novobiocin

142
Q

All of the following organisms are commonly implicated in a foodborne outbreak, except

A

Salmonella typhi

143
Q

A microbiologist is reading a gram stain and observes gram-negative, curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance. What is the most likely organism?

A

All of the above

144
Q

What organism grows a best at 42 C and in a reduced oxygen atmosphere (5-10%)?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

145
Q

This is a form of food poisoning that can be life threatening even from otherwise healthy patients

A

C. Botulinum

146
Q

What is the volume of CSF in an average adult?

A

90-150 mL

147
Q

All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis, except

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

148
Q

A college student is examined at the emergency department; he is disoriented with a fever, intense headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. His friends say that he has been sick for about 2 days and that his condition worsened over the last 3 hours. The serum electrolytes are normal, but the patient WBC is 12,000 cells/L. What test should the physician order next?

A

CSF gram stain and culture

149
Q

What is the first step in developing bacterial meninigitis?

A

Nasopharyngeal colonization by a meningeal pathogen

150
Q

E. Coli. Is isolated from the spinal fluid of a 3-day old infant. What is the most likely source of the bacterium?

A

Birth canal

151
Q

What organism is a common cause of meningitis in neonates and infants up to 3 months of age?

A

Streptocococcus agalactiae

152
Q

What condition is characterized by lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF but a lack of identifiable organism after routine culture and gram stain?

A

Aseptic meningitis

153
Q

All of the following virsues can resist inactivation by gastric acid except

A

Herpesvirus

154
Q

What is EV is commonly associated with neurological illness?

A

Coxsackievirus B

155
Q

What type of meningitis is usually uncomplicated and resolves in 2-7 days?

A

Enteroviral

156
Q

Common Arboviruses that cause meningitis include all the following except

A

Venezuelan equine encephalitis

157
Q

What is a common neurologic complication with the mumps virus?

A

Aseptic meningitis

158
Q

Gram-positive diplococci, with a halo, are seen on a STAT CSF taken from an adult who presented to the ER with high fever, still neck, and confusion. You should suspect

A

steptococcus pneumonia

159
Q

Syphilic involvement in CNS can take all of the following forms except

A

Aseptic meningitis

160
Q

All of the following are common fungal causes of CNS infection except

A

Candida albicans

161
Q

What fungus causes chronic meningitis in patients with HIV infection?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

162
Q

A teenager and her friends spend the day swimming in a lake and picnicking. The next day, she starts to feel sick complaining of a headache and general malaise. The following morning, she is very ill and is rushed to the ER. Many neurologic changes are noted. Despite the staffs best efforts, she dies. Autopsy reveals the presence of small Protozoa in her brain tissue. What is the most probable organism that caused her death?

A

Naegleria Fowleri

163
Q

Infection with what organism results in a chronic meningoencephalitis, more commonly known as sleeping sickness?

A

Trypanosoma Brucei

164
Q

All of the following are common causes of viral encephalitis, except

A

Toroviruses

165
Q

All of the following are important arboviruses, except

A

Lassa fever virus

166
Q

What virus, spread by y the mosquito, causes a typically self-limiting illness but can be associated with a rash, aseptic meningitis, myelitis and fatal encephalitis?

A

WNV

167
Q

A farmer is bitten by a raccoon. He washed the wound with soap and water and then puts a dressing on it. A couple of days later, he begins to feel tired and the wound painful. About 2 days later, the farmer begins to feel agitated. He has a seizure and hallucination. What condition matches the farmers symptoms and history?

A

Rabies

168
Q

From where do most cerebral abscesses spread?

A

all of the above
*middle ear infections
* mastoiditis
*paranasal sinus infections

169
Q

What are the most common bacteria isolated from nontraumatic brain abscesses?

A

Streptococcus

170
Q

CSF specimens should be analyzed for infectious agents as quickly as possible. How should a specimen collected in the hospital be transported to the laboratory?

A

Room temperature

171
Q

A CSF sample collected from a child yields the following results: turbid, very high total protein levels, and very low glucose levels. What would the probable diagnosis be?

A

Bacterial meningitis

172
Q

Which of the following is an example of primary bacteremia source?

