Unit 5 Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

nutritional mutants

A

unable to synthesize arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

central dogma of biology

A

DNA to RNA to protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

enzyme to convert RNA to DNA

A

reverse transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

one gene/ one polypeptide hypothesis

A

genes specify the structure of enzymes and each gene encodes the the structure of one enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

transcription

A

converting DNA to RNA, produces an exact copy of DNA on RNA, directly transfers info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

translation

A

RNA to protein, requires translating from the nucleic acid to the protein “languages”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

retroviruses

A

class of viruses that can convert their RNA genome into a DNA copy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

template strand (antisense)

A

one of the 2 DNA strands that is used to be copied, complementary to RNA’s transcript’s sequence, 3’ to 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

coding strand (sense)

A

the non copied strand of DNA, same sequence as RNA transcript, 5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mRNA

A

messenger RNA, used to direct the synthesis of polypeptides, carries DNA message to ribosome for processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

rRNA

A

ribosomal RNA, multiple sub types used by ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tRNA

A

transfer RNA, interpret mRNA and escort amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

small RNAs (miRNA, siRNA)

A

regulate gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

snRNA

A

small nuclear RNA, part of the machinery involved in nuclear processing of eukaryotic pre mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

SRP

A

signal recognition particle, contains both RNA and proteins, mediates protein synthesis by ribosomes in rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

codons

A

basic unit of genetic code, sequence of 3 adjacent nucleotides in DNA/mRNA that codes for one amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RNA polymerase

A

synthesizes RNA from DNA template, in prokaryotes it is divided into core and holoenzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

core polymerase

A

synthesizes RNA using a DNA template, made of 2 alpha subunits, beta subunit, and beta’ subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 alpha subunits in core polymerase

A

help to hold the compex together and bind to regulatory molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

beta and beta’ subunits in core polymerase

A

the active site, bind to DNA template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

holoenzyme

A

initiates synthesis, sigma added to core polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

promoter

A

start site for RNA transcription, forms a recognition and binding site for the RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

terminator

A

site on DNA that sends a signal to RNA polymerase to end transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

transcription unit

A

from promoter to terminator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

transcription bubble

A

region containing the RNA polymerase, the DNA template, and the growing RNA transcript

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

difference between transcription in eukaryotes vs prokaryotes

A
  • in prokaryotes, transcription is occuring at the same time as translation (coupling)
    in eukaryotes, transcription is in nucleus and translation is in cytoplasm
  • prokaryotes organize multiple genes on the same mRNA with operons
  • eukaryotes have 3 RNA polymerases while prokaryotes have 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

operons

A

single transcription unit that encodes multiple enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

RNA polymerase 1

A

transcribes rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

RNA polymerase 2

A

transcribes mRNA, TATA box promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RNA polymerase 3

A

transcribes tRNA and small RNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

transcription factors

A

interact with RNA polymerase 2 to form an initiation complex at the promoter that is necessary for transcription to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

initiation complex

A

in eukaryotes, transcription requires binding of transcription factors to promoter before RNA polymerase 2 binds to DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

primary transcript

A

RNA synthesized by RNA polymerase 2, which is processed to produce the mature mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

5’ cap

A

methylated GTP added to protect 5’ end while transcription is still in process, protecting the end from degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3’ poly A tail

A

polyadenylation signal sequence, series of 100-200 adenine residues is added after the cleavage by enzyme poly A polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

introns

A

non coding DNA, that interrupts the sequence of the gene, intervening sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

exons

A

coding sequences that are expressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

spliceosome

A

organelle that removes noncoding sequences (introns) from mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

structure of tRNA

A

has to be able to interact with mRNA and amino acids, made of acceptor stem and anticodon loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

acceptor stem

A

3’ end of the molecule, binds to amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

anticodon loop

A

bottom loop of clover leaf, can base pair with codons in mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tRNA charging reaction

A

reaction catalyzed by activating enzymes to bind an amino acid to a tRNA, making it a charged tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A site on ribosome

A

aminoacyl, binds to tRNA carrying next amino acid in sequence (docking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

