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Final Flashcards

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1
Q

To survive, microbial inhabitants have learned to adapt by varying all of the following except

A

Bacterial shape

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2
Q

Who was considered the father of protozoology and bacteriology

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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3
Q

Prokaryotic cells have which of the following structures in their cytoplasm?

A

Ribosomes

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4
Q

The form of DNA is commonly found in eukaryotic cells

A

Linear

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5
Q

The nuclear membrane in prokaryotes is

A

Missing

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6
Q

A microorganism that is a unicellular organism and lacks a nuclear membrane and true nucleus belongs to which classification?

A

Bacteria

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7
Q

In the laboratory, the clinical microbiologist is responsible for all of the following, except

A

Selecting treatment for patients

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8
Q

What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism?

A

Understanding the growth requirements of potential pathogens at specfic body site

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9
Q

A clinical laboratory scientist is working on the bench, reading plates and notices that a culture has both a unicellular form and a filamentous form. What type of organism exhibits these forms?

A

Fungi

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10
Q

All of the following statements are true viruses, except

A

Viruses do not need host cels to survive and grow

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11
Q

Diagnostic microbiologists apply placement and naming bacterial organisms into all the following categories, except

A

Order

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12
Q

Bacterial species that exhibit phenotypic differences are considered

A

Subspecies

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13
Q

What structure is described as a phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins and sterols that regulates the type and amount of chemicals that pass in and out of a cell?

A

Plasma membrane

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14
Q

What makes the interior of the plasma membrane potentially impermeable to water-soluble molecules?

A

The hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids molecules are found there

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15
Q

The function of a cell wall is to

A

Provide rigidity and strength to exterior of the cell

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16
Q

Name the number short (3-10 um) projections that extends from the cell surface and are used for cellular locomotion

A

Cilia

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17
Q

A microbiology technologist performs a traditional bacterial stain on a colony from a wound culture that is suspected to contain bacteria from the genus clostridium. The unstained areas in the bacterial cell observed by the technologist called

A

Endospores

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18
Q

This constituent of gram-positive cell walls absorbs crystal violet but is to dissolved by alcohol, this giving gram-positive cell its characteristics purple color

A

Peptidoglycan

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19
Q

Mycobacteria have a gram-positive cell wall structure with a waxy layer containing these two compounds

A

Glycolipids and mycolic acid

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20
Q

When performing a Gram stain on a gram-negative organisms, the crystal violet is absorbed into this outer cell wall layer and then washed away with the acetone alcohol. What is the main component of the outer layer of the cell wall?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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21
Q

The 3 regions of lipopolysaccharide include all of the following except,

A

Mycolic acid

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22
Q

The outer cell wall of the gram-negative bacteria serves three important functions, which includes all the following except

A

It provides an attachment site for flagella, which will act in locomotion

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23
Q

Mycoplasma and ureaplasma spp. must have media supplemented with serum or sugar at nutrients and because

A

They lack cell walls

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24
Q

What is the purpose of a capsule?

A

Act as a virulence factor in helping the pathogen evade phagocytosis

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25
Q

The three basic shapes of bacteria include all the following except

A

Cell wall deficient

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26
Q

The gram stain is a routine stain used us bacteriology to determine gram-positive and gram-negative based on the

A

Composition of the bacterial cell wall

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27
Q

In what staining procedures does carbofuchsin penetrate the bacterial cell wall through heat or detergent treatment?

A

Acid-fast stain

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28
Q

What stain is used for medically important fungi?

A

Lactophenol cotton blue

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29
Q

All of the following are types of media, except

A

Fastidious

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30
Q

Which of the following environmental factors influence the growth of bacteria in the laboratory?

A

All of the above

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31
Q

Some bacteria grow at 25-42 C but diagnostic laboratories routinely grow pathogenic bacteria at what temperature?

A

35 C

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32
Q

Which of these bacteria cannot grow in the presence of oxygen ?

A

Obligate anaerobe

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33
Q

What class of organisms, such as the streptococcus spp., can survive in the presence of oxygen but do not use oxygen in its metabolic processes?

A

Aerotolerant anaerobe

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34
Q

The laboratory receives a specimen in which the doctor suspect that the infecting organism is carbon dioxide, it is therefore classified as what type of bacteria?

A

Capnophilic

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35
Q

The following describes the log phase of bacterial growth

A

Bacteria doubling with each generation time

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36
Q

Which is the biochemical process carries out by both obligate and facultative anaerobes?

A

Fermentation

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37
Q

What type of fermentation produces lactic, acetic, succinic and formic acids as the end products?

A

Mixed acid

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38
Q

If bacteria utilize various carbohydrates for growth, they are usually detected by

A

Acid production and change of color from the pH indicator

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39
Q

In the medical microbiology laboratory, the ability of gram-negative bacterium to ferment this sugar is the first set in its ID

A

Lactose

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40
Q

A ________ is a single, closed, circular piece of DNA that is supercoiled to fit inside a bacterial cell

A

Chromosome

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41
Q

Genes that code for antibiotic resistance are often found on small, circular pieces of DNA. The DNA pieces are called

A

Plasmids

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42
Q

What process involves transferring or exchanging genes between similar regions on two separate DNA molecules?