A

An infected heart valve

173
Q

Which of the following is an example of secondary bacteremia source?

A

The Lung

174
Q

What organism is the most common cause of community-acquired bacteremia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

175
Q

What condition results when there is a procedural manipulation of body site containing normal microbiota, causing those bacteria to enter the bloodstream?

A

Transient bacteremia

176
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestations associated with continuous bacteremia?

A

Endocarditis?

177
Q

All of the following factors are associated with an unfavorable outcome in bacteremia except

A

Surface wound or abscess

178
Q

Bacteremias are least often associated with which of the following patient conditions?

A

Those undergoing elective outpatient surgical procedures

179
Q

What immunosuppressive agent can increase a patients risk of bacteremia?

A

All of the above
*cancer chemotherapy
*corticosteroid therapy
*transplant maintenance therapy

180
Q

What underlying condition predisposes a person to a polymicrobial bacteremia?

A

All of the above
*intravenous drug use
*burns
*GI tract sources

181
Q

A vaccine is available to prevent septicemia and invasive infections, particularly in children, caused by this organism?

A

Haemophilus influenza

182
Q

Which of the following has been suggested as a biomarker of fungal sepsis?

A

(1-3)-B-D-glucan

183
Q

Bacteremia with this organism often leads to endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, hepatic abscess or pyomyositis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

184
Q

What organism is primary found in septicemia originated from an upper urinary tract infection?

A

E. Coli

185
Q

Lipopolysaccharides is gram-negative bacteria and the lipoteichoic acid and Peptidoglycan in gram-positive bacteria cause which of the following to be released in the human the body?

A

All of the above
*TNF
*IL-1
*IL-6

186
Q

Common sites associated with bacteremia and sepsis include all of the following except

A

Reproductive organs

187
Q

All of the following organisms are noted colonizers of indwelling catheters except

A

Strepococcus pyogenes

188
Q

How does a biofilm protect the organisms from host defenses?

A

All of the above
*by inhibiting phagocytosis
* by inhibiting chemotaxis
*by suppressing the lymphoproliferative response

189
Q

What organism is most commonly associated with bacteremia due to acute pyelonephritis?

A

E. Coli

190
Q

Meningitis following bacteremia and septicemia are often associated with Neisseria meningitidis and

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

191
Q

What condition leads to most cased bacteremia arising from intrabdominal infections?

A

Peritonitis

192
Q

What can happen when a transient bacteremia produced from a dental procedure or superficial skin infection?

A

Cardiac valves can be seeded with bacteria

193
Q

What type of a medical implant device is commonly associated with osteomyelitis, which will then lead to bacteremia?

A

Prosthetic joints

194
Q

Abnormal conditions that may indicate the presence of bacteremia include all of the following except

A

Anemia

195
Q

When drawing blood for blood cultures in a child younger than age 10 years. How much blood should be drawn?

A

1% of total blood volume

196
Q

The recommendation of three sets of blood culture drawn at 1-hour intervals is recommended to diagnose which of the following conditions?

A

Infective endocasrditis

197
Q

If a patient with a bacteremia is receiving appropriate antimicrobial therapy for a known infection but is not responding to treatment, how does the physician find out if another organism is causing the problem?

A

Redraw the blood cultures using an antimicrobial removal device

198
Q

Sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) performs all the following functions in the blood culture bottles except

A

Act as bacterial nutrient

199
Q

Septi-cheK is which type of blood culture system?

A

Biphasic broth-slide system

200
Q

What is the principle of a continuous monitoring blood culture system?

A

The amount of CO2 produced is measured as a growth index and compared with a threshold

201
Q

Separate venipunctures were performed to collect three sets of blood cultures from a patient with an artificial heart value. The first and third sets grew a gram-positive pleomorphic rod in 1-2 bottles while the second set has no growth in either bottle. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

A

The blood cultures were contaminated with skin biota

202
Q

A patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia has developed a fever causing the physician to request blood cultures times three. Each set of cultures grow an a-hemolytic streptococcal organism. What is the most likely explanation for these results?

A

The patient probably has an infection with a-hemolytic step.

203
Q

Which of the following organisms is inhibited by the anticoagulant SPS?