P site on ribosome

A

peptidyl, binds to tRNA attached to peptide chain (attaching)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

E site on ribosome

A

binds to tRNA that carried previous amino acids (exiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

initiation of translation

A

AUG start codon on mRNA codes for methionine, tRNAmet is positioned over the first chain AUG codon of mRNA, forms EPA sites where successive tRNA molecules bind to the ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

elongation of translation

A

tRNA go through elongation cycle, moving their bound amino acid to mRNA by forming peptide bonds, tRNA anticodon must match mRNA codon, translates in 5’ to 3’ direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

termination of translation

A

requires a stop codon on the mRNA, stop codons don’t bind tRNA but bind to release factors, release of a polypeptide from the final tRNA and dissociation of ribosome, concludes the process of gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

mutation

A

heritable change in genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

base substitution

A

changing 1 nitrogenous base on DNA, may not lead to change in expression

51
Q

polymorphisms

A

genetic differences between individuals in a population

52
Q

point mutation

A

mutation that alters a single base

53
Q

missense mutation

A

“sense” of the codon involved has not been changed, changes an amino acid

54
Q

conservative missense mutation

A

occur when substituted amino acid is chemically similar (nonpolar for nonpolar)

55
Q

nonconservative missense mutation

A

occur when substitute is chemically different (polar for nonpolar), ex. sickle cell

56
Q

nonsense mutation

A

mutation leads to formation of stop codon, codon no longer makes “sense”

57
Q

copy number variation

A

(CNV) genomic rearrangements result in differences in the number of copies of a particular genomic region

58
Q

4 types of copy number variation

A
  • deletion (loss of DNA)
  • insertion
  • duplication (gain of DNA)
  • reciprocal translocation (one chromosome is broken and becomes part of another chromosome)
59
Q

direction of transcription and translation of RNA

A

reads DNA 3’ to 5’, but builds mRNA strand 5’ to 3’

60
Q

epigenetics

A

altering gene expression based on environment

61
Q

forms of epigenetics

A

adding methyl/acetyl groups and altering access to DNA
ex. women in great depression has extra methyl groups inherited

62
Q

cell determination

A

when a cell’s fate is decided (going to bone, brain, stomach, etc.)

63
Q

cell differentiation

A

develop unique cellular properties

64
Q

recombinant DNA

A

one DNA from different sources (difference organisms)

65
Q

anneal

A

joining 2 DNA strands at complementary sequence

66
Q

genomics

A

study of whole genomes, complete makeup of organisms

67
Q

genetic markers

A

any detectable genetic difference among individuals

68
Q

genetic map

A

shows relative positions on gene on chromosomes

69
Q

physical map

A

shows precise location/sizes for genes

70
Q

gene expression

A

conversion of genotype to phenotype

71
Q

regulatory proteins

A

modulating the ability of RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter

72
Q

positive control

A

increases the frequency of initiation

73
Q

negative control

A

decreases the frequency of initiation

74
Q

repressors

A

proteins that bind to regulatory sites on DNA called operators to decrease initiation of transcription, mediates negative control, prevents polymerase from binding

75
Q

activators

A

mediates positive control, allosteric proteins that bind to DNA and enhance the binding of RNA polymerase to promoter

76
Q

induction

A

occurs when enzymes for a certain pathway are produced in response to a substrate

77
Q

repression

A

occurs when bacteria capable of making biosynthetic enzymes do not produce them

78
Q

glucose repression

A

preferential use of glucose when other sugars are present

79
Q

increase in glucose levels, ___ in cAMP

A

decrease in cAMP, CAP is unable to activate promoter, blocking lactose

80
Q

cAMP

A

allosteric modulator

81
Q

operon

A

multiple genes with a single promoter that make 1 transcription unit

82
Q

general transcription factors

A

necessary for transcription to occur at all

83
Q

protein - primary structure

A

amino acid sequence

84
Q

protein - secondary structure

A

initial folding and twisting (motifs)

85
Q

protein - tertiary structure

A

combinations of secondary structures (domains)