A

Recombination

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43
Q

Diphtheria is a disease produced by corynebacterium diphtheria. However, not all C. Diphtheriae bacteria produce the toxin that causes this disease. To produce the toxin, the bacteria must first become infected with a bacteriophage. The process by which bacterial genes are transferred to new bacteria by the bacteriophage is called

A

Transduction

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44
Q

Lysogeny occur when

A

Gene present in the bacteriophage DNA are incorporated into the bacteria’s genome

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45
Q

These are enzymes that cut the bacterial DNA at specific locations

A

Restriction enzymes

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46
Q

Organisms that participate in a biological relationship where both benefit from one another are called

A

Symbionts

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47
Q

Parasitism is

A

A biological relationship in which one species gains benefits at the expense of the host

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48
Q

The bacterial state occurs when a host harbors a disease-causing organism, but does not show signs of disease

A

Carrier

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49
Q

Healthy people are colonized by many different sites. These bacteria are referred to as

A

Indigenous flora

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50
Q

Diabetics may sometimes be infected with their own resident flora. This type of infection is called

A

An opportunistic infection

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51
Q

Mechanism used by the skin to prevent infection and protect the underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens include all of the following except

A

Antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms

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52
Q

A laboratory professional is testing a new antimicrobial soap. The tech washes her forearm, then does a culture of the skin. Which organisms should the most likely expect to find growing in the culture?

A

Staphylococcus epidermis and propionbacterium

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53
Q

What mechanism allow strict anaerobes to grow in the cervices and areas between the teeth plaque is present?

A

A low oxidation-reduction potential occurs at the tooth surface under the plaque

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54
Q

The stomach can be considered a first line of defense against microbial infections because

A

Most microorganisms are susceptible to the acid pH stomach

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55
Q

This type of bacteria is able to live in the colon with little to no oxygen and is the predominant organisms

A

Anaerobes

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56
Q

After perforation of the colon , surgeons must guard against infection in the ________ because of leakage of the contents of the colon

A

Peritoneal cavity

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57
Q

The human body is constantly challenged by pathogens in the environment. It is not infected by every pathogen it encounters because the microbial flora

A

Produce conditions at the microenvironment level that block colonization

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58
Q

The ability of an organism to produce disease in an individual is called

A

Pathogenicity

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59
Q

A patient with an in dwelling catheter develops a fever and lethargy. In addition, the urine in the catheter bag has turned a brownish and smells foul, which suggests an infection is present. What type of infection is present. What type of infection does this describe?

A

Iatrogenic

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60
Q

The smaller the number of microorganism necessary to cause infection in competent host, the more ____ and the microorganism

A

Virulent

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61
Q

Factors that determine the pathogenicity and increase the virulence of organism include all of the following except

A

An organisms ability to produce infection when host conditions change

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62
Q

The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is called

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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63
Q

This is a leukocidin that is lethal to leukocytes and produces by staphylococci

A

Payton-Valentine

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64
Q

Changes in these host structures can result in lower virulence of microorganism q

A

Adhesion receptors

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65
Q

After the attachment to host cells, a pathogen may use the following mechanisms to establish itself and cause disease except

A

Produces lysozyme to kill the host cell

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66
Q

Dissemination of a pathogen is

A

When infection with a pathogen spreads from the initial infection site to distant site such as organs and tissues

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67
Q

The effects off endotoxins consist of dramatic changes in all the following except

A

Fluid imbalance

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68
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency room with the following symptoms: body temperature of 102 F, low blood pressure, elevated WBC, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. This person has gram-negative rods growing in the blood. What is responsible for these symptoms?

A

Endotoxin

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69
Q

Healthy skin secretes these substances to help prevent colonization by pathogenic organisms

A

Long-chain fatty acids

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70
Q

Lysozyme is

A

A low-molecular-weight enzyme that hydrolyzes the Peptidoglycan layer of bacterial wall

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71
Q

Interferon is a substance produced by the body that inhibits viral replication. Interferon accomplishes this task by

A

Binding to surface receptors that stimulate the cell to synthesize enzymes that inhibit viral replication over several days

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72
Q

All of the following activities must occur for phagocytosis to take place and be effective in host defense, except

A

Migration of lymphocytes to the area of infection (chemotaxis)

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73
Q

This process results in enhanced phagocytosis by neutrophils

A

Opsonization

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74
Q

One of the most effective defenses bacteria have against phagocytosis is

A

The capsule

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75
Q

Innate immunity consists of which of the following components?

A

All of the above are part of the innate immune system

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76
Q

The major constituents of the adaptive of specific immune response are

A

Lymphocytes

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77
Q

The class of antibodies is usually found as a pentameter

A

IgM

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78
Q

A subsequent exposure to the same antigen elicits a(n)________ characterized by a rapid increase in IgG antibody associated with higher levels, a prolonged elevation and a more gradual decline in antibody levels

A

Anmnestic immune response

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79
Q

These are low-molecular-weight proteins secreted by T cells

A

Lymphokines

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80
Q

Immunity to intracellular bacterial pathogens, such as mycotoxins bacterium TB, is primarily cell mediated through the activities

A

T lymphocytes, lymphokines and a macrophages

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81
Q

Pathogens can be transmitted through all the following routes except

A

Handwashing

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82
Q

Because infections can be encountered via the air_______ can cause transmission of some pathogens

A

Coughing

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83
Q

The resulting disease from the route of transmission is disease of animals that is transmitted to humans

A

Zoonotic

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84
Q

The chemical or physical method that destroy all forms of life is called

A

Sterilization

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85
Q

Organisms that are the most resistant to heat, chemicals and radiation are

A

Prions

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86
Q

After using the phone, the laboratory tech sprayed the receiver with a chemical spray. This process will kill a defined scope of microogranisms. What is this process called?