A

Peptostreptococcis anaerobius

204
Q

What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection?

A

Urethral mucosa

205
Q

What characteristic of urine inhibits growth of many pathogens?

A

Low pH

206
Q

All of the following can contribute to reduced leukocyte chemotaxis is the renal medulla, except

A

Reduced water reabsorption

207
Q

UTI in children is associate with significant morbidity and long-term medical problems, including all the following except

A

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

208
Q

The atypical clinical presentation of a geriatric patient with a UTI includes all the following except

A

Burning upon urination

209
Q

All of the following are reasons why institutional patients have more UTIs than noninstitionalized patents, except

A

Less frequent emptying of the bladder

210
Q

A young woman goes to her physician complaining of dysuria, frequency, urgency and suprapubic pain. A urinalysis shows hematuria, positive protein, positive leukocyte esterase, and a positive nitrite. What is a probable diagnosis?

A

UTI

211
Q

The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following except

A

Septicemia

212
Q

When a patient has an indwelling urinary catheter, what symptoms may be present indicating a UTI?

A

Flank pain and fever

213
Q

Bacteria gain access to the urinary tract by all of the following routes, except

A

The neurologic route

214
Q

What Gardnerella vaginalis can be cause of UTIs, its presence in urine generally indicates

A

Vaginal contamination

215
Q

What is the most common way for the renal parenchyma to become infected with gram-positive bacteria?

A

Hematogenous route

216
Q

What is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs?

A

E. Coli

217
Q

What organisms usually cause UTIs in older men in conjunction with prostatic hypertrophy?

A

Enterococcus spp.

218
Q

What group has the most UTIs caused by staphylcoccus Saprophyticus?

A

Symptomatic sexually active young women

219
Q

What organisms growing in a urine culture can generally be considered contaminants?

A

Bacillus spp.

220
Q

What is one factor that can contribute to the incidence of candiduria in hospitalized patients?

A

Increased use of broad-spectrum antimicrobial agents

221
Q

What might candiduria signify?

A

All of the above
*bladder or renal parenchymal infection
*Urinary tract fungus ball
*disseminated candidiasis

222
Q

Urine cultures are performed for all the following reasons, except to

A

Test for chlamydia

223
Q

The criteria used to determine the presence of a UTI include all the following except

A

Patient history

224
Q

A 22-year-old female with dysuria and urinary frequency submits a urine sample. There is no growth on routine media after 48 hours. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

A

Urethral syndrome

225
Q

What is the most commonly used method to collect urine samples?

A

Voided midstream specimen

226
Q

What is the definitive method for collecting uncontaminated urine specimens?

A

Suprapubic aspirate

227
Q

What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature?

A

Sodium borate

228
Q

How must urine specimens be handled after collection?

A

Immediately refrigerate

229
Q

Screening methods for UTIs are appropriate for which of the following?

A

Urine specimens with significant pyuria and bacteriuria

230
Q

What size calibrated loops should be used to inoculate a urine sample that was collected by suprapubic aspiration
?

A

0.1 mL

231
Q

In what type of specimen is the etiologic agent of acute prostatitis usually recovered?

A

Straight catheterization

232
Q

All of the following features should be considered in a UTI workup, except

A

Nitrite positive

233
Q

What do specimens with multiple uropathogens indicate?

A

Probable contamination

234
Q

What makes cervicitis difficult to diagnose?

A

Lack of well-recognized symptoms

235
Q

Although Neisseria gonorrhoeae usually grows in the cervix and male urethra, all the following sites can support growth, except

A

Ears

236
Q

A Mano has sex with a woman on Saturday night. On Wednesday he notices dysuria, pyuria, and a urethral discharge. He goes to his physician who orders a gram stain of the discharge. The results of the gram stain show greater than 25 wbc/hpf, moderate gram-negative intracellular diplococci, and 3+ gram-negative diplococci. What is the mostly likely diagnosis?

A

Gonorrhea

237
Q

All of the following conditions can occur in women with undiagnosed cervical gonorrhea, except

A

Pharyngitis

238
Q

What percentage of women patients who are positive are Neisseria gonorrhoeae a typically also have genital chlamydia?

