Unit 4: The Abdomen and Pelvis Flashcards

1
Q

what composes the liver and the hepatic portal system?

A
  • liver (right, left, caudate, quadrate lobes)
  • falciform ligament
  • common hepatic artery
  • hepatic vein
  • portal vein
  • right and left hepatic ducts
  • cystic duct
  • common bile duct
  • gall bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does the celiac trunk branch into?

A
  • common hepatic artery
  • splenic artery
  • left gastric artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does the right gastric artery branch off of?

A

common hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does the common hepatic artery supply and what vertebral level does it originate?

A
  • supplies the liver
  • T12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what vertebral body does the celiac trunk originate at and supply?

A
  • T12
  • supplies foregut
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do the hepatic veins drain and at what vertebral level do they drain into the IVC?

A
  • drain blood from liver
  • drain into IVC at T8 (at IVC hiatus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the function of the portal vein?

A

delivers oxygen-poor nutrient-rich blood to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what veins does the portal vein collect blood from?

A
  • superior mesenteric vein
  • inferior mesenteric vein
  • splenic vein
  • gastric veins
  • cystic vein (from gall bladder and cystic duct)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the functions of the right and left hepatic ducts?

A

carry bile from right and left lobes of liver; drain into common hepatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the function of the cystic duct?

A

carries bile from gall bladder; joins with common hepatic duct to form common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the function of the common bile duct?

A

passage for bile into the hepatopancreatic ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is the gall bladder and what is its function?

A
  • sits on inferior surface of right lobe of liver
  • stores bile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the lobes of the liver?

A
  • right lobe (larger than left)
  • left lobe
  • caudate lobe (superior)
  • quadrate lobe (inferior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of the falciform ligament?

A

separates right and left lobes of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where is the head of the pancreas?

A
  • encircled by C-shaped duodenum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the hepatopancreatic ampulla and where does it travel?

A
  • combination of common bile duct and pancreatic duct
  • exits the head of the pancreas through the major duodenal papilla (sphincter of Oddi)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where is the tail of the pancreas?

A
  • neighbours splenic hilum and left colic (splenic) flexure
  • passes transversely anterior to the aorta and L2 vertebral body
  • anterior surface covered in peritoneum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the pancreatic duct?

A

originates in the tail of the pancreas; joins common bile duct to form hepatopancreatic ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where is the splenic artery and what does it supply?

A
  • branches off celiac trunk @ T12
  • squiggly, travels superior to pancreas
  • supplies spleen, pancreas, and little stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the cardiac orifice?

A

distal opening of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the cardia?

A

most proximal region of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the fundus of the stomach and how does it appear on CT?

A

superior portion of stomach; appears hypodense on CT because usually empty (air-filled)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the pylorus?

A

most distal part of the stomach; where chyme lies before dumped into duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the function of the pyloric valve (and pyloric sphincter)?

A

prevents backflow from duodenum into stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

superior, short, concave border of stomach; attachment for lesser omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

inferior, long, convex border of the stomach; attachment for greater omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the duodenum?

A

most proximal division of the small intestine; ends at duodenojejunal flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the jejunum?

A

second part of the small intestine, begins at duodenojejunal flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the ileum?

A

last part of the small intestine, terminates at the ileocecal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the mesentary and where is it?

A
  • continuation of visceral and parietal peritoneum
  • tethers organs (stomach, SI, pancreas, spleen) to posterior abdominal wall
  • lies deep to greater omentum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the cecum?

A

proximal portion of the large intestine, continuous with the ascending colon
- connected to ileum by ileocecal valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the appendix?

A

distal to the cecum, filled with lymphoid tissue (possible role in bacteria growth and development for gut microbiome)
- pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how does the colon travel?

A
  • ascending colon on right side, turns into transverse colon and reflects left at right colic (hepatic) flexure, which is just inferior to the liver
  • transverse colon runs from right colic flexure to left colic (splenic flexure) which is near the spleen
  • descending colon on left side and turns into sigmoid colon at sigmoid flexure (at left iliac crest) to S3
  • becomes rectum and then anus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what vertebral level is the rectum at?

A

S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are tenia coli?

A

thin ribbon of longitudinal muscle along large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does the superior mesenteric artery supply and at what vertebral level does it branch off the aorta?

A
  • supplies duodenum to proximal 2/3s of transverse colon + pancreas; midgut
  • L1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what does the inferior mesenteric artery supply and what vertebral level does it branch off the aorta?

A
  • supplies distal 1/3 of transverse colon to rectum; hindgut
  • L3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the suprarenal (adrenal) glands?

A
  • sit on top of each kidney
  • divided into cortex and medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the function of the suprarenal (adrenal) cortex?

A

secretes corticosteroids and androgens into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the function of the suprarenal (adrenal) medulla?

A

comprised of nervous tissue; functions like sympathetic ganglion (products epinephrine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what level do the renal arteries branch off the abdominal aorta?

A

L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the renal hilum?

A

medial aspect of the kidneys where the renal arteries, veins, nerves, and ureters enter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the function of the ureters?

A

carry urine to the urinary bladder from the renal pelvis
- travels in the retroperitoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the function of the renal cortex?

A

contains majority of the nephron (primary site of filtration)
- outer portion of kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the function of the renal medulla?

A

contains the renal pyramids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the function of the renal capsule?

A

encloses the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are the renal columns?

A

space between pyramids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the renal pyramids?

A

within the medulla, triangular structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the renal papillae?