A

Disinfection

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87
Q

Before performing a phlebotomy, the phlebotomist will clean the area on patients arm with a substance before inserting needle. This substance is called an

A

Antiseptic

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88
Q

All of the following factors play a significant role in the selection and implementation of the appropriate method of disinfection, except

A

Humidity

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89
Q

When eliminating organisms from inanimate objects, higher numbers of organisms require longer exposure time because

A

It takes longer to eliminate 99% of microorganisms

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90
Q

If this is present on a surface to be disinfected, it can shield microorganisms from the disinfectant or inactivate the disinfectant. What is this substance?

A

Organic material

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91
Q

Disinfectants are usually used at this temperature

A

20-22 C

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92
Q

Pasteurization achieves _______

A

Disinfection

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93
Q

Alcoholic use this mechanism to inactivate microorganisms

A

Denatured protein s

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94
Q

The tech needs to sterilize a piece of equipment that cannot be autoclaved or gas sterilized because the equipment contains lenses, metal and rubber components. What solution should be used to sterilize this piece of equipment?

A

Glutaraldehyde

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95
Q

For the most effective microbial killing, all iodophors must be properly diluted because

A

There must be enough free iodine to kill the microorganisms

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96
Q

Even though hypochlorites are inexpensive and have broad range of microbes that they kill, there are not used as sterilants because of

A

Long exposure time for sporicidal action

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97
Q

Many materials in hospitals that must be sterilized cannot withstand steam sterilization. Gas sterilization is used instead, using this gas

A

Ethylene oxide

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98
Q

Why should health care workers wash their hands after coming in contact with a patient?

A

To reduce spread of pathogenic bacteria from one individual to another

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99
Q

High level of disinfectants are active against all the following except

A

Parasites

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100
Q

This agency regulates the use, sale and distribution of antimicrobial pesticide products from certain inanimate, hard, nonporous surfaces under the pesticide law

A

Antimicrobial division of environmental protection agency (EPA)

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101
Q

These two alcohols are effective in killing enveloped viruses such as hepatitis B virus (HBV)

A

70% isopropyl and 95% ethanol

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102
Q

These two alcohols are effective in killing enveloped viruses such as hepatitis B virus (HBV)

A

70% isopropyl and 95% ethanol

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103
Q

This chemical is a saturated 5-carbon dialdehyde that has broad-spectrum activity, rapid killing action, and remains active in the presence of organic matter

A

Glutaraldehyde

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104
Q

These disinfectants are cationic, surface-activated agents that work by reducing the surface tension of molecules in a liquid, resulting in the disruption of the cellular membrane of microbes

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds

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105
Q

This organization regulates chemical skin antiseptic

A

FDA

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106
Q

The main goal of handwashing is to

A

Eliminate transient flora

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107
Q

Routine handwashing in healthcare settings mandates washing as all the following times except

A

When gloves become soiled during a procedure or dressing change on the same patient

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108
Q

The purpose of surgical hand scrubs and waterless hand rubs is to

A

Eliminate the transient flora and most of the resident flora on the skin

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109
Q

The most common iodophor used n the US for pre-operative skin preparation

A

Povidone-iodine

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110
Q

This topical antiseptic disrupts the microbial cell membrane and precipitates the cellular contents

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate

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111
Q

This compound is a diphenhydramine either and it exerts its bacterial effects by disrupting the cell wall. It has good activity against gram-positive cocci, but poor activity against fungi. What is its name?

A

Triclosan

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112
Q

Laboratory safety checks includes all of the following except

A

Isolation

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113
Q

Why is laboratory-acquired infection an obvious hazard for personnel working in a microbiology laboratory?

A

Personnel deal with a variety of infectious agents: viral, fungal, parasitic, and bacterial

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114
Q

The comprehensive safety program from the microbiology laboratory needs to fulfill all the following provisions, except

A

It is specific to the hospital and does not need to conform to state, local, and federal regulations

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115
Q

All of the following organisms an typically cause infection from aerosolization of specimens, except

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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116
Q

What protective measures can a laboratory worker take when working with actively growing cultures to ensure that they do not become infected?

A

Ensure that fungal cultures are sealed and worked in bio safety cabinet

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117
Q

The laboratory exposure control plan should contain all the following except

A

Review of control plan every 5 years

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118
Q

Universal/ standard precautions require that

A

Blood and body fluids from all patients be considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease

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119
Q

Engineering controls and work practice control to ensure standard precautions are followed include all the following except

A

Fire blankets

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120
Q

Standard precautions do not address which of the following

A

Respirators

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121
Q

Safety program and work practice controls consist of all the following except

A

Allowing workers to eat at the bench if it gets busy and they do not have time to take a lunch break

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122
Q

All of the following are examples of PPE, except

A

Prescription glasses

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123
Q

The bio safety levels were categorized using all the following criteria except

A

The bacterial load necessary to cause infection

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124
Q

A biosafety level 1 (BSL-1) level of containment is used for organisms that

A

Are well classified and not known to cause disease in healthy people

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125
Q

A biosafety level 2 (BSL-2) level of containment is used for organisms that

A

Create a moderate potential hazard for employees and the environment

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126
Q

Because biosafety level 3 (BLS-3) organisms have the potential for aerosol transmission ad disease with there agents may have serious lethal consequences, all of the following guidelines apply to BSL-3 laboratories, except