A

42%

239
Q

PID is a complication occasionally seen following infections caused by

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

240
Q

What is the advantage over cultures of performing nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) for cases for Gonococcal urethritis?

A

The tests are highly sensitive and specific

241
Q

What is required for culturing chlamydia?

A

Tissue cultures

242
Q

What is the infective particle of chlamydia?

A

Elementary body

243
Q

The greatest risk for cervical cancer is genital infection by

A

HPV

244
Q

What cells are found in BV?

A

Clue cells

245
Q

What condition is characterized by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and a decrease in lactobacilli in the vagina?

A

BV

246
Q

Many women who have BV complain of a fishy odor from vaginal secretions. What causes the odor?

A

Amines

247
Q

What is the main symptom of primary syphilis?

A

Chancre

248
Q

Which of the following is a symptom for secondary syphilis?

A

Perianal condylomata lata

249
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of tertiary syphilis?

A

Gummas

250
Q

What organism causes chancroid?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

251
Q

Why are there so many cases of genital herpes in the United States?

A

Lesions shed virus when asymptomatic

252
Q

How is genital herpes transmitted?

A

Sexual contact with secretion from infected sites

253
Q

Nontreponemal antibody tests from syphilis include all of the following except

A

EIA

254
Q

All of the following are a cause ulcerative STIs, except

A

Gonorrhea

255
Q

Nongonococcal urethritis is most commonly cause.d by which of the following organisms?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

256
Q

What percentage of heptatis B infections are transmitted through sexual contact?

A

50%

257
Q

A microbiologist is reading a vaginal culture. She see the very white colonies that are y-hemolytic on a blood agar plate by appears to have feet. What organisms could this possibly be?

A

Yeast

258
Q

During the childbearing years, the Normal flora of the vagina maintain a low pH, thus encouraging colonization with all the following types of organisms except

A

Enteric gram-negative rods

259
Q

Which of the following is the most common causative agent of urethritis?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

260
Q

What is a zoonotic infection?

A

An infection that can naturally spread from animals to humans

261
Q

Zoonotic infections that spread from animal to human and then can be transmitted human to human, include all the following except

A

Tularemia

262
Q

Zoonotic infections that spread from animal to human, then cannot be transmitted directly to other humans, include all the following except

A

Influenza

263
Q

What are the natural hosts for the plague-causing, Yersinia pestis?

A

Rats

264
Q

What is the classic symptom of bubonic plague?

A

Painful swollen lymph nodes

265
Q

What disease is transmitted by ixodes dammini?

A

Lyme disease

266
Q

What finding is characteristic of early Lyme disease?

A

Bulls-eye rash and flulike symptoms

267
Q

If you are bitten by a dog, which of the following organisms is most likely to cause an infection at the site of the bite?

A

Pasteurella multocida

268
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae normally infects all the following animals except

A

Rodents

269
Q

Even though this organism is part of the canine and feline normal oral biota, most infections occur in patients that have had a splenectomy, have cancer, or abuse drugs,. What organism is this?

A

Capnocytophaga canimorsus

270
Q

All of the following organisms cause cat-scratch disease in humans, except

A

Borrelia burdorferi

271
Q

What disease is known as the woolsortrs disease?

A

Anthrax

272
Q

Bacillus anthracis is a natural pathogen for what types of animals?

A

Herbivores

273
Q

What is the most common form of anthrax?

A

Cutaneous

274
Q

Bacillus anthracis produces all the following virulence factors, except

A

Lipopolysaccharide

275
Q

All of the following symptoms are among common presentations in tularemia, except

A

Cholera-like

276
Q

What is another name for brucellosis?

A

Undulant fever

277
Q

How do humans often become infected with leptospirosis?

A

Directly from animal urine

278
Q

In the first phase of leptospirosis, humans exhibit all the following symptoms except

A

Hepatitis

279
Q

Patients who develop Weil’s syndrome have all the following symptoms except

A

Congestive heart failure

280
Q

Rickettsial organisms, which cause disease in human, are transmitted by which of the following methods?

A

Arthropod vectors

281
Q

Pathogens within the family Anaplasmataceae infect which cell type in humans?

A

Phagocytes

MLT Microbiology (8 decks)

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