86
Q

DNA binding motifs

A

directly involved in protein binding specificity

87
Q

most common DNA binding motif

A

helix-turn-helix, recognition helix fits into major groove

88
Q

specific transcription factors

A

alter transcription in certain cell types or in response to specific stimuli

89
Q

promoters

A

binding sites for general transcription factors

90
Q

enhancers

A

DNA sequences necessary for high levels of transcription that can act independently of position or orientation

91
Q

chromatin remodeling complexes

A

use factors to modify histones and DNA, and alter chromatin structure directly

92
Q

ATP dependent remodeling factor

A

molecular motors that use energy from ATP hydrolysis to alter the relationship between histone and DNA

93
Q

DNA methylation

A

doesn’t interfere with H-bonds but can interact with proteins

94
Q

histone methylation

A

methyl groups inhibit transcription

95
Q

histone acetylation

A

acetyl groups promote transcription

96
Q

4 major structural changes from histone remodeling

A

nucleosome sliding, remodeled nucleosome, nucleosome displacement, histone replacement

97
Q

cytoplasmic determinants

A

inherited maternally and deposited in oocyte

98
Q

recombinant DNA

A

building a single DNA molecule from different sources

99
Q

restriction endonucleases

A

enzymes that cleave DNA at specific locations, free ends can be joined to other strands of DNA

100
Q

EcoRI

A

typically cleave at GAATTC

101
Q

gel electrophoresis

A

technique using the negative charge on DNA to separate DNA molecules based on size

102
Q

molecular cloning

A

producing recombinant DNA molecules

103
Q

cDNA

A

complimentary DNA, the DNA sequence created from mRNA by reverse transcriptase, used in quantitative PCR

104
Q

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

mimics the process of DNA replication to produce millions of copies of a DNA sequence by amplification without the need for molecular cloning

105
Q

PCR: denaturation

A

heat is used to separate strands of double stranded DNA

106
Q

PCR: annealing of primers

A

primers provide the 3’ OH required for elongation by DNA polymerase

107
Q

PCR: synthesis

A

DNA polymerase makes new DNA

108
Q

transgenic organisms

A

contains a gene from a different species (transgene) which has been incorporated into genome through genetic engineering

109
Q

genetically modified organisms

A

organisms that have been genetically altered by techniques other than conventional breeding

110
Q

knockout animal

A

one that has had a gene inactivated so that the function of the gene is lost, using embryonic stem cells

111
Q

FISH

A

fluorescent in situ hybridization, technique to allow for detection of gross chromosomal abnormalities (large deletions, inversion, duplications, and translocations)

112
Q

quantitative PCR

A

isolate mRNA, use reverse transcriptase to generate cDNA, use PCR to amplify cDNAs

113
Q

pros to GMOs

A

potential to reduce world hunger, reduced use of fossil fuels, reduced use of pesticides, reduced conversion of land

114
Q

cons to GMOs

A

potential to transfer allergens, unintended effects on non target organisms, genes escaping through hybridization

115
Q

genetic markers

A

any detectable differences in individuals

116
Q

genetic maps (linkage maps)

A

abstract maps that place the relative location of genetic markers on chromosomes based on recombination frequency between markers

117
Q

physical maps

A

precisely position genetic markers in the genome, with the ultimate physical map being the complete DNA sequence of a genome

118
Q

restriction maps

A

not suitable for large DNA molecules, used for organelle and viral genomes, uses restriction enzymes to cut DNA for mapping

119
Q

chromosome maps

A

use of different stains allows for the construction of a cytological map of the entire genome based on banding patterns on chromosomes

120
Q

sequence tagged site mapping

A

combines the best of restriction mapping with the best mapping via FISH

121
Q

2 types of genome fragment assembly for whole genome sequencing

A

clone-contig assembly and shotgun assembly

122
Q

clone-contig assembly

A

assemble portions of a chromosome first and then figure out how the bigger pieces fit together

123
Q

shotgun assembly

A

try to assemble all the pieces at once, instead of in a stepwise fashion, no prior information about the sequenced genome is required

124
Q

how many genes in all mammals

A

20k-25k