A

BSL-3 laboratories should have positive air pressure

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127
Q

Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) organisms are dangerous, exotic and pose in an increased risk of aerosol-transmitted infections and life-threatening disease. Two examples of BSL-4 organisms are

A

Marburg and Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever

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128
Q

OSHA requires laboratories to have this document to ensure that laboratory personnel gave a thorough working knowledge of the hazards of the chemicals with which they work

A

Chemical hygiene plan

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129
Q

A material safety data sheet (MSDS) contains all the following information, except

A

Classification of a chemical (acid, base , protein)

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130
Q

If a laboratory use hazardous chemical, it must

A

Keep a chemical inventory and MSDs on hand

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131
Q

Laboratory safety for hazardous chemicals includes

A

Using fume hoods to prevent inhalation of fumes

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132
Q

Most institution use the RACE acronym to respond to a fire emergency. Race stands for

A

Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish

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133
Q

Three levels of laboratories outlined in the laboratory response network (LRN) include all the following except

A

First responders

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134
Q

In the LRN programs, hospital based microbiology laboratories are classified as this type of laboratory

A

Sentinel

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135
Q

Category A bioterrorism agents

A

Pose the highest threat because they are easily transmitted and highly infectious

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136
Q

One bioterrorismis suspected, a sentinel laboratory should perform all culture manipulation using these safety guidelines

A

BLS-3

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137
Q

Quality control is designed to

A

Ensure the medical reliability of laboratory data

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138
Q

Actual laboratory testing is called an

A

Analytic activity

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139
Q

All of the following activities will directly affect the quality of laboratory test, except

A

Accreditation

140
Q

In January 2004. The joint commission (TJC) implemented performance measurements from organizational systems that are critical to patient safety, quality of care, treatment, and service. This new initiative is called

A

Shared visions new pathway

141
Q

As of the following activities are included in a laboratory quantity control program except

A

Air quality

142
Q

The morning technician arrives at the microbiology laboratory and goes around checking daily temperatures. This person will check temperatures daily on all of the following equipment, except `

A

Centrifuges

143
Q

Thermometers used in the laboratory must be calibrated before the are put into use. This is accomplished by

A

Checking against an NIST thermometer

144
Q

Preventative maintenance on an instrument includes all the following except

A

Disinfecting the surface of the instrument

145
Q

Commercial media must have quality control testing performed by the manufacturers. Because of high failure rates, all of the following media must be retested by the hospital laboratory, except

A

Trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood

146
Q

Media that do not need to be retested by the hospital laboratory must still undergo observation for tall of the following except

A

Organism Colony characteristics

147
Q

Reagents that should undergo quality control in the microbiology laboratory include all of the following except

A

Immersion oil

148
Q

Susceptibility testing of control organisms is usually conducted daily until precision can be demonstrated with _____ or ______ days of susceptibility testing using CLS guidelines

A

20; 30; consecutive

149
Q

How can personnel competency be determined?

A

Proficiency testing

150
Q

Quality control stock cultures are available from all of the following, except

A

CDC

151
Q

Popular media choices for maintaining stock cultures include

A

Tryptic soy agar deeps

152
Q

Mulitple unlabeled specimen have been sent to the laboratory from multiple in-patient locations. The laboratory manager decides corrective action needs to occur. What should be constructed to evaluate and correct the problem?

A

Make a cross-functional team

153
Q

When is a broken process fixed?

A

When the problem is prevented from happening again

154
Q

What is benchmarking?

A

Seeking in an industry’s or professions best practices to imitate and improve

155
Q

When performing tests in the microbiology laboratory, the detection limit of a test refers to the ______ of the test

A

Analytic sensitivity

156
Q

A technician is performing a chemistry test on a control sample. The technician gets the following values from the control: 4.3, 4.3, 4.3, 4.2, 4.4, 4.3, 4.2 and 4.4. The actual value is 4.3. The results are said to be

A

Accurate

157
Q

A test is performed on a group of 10 patients. Six patients have a disease, and four are free or the disease. If six patients (all known to have to the disease) of this group test positive for the disease, we say that the clinical sensitivity of this test is

A

100%

158
Q

A group of 10 patients are to be tested: six are known to have a disease and four are disease free. If the four disease free patients tested negative for this disease, what would the clinical specificity of this test be?

A

100%

159
Q

Incidence is

A

The number of new cases of disease over a period of time

160
Q

A test can have a positive and a negative predicative value (NPV). All of the following elements are needed to compute the positive and NPV of a test, except

A

Type of disease being tested

161
Q

Usually, negative test results are more reliable in predicting

A

The absence of disease

162
Q

The efficacy of a test indicates

A

The % of patients who are correctly identified as having or not having the disease

163
Q

Screening is

A

Used for testing large population of patients

164
Q

Confirmation is used after

A

Obtaining a positive screening result

165
Q

When choosing a test to perform in your laboratory, an in-house verification is always performed. Verification of a test

A

Serves to establish that the performance parameters of the test are satisfactory

166
Q

Test validation is the ongoing process of providing information that a test is performing correctly. The components of validation include all the following except

A

Specimen requirements

167
Q

All of the following provide guidelines to ensure the continual correct performance of tests, except

A

CDC

168
Q

Data generated by the laboratory is directly influenced by

A

The quality of the specimen and its condition when received

169
Q

To assist hospital personnel in collecting the highest quality specimen, the laboratory should

A

Develop a well-written handbook and make it available at every patient care unit

170
Q

The goal of the specimen collector when collecting specimens for culture should be to

A

Maintain the viability of the living organism at the site with minimal contamination

171
Q

Why is it acceptable for a fecal sample to be collected in a non sterile container?

A

Many types of bacteria call the intestinal tract home; the specimen cannot become contaminated

172
Q

Swabs are appropriate for specimens collected from all the following sites, except

A

Urine

173
Q

How should specimen collection instruction be given to the patient to ensure collection of a good specimen for culture?

A

Both verbal and written instruction in simple language

174
Q

Why is the clean-catch midstream urine used from a urine culture as opposed a clean catch urine?

A

The first portion of the urine flow washes contaminants from the Thera and the next portion of urine is more representative of the bladder

175
Q

Sputum specimens are often collected for diagnosis of

A

Bacterial pneumonia

176
Q

The best way to minimize the amount of upper respiratory flora in a sputum specimen is to follow such of these procedures ?

A

Have the patient rinse the mouth with water and expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough directly into a sterile container

177
Q

The specimen of choice for detecting GI pathogens is

A

A stool specimen

178
Q

The specimen of choice for detecting GI pathogens is

A

A stool specimen

179
Q

Proper ID of each specimen includes a label firmly attached to the container with all of the following information except

A

Diagnosis

180
Q

To perform a quality laboratory analysis, the laboratory needs specfic information regarding the patient and the specimen. What can be critical weak link in the specimen management process?

A

Incomplete information on the requisition

181
Q

To perform a quality laboratory analysis, the laboratory needs specfic information regarding the patient and the specimen. What can be critical weak link in the specimen management process?

A

Incomplete information on the requisition

182
Q

The requisition form should provide all the following information except

A

Patient home address

183
Q

If a test is not considered appropriate for the specimen, the following should happen

A

The laboratory needs to communicate with the physician to determine exactly what needs to be done

184
Q

All specimens must be transported

A

In leakproof secondary containers

185
Q

A safe method of transporting aspirated wound material would be in

A

An anaerobic transport system

186
Q

What is the primary goal in the transportation of specimens to the laboratory?

A

The maintain the specimen are near its original state as possible with minimal deterioration

187
Q

If transport of the specimen is delayed the specimen can be maintained by all of the following except

A

Saltwater

188
Q

A night technician is working in microbiology when a CSF specimen comes in. Almost simultaneously, the technician is called to the ER to draw blood on seriously injured car crash victims. How would the technician store the CSF until time permits to work on the CSF specimen?

A

Place the specimen in a 35C incubator where it is good for up to 6 hours

189
Q

Two types of specimens can use preservatives to maintain them until they can be delivered to the laboratory. They are

A

Urine, stool

190
Q

Specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovium are mixed with anticoagulants right after collection. Why should this occur?

A

Organisms become bound up in the clotted material and are difficult to isolate

191
Q

The purpose of transport media is to

A

Ensure the preservation of microorganisms in the specimen

192
Q

In certain instances, it is desirable for specimens to be inoculated directly onto culture media Specimens for this pathogen can be transport system called a James E. Martin Biological Environment Chamber (JEMBEC) system. What pathogen is this ?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

193
Q

The shipment of clinical specimens and cultures of microorganisms is governed by a complex set of national and international guidelines issued by

A

The department of Transportation (DOT) and U.S. postal service

194
Q

How does the DOT define an infectious substance?

A

A metrical known to contain or is suspected of containing a pathogen that causes disease in humans or animals

195
Q

A technician receives a package from a supplier of quality control microorganisms. The package has a small watertight vial in a larger watertight tube. The larger tube has some bubble wrap around it ,but the larger tuber is just placed in the fiberboard box. All of the following was right with this packaging, except

A

The primary receptacle was placed the secondary container with no absorbent material

196
Q

All of the four levels represents a possible scheme for prioritizing the handling of specimens except,

A

Level 4; anticoagulated

197
Q

Types of specimens that can be batch processed. Including all the following except

A

Specimens for fastidious organisms

198
Q

All of the following are examples of suboptimal specimens that must be rejected, except

A

The specimen is for Neisseria Gonorrhoeae (GC) culture and submitted in a JEMBEC system

199
Q

Notations from macroscopic (gross) examination of a specimen should include all the following except

A

What type of container the specimen was collected in

200
Q

The direct microscopic examination is a useful tool for all the following reasons except

A

It can tell the physician what type of normal flora is present on the smear and if it is anaerobic or aerobic

201
Q

Direct microscopic examination are not recommended for all the following specimen course except

A

Urethral discharge from a male

202
Q

Nonselective media supports

A

The growth of most non-fastidious microbes

203
Q

Selective media

A

Support the growth of one type of group of microbes, but not another

204
Q

Differential media

A

Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media

205
Q

Enriched media

A

Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers

206
Q

An enrichment broth is

A

A liquid medium designed too encourage the growth of small numbers of a particular organism while suppressing other flora

207
Q

How is culture media selected for specimen plating

A

The selection of media to inoculate based on the type of specimen submitted for culture and the organisms likely to be involved in the infectious process

208
Q

Routine primary plating media include all of the following items, except

A

Special biochemical media

209
Q

What method is used to concentrate specimens to increase recovery of pathogens in the microbiology laboratory
?

A

Centrifugation

210
Q

What technique is used to isolate bacterial colonies when inoculating organisms onto an agar plate?

A

Isolation streaking

211
Q

When using the isolation streaking technique, the greatest concentration of organisms (if present) will be in which quadrant?

A

First

212
Q

When using the isolation streaking technique, the most isolated forms of the organism should be in which quadrant?

A

Fourth

213
Q

When using the isolation streaking technique, the most isolated forms of the organism should be in which quadrant?

A

Fourth

214
Q

If a 0.001 mL quantitative loop is used to inoculate plate media for a urine culture, each colony of growth represents how many organisms per mLs in the original sample?

A

1000 organisms

215
Q

Most bacterial cultures are incubated at this temperature range

A

35-37 C

216
Q

Aerobes are bacteria that grow

A

In ambient air

217
Q

Microaerophiles are bacteria that grow

A

In reduced oxygen concentration but increased carbon dioxide concentrations

218
Q

Capnophiles are bacteria that grow

A

An increased carbon dioxide concentrations

219
Q

Anaerobes are bacteria that grow

A

Where little or no oxygen is present

220
Q

Cultures for anaerobes and broth cultures may be incubated for

A

5-7 days

221
Q

Cultures for anaerobes and broth cultures may be incubated for

A

5-7days

222
Q

All of the of the following are questions that microbiology technologist will ask while reading and interpreting the growth of cultures except

A

How long has this culture been incubated?

223
Q

All of the of the following are questions that microbiology technologist will ask while reading and interpreting the growth of cultures except

A

How long has this culture been incubated?

224
Q

When plating a nonroutine culture on primary culture media, the technician should ask all the following question except `

A

What anaerobic bacteria will be present in this specimen

225
Q

No routine specimens can include all the following specimen types, except

A

Syringe needle

226
Q

To help the microbiologist report microbiology results to the physician in a timely fashion to ensure the appropriate treatment, the technician may use this report

A

Preliminary

227
Q

Cultures results

A

Confirm the correctness of the therapeutic choices already made and implemented

228
Q

A centrifuge is an excellent method of preparing non-viscous fluids, because

A

It deposit cellular elements and microorganisms from the specimen onto the surface of a glass slide a monolayer

229
Q

The purpose of a simple stain is to

A

Color the forms and shapes present

230
Q

In the microbiology laboratory, this instrument is routinely used to examine smears for structures that are too small to be seen with the unaided eye

A

Compound microscope

231
Q

Polymicrobial presentations in smears require more interpretation and must take into account all the following except

A

Method used to make the smear

232
Q

Commonly encountered poly-microbiology infections are common in

A

Perirectal abscesses

233
Q

When a laboratory professional examines a specimen smear, he or she should be looking for all the following except

A

Mucus

234
Q

Why should laboratory professionals look for contamination of a specimen by normal microbial flora?

A

Contamination of specimens with normal flora that are not collected from sterile sites diminishes the value of the culture studies

235
Q

When examining specimen smears for pathogenic bacteria, this is important to note

A

Intracellular and extracellular forms

236
Q

Because cell wall-damaged bacteria, antibiotic-treated bacteria, or dead bacteria may appear falsely gram-negative, the following are considered “critical co-characteristics” that assist in the interpretation of the smear include

A

Shape size

237
Q

if a symptomatic patient presents to a physician with and infection, the physician will treat the patient with antibiotics. What role does the laboratory play in antibiotic selection if the physician has already treated the patient before receiving the culture results?

A

The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis

238
Q

All of the following are signs of acute inflammation on a bacterial smear except

A

Mucus

239
Q

All of the following cells reflect chronic inflammation except

A

Neutrophils

240
Q

A bacterial smear may indicate a poly microbial infection when

A

More than one morphologic type of bacteria is present on the smear

241
Q

Bartlett method for scoring sputum and the Murray-Washington assessment associate what with unacceptable sputum specimens?

A

10-20 squamous epithelial cells/ 10x field

242
Q

Contamination materials include all of the following except

A

Crystallized gram stain

243
Q

The most bothersome contaminating materials for the laboratory professional are those that

A

Contain microorganisms that will grow in culture and confuse the culture evaluation

244
Q

Local material that may be added in the criteria for accepting or rejecting a respiratory specimen include all the following except

A

Bacterial ropes

245
Q

To assist the physician and the laboratory professional in interpreting sputum smears, all of the following local materials are quantitated except

A

Mucus

246
Q

What elements should be included in the direct examination of a microbial smear?

A

Only these elements useful in characterizing the specimen

247
Q

You are working in a microbiology laboratory and receive a sputum culture. You perform a Gram stain on the sputum, and get the following results: 3+gram-positive cocci, greater than 25 epithelial cells/ 10x field, and heavy mucus. What do these results indicate

A

An unacceptable specimen and work up that should be limited to basic ID of bacteria

248
Q

Colony morphology is defined as

A

Colony characteristics

249
Q

Which of the following descriptions will directly facilitate ID of bacteria?

A

Physical characteristics of colony morphology

250
Q

An upper respiratory specimen contains many indigenous organisms which may be time consuming, cost prohibitive and insurmountable. What should be microbiologist do?

A

Differentiate the potential pathogens from the “usual” inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract and direct the diagnostic work up only to potential pathogens

251
Q

When microbiologists set up a biochemical ID on a suspected pathogen from a culture, they must

A

Correlate colony characteristics with the suspected ID of the organism

252
Q

Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial morphology of organisms on primary culture after how many hours of incubation?

A

18-24 hours

253
Q

Plate reading is

A

A comparative examination of bacteria growth on a variety of culture media

254
Q

Marco key (MAC) agar is used to

A

Differentiate between lactose fermenters and lactose nonfermenters

255
Q

Marco key (MAC) agar is used to

A

Differentiate between lactose fermenters and lactose nonfermenters

256
Q

A microbiologist is reading stool culture plates. She is looking for enteric pathogens on the MAC plate. What do they look like?

A

Clear, colorless colonies

257
Q

A microbiologist is reading still culture plates. She sees an organism that has dry, pink colony with a surrounding “halo” of pink on MAC. What is a good presumptive ID of this organism?

A

Escheriochia/citrobacter-like organism

258
Q

The relative concentration of bacteria on culture plates in directly proportional to

A

The concentration in which they are present in the clinical specimen

259
Q

Alpha Beta hemolysis is

A

Partial lysing of the RBCs in a BAP around and under the colony

260
Q

Beta-hemolysis is

A

Complete clearing or RBCs in a BAP around and under the colony

261
Q

Gamma (y)-hemolysis is

A

When organisms have no lytic effect on the RBC in the BAP

262
Q

Colonies growing on the SBA have discolored the media to a green color around and under the colonies. This is a consistent with which type of hemolysis?

A

Delta

263
Q

The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a wide, deep, clear zone around and under the colonies. This is consistent with which type of hemolysis?

A

Gamma (no hemolysis)

264
Q

When differentiating colony size on the culture place, what organisms generally have the larger colonies by comparison?

A

Gram-negative rods

265
Q

The edge of the colonies is described as all the following except

A

Glasslike

266
Q

Colonies of Bacillus anthracite are described as

A

Medusas heads

267
Q

Swarming is

A

A hazy blanket of growth on the surface of the agar that extends way beyond the streak lines

268
Q

A microbiologist is a reading a vaginal culture. She sees the very white colonies that are non-hemolytic on a BAP but appear to have feet. What organism could this possibly be?

A

Yeast

269
Q

The elevation of bacterial colonies is described by all of the following except

A

Pointed

270
Q

A term used to describe colonies that resemble coins is

A

Umbilicate

271
Q

The density of the bacterial colony can be described by all the following except

A

Ground glass

272
Q

The term used to describe colonies that are solid in color and that do not allow any light to pass through it

A

Opaque

273
Q

All of the following terms are used to describe the consistency of a bacterial colony, except

A

Smooth

274
Q

All of the following colors are commonly used to describe bacteria, except

A

Orange

275
Q

What organism forms a small, fuzzy-edged colony with an umbonate center on blood or CHOC agar?

A

Eikenella corrodes

276
Q

What organism forms a small, fuzzy-edged colony with an umbonate center on blood or CHOC agar?

A

Eikenella corrodes

277
Q

When looking at a tube of thioglycollate broth, streamers or vines and puffballs are visible. What organism grows like this in thioglycollate?

A

Streptococcus Spp

278
Q

All of the folllowing characteristics are used to describe bacterial colony characteristics except

A

Temperature

279
Q

Nucleic Aid hybridization is

A

Coupling of complementary single-stranded nucleic acid molecule

280
Q

The target nucleic acid strand is

A

The DNA or RNA sequence unique to the organism of interest

281
Q

The probe is

A

Used to detect the target nucleic acid molecule

282
Q

Common uses of probes include all of the following except

A

Abnormal WBC detection

283
Q

The variables that affect the outcome of a given hybridization reaction include all of the following except

A

Organic acid concentration

284
Q

How is stability of given hybrid Calculated?

A

By determining the melting temperature of a probe

285
Q

How do high probe concentrations affect a given by hybridization reaction?

A

Lower the reaction time

286
Q

Many hybridization assay conditions are based on the expectation that a probe

A

Has exact complementarity to the target nucleic acid

287
Q

In hybridization reaction, the pH affects

A

the stability of double-stranded nucleic acid molecules in solution

288
Q

the function of the probe is to

A

form a duplex with every complementary sequence available in the reaction

289
Q

which of the following compounds are used for labeling probes?

A

Fluorescein

290
Q

the principle of solid support hybridization (often called blotting) is:

A

the target sequence is part of the solid and the probe, which is in isolation, hybridizes to the target s

291
Q

The Southern blot test separates

A

DNA

292
Q

the steps of performing the southern blot test include all the following except

A

after labeled probe is hybridized to specific target, the DNA is electrophoresed again, then dried and read

293
Q

A northern blot is used to detect

A

RNA

294
Q

The steps is separated the Northern blot test include all of the following except

A

the membrane is then transferred to a gel so that the RNA can be immobilized in the gel

295
Q

In situ hybridization, first described 1969, is where

A

DNA or RNA can be detected directly in tissue with labeled probes

296
Q

the principle of in-solubility hybridization is

A

the hybridization between a labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells

297
Q

PCR includes all of the following except

A

gene expression

298
Q

this piece of instrumentation is a integral part of the PCR process

A

thermal cycler

298
Q

In a PCR, the target DNA is

A

exponentially amplified over many cycles of PCR

299
Q

PCR requires all of the following components except

A

DNA helicase

299
Q

During the denaturation step in PCR

A

the target double-strained DNS is separated into single strands

300
Q

the goal of the pirmer annealing step is to

A

hybridize oligionucleotide primers to the denatured, single stranded target DNA strands

301
Q

what is the purpose of the primer extension

A

to produce PCR products

302
Q

The most commonly used polymerase is

A

Taq DNA polymerase

303
Q

the cation is required for the proper function of Taqman DNA polymerase

A

Mg

304
Q

one of the most significant drawbacks of PCR is

A

the process is easily contaminated

305
Q

what chemical has been very successful in reducing carryover from PCR assays?

A

Uracil-N-Glycosylate

306
Q

The most common nucleic acid stain used after separation by agarose gel electrophoresis is

A

ethidium bromide

307
Q

the advantage of real-time PCR over stranded PCR include all of the following except

A

real-time PCR assay will contaminate equipment, reagents, and workspaces

308
Q

What is the fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) methodology ?

A

the transfer of energy is made from a donor dye molecule to an acceptor dye

309
Q

a scorpian primer

A

uses a single oligionucleotide to prime a specific sequence and to detect accumulated PCR product

310
Q

The most sensitive technique available for detecting and quantifying messenger RNA is

A

Reverse transcriptase PCR

311
Q

multiplex PCR is good for

A

simultaneously detecting two or more different targets from one PCR tube

312
Q

Nested PCR is very sensitive and specific becasue

A

the assay itself basically serves as a form on internal control and ensures specificity

313
Q

NASBA stands for?

A

Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification

314
Q

Accurate epidemological surveillance of specific organisms is needed for all the following reasons except

A

the increase in nosocomial infections

315
Q

all of the following non amplified typing technique are used to differentiate strains of an organism except

A

multilocus sequence typing

316
Q

all of the following are amplified typing techniques are used to differentiate strains for an organism exce[t

A

PFGE

317
Q

this method is good for separating large DNA fragements is a low-percentage, low-melt agarose gel by an angled electrical field that periodically changes orientation

A

PFGE

318
Q

this method analyzes gene expression polymorphism by analyzing proteins

A

multilocus enzyme electrophoresis

319
Q

this technique is popular method of DNA fingerprinting

A

Random amplified polymorphic DNA

320
Q

when an organisms genome is sequenced, all of the following information can be obtained except

A

disease causing mechanisms

321
Q

the basis for this method is a microscopic grouping of DNA molecules attached to solid support mechanism. Silicon chips, glass, or plastic have been used as he solid surfaces. what method is this ?

A

DNA ,microarray

322
Q

what is proteomics

A

the study of proteins on a cellular level

323
Q

relatively nontoxic antimicrobial therapeutic agents include all of the following except

A

heavy metals

324
Q

Antibiotics work by targeting all of the following except

A

bacterial plasmid DNA

325
Q

which of the following is public health issues uniting scientists from across the world to develop strategies to address it

A

antibiotic resistance

326
Q

Mechanism that mediate intrinsic antibiotic resistance include all of the following except

A

alternate biosynthesis pathways

327
Q

antibiotic mechanism of action target all the following except

A

blocking the Embden-Meyerhof pathway

328
Q

Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria have an inner cytoplasmic membrane that is composed fo

A

phospholipids and proteins

329
Q

In gram-positive bacteria, this is substantially thicker and more multilayered than in gram-negative bacteria

A

peptidoglycan

330
Q

The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria composed of

A

lipopolysaccharides, phospholipids and porin proteins

331
Q

all of the following are beta-lactate antibiotics except

A

monotrepenes

332
Q

Pencillins, cephalosporins. monobactams, and carbapenems all have this ring in there structure that is responsible for inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction, resulting in bacterial lysis and cell death

A

beta-lactam

333
Q

what is the mechanism of action of the glycopeptides (vancomycin and teicoplaninin)?

A

the glycopeptides bind to the substrate of the transpeptidation enzyme and disrupt the cell membrane construction

334
Q

which antibiotic inhibits folate synthesis, proving the essential precursor molecule, pyridine thymidylate, needed in DNA synthesis?

A

sulfamethoxazole

335
Q

this antibiotic affects the DNA replication by targeting topoisomerases II and IV, enzymes considered important in controlling DNA replication

A

quinolone

336
Q

this antibiotic interferes with DNA transcription by blocking of RNA chain elongation

A

rifampin

337
Q

All of the following antibiotics target the 50S ribosomal subunit to prevent mRNA translation in the bacteria except

A

quinelones

338
Q

these antibiotics are cationic carbohydrate-contaning molecules and their positive charge provides the basis for the interaction with the 30S ribosomal subunit. What class of antibiotics are these?

A

aminoglycosides

339
Q

the members of the polyketide class of the antibiotic include all the following exce[t

A

Oxycycline

340
Q

the members of the macrolide class of antibiotics include all the following except q

A

Rifamycin

341
Q

these two classes of antibiotics allow initiation and mRNA translation to begin, but they act by inhibiting peptide elongation

A

macrolides and tetracyclines

342
Q

all of the following are recently approved classes of antibiotics that target protein synthesis, excpt

A

sixth generation cephalosporins

343
Q

Unit 2
#99

A

MLT Microbiology (9 decks)

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