A

apex of renal pyramids
- open to expel filtrate into the centre of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the minor renal calyces?

A

what renal papillae open into and are surrounded by
- merge to form the major renal calyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how does urine travel after the minor renal calyces?

A
  • major renal calyx
  • renal pelvis
  • ureter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the renal corpuscle?

A

where blood is filtered and filtrate enters the nephron
- made of the glomerulus (capillaries) and Bowman’s capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the function of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

responsible for reabsorption and secretion of solutes and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the function of the distal convoluted tubule?

A

regulates ECF and electrolyte homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the collecting tubules?

A

last part of nephron where filtrate becomes urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are the muscles of the abdominal wall?

A
  • external obliques
  • internal obliques
  • transverse abdominus
  • rectus abdominus
  • quadratus lumborum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are the OIAs of the external obliques?

A

O: ribs 5-12
I: iliac crest, inguinal ligament, linea alba, pubic tubercle
A: bilaterally - anterior flexion of the trunk and compression of the abdomen
unilaterally - lateral flexion of the trunk and rotation to the opposite side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are the OIAs of the internal obliques?

A

O: iliac crest, inguinal ligament, thoracolumbar fascia
I: ribs 10-12, pectineal line, linea alba/abdominal aponeurosis
A: bilaterally - anterior flexion of the trunk and compression of the abdomen
unilaterally - lateral flexion of the trunk and rotation to the same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are the OIAs of transverse abdominus (corset muscle)?

A

O: iliac crest, thoracolumbar fascia, costal cartilages of ribs 7-12
I: abdominal aponeurosis
A: compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the OIAs of rectus abdominus?

A

O: pubic crest and symphysis
I: costal cartilages 5-7, xiphoid process
A: flexion of the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are the OIAs of quadratus lumborum?

A

O: iliac crest
I: transverse processes of L1-L5, rib 12
A: extension of the trunk + lateral flexion, stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are the os coxae and how are they connected?

A

hip bones
- connected anteriorly by the pubic symphysis
- connected posteriorly by the sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what bones compose the bony pelvis?

A
  • sacrum
  • coccyx
  • bilateral os coxae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the landmarks of the ilium?

A
  • iliac crest
  • posterior superior iliac spine
  • posterior inferior iliac spine
  • anterior superior iliac spine
  • anterior inferior iliac spine
  • iliac fossa
  • acetabulum
  • acetabular notch
  • greater sciatic notch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the function of the iliac crest?

A

attachment for internal oblique, transverse abdominus and external oblique (+ lat dorsi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what landmark is colloquially known as the hip?

A

anterior superior iliac spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the acetabulum?

A

cup-like fossa formed by all 3 os coxae bones; articulates with femur to form hip joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the acetabular notch?

A

discontinuation of labrum and lunate surface of acetabulum (incomplete part of circle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is the greater sciatic notch?

A

between PIIS and ischium; forms the greater sciatic foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are the landmarks of the ischium?

A
  • ischial tuberosity
  • body of ischium
  • ramus of ischium
  • obturator foramen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what bone of the os coxae bears weight while sitting?

A

ischium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the ischial tuberosity known as?

A

sit bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the obturator foramen formed by?

A

ramus of ischium and pubis

74
Q

what are the landmarks of the pubis?

A
  • body
  • arcuate line
  • iliopubic (iliopectineal) eminence
  • pubic tubercle
  • superior ramus of pubis
  • inferior ramus of pubis
  • pubic symphysis
75
Q

what does the arcuate line form?

A

pelvic brim

76
Q

what forms the iliopubic eminence?

A

union of ilium and pubis

77
Q

what is the function of the pubic tubercle?

A

where distal end of inguinal ligament binds to

78
Q

what is the function of the superior ramus of the pubis?

A

attachment point for hip joint ligaments (obturator crest)

79
Q

what are the muscles of the pelvic floor?

A
  • puborectalis
  • pubococcygeus
  • iliococcygeus
  • coccygeus
80
Q

what are the levator ani muscles?

A
  • puborectalis
  • pubococcygeus
  • iliococccygeus
81
Q

what are the OIAs of puborectalis?

A

O: anteriorly, from the pubic symphysis
I: posteriorly; encircling the anorectal junction (integrating in part with the external anal sphincter)
A: inhibits defecation, recruited when you defecation, inhibits farting

82
Q

what are the OIAs of pubococcygeus?

A

O: pubic bone, lateral to origin of puborectalis
I: coccyx
A: control urine flow; contract during orgasm

83
Q

what are the OIAs of iliococcygeus?

A

O: ischial spine
I: coccyx
A: maintains position of pelvic organs

84
Q

what are the OIAs of coccygeus?

A

O: spine of ischium, sacrospinous ligament
I: lateral margin of coccyx and sacrum
A: draws coccyx forward during childbirth and defecation; supports pelvic viscera

85
Q

what are the hiatuses of the pelvic floor, from anterior to posterior?

A
  • urethral canal
  • vaginal canal (in females)
  • rectal canal
86
Q

what is the pelvic inlet?

A

roof of pelvic cavity; superior opening of pelvis

87
Q

what does the pelvic cavity contain?

A
  • urinary bladder
  • rectum
  • reproductive organs
88
Q

what kind of uterus do rabbits have?

A

bicornuate duplex uterus
- 2 separate uterine horns and no uterine body
- each horn has its own cervix; 2 cervices open up into a single vagina

89
Q

what are the male genital organs?

A
  • testis
  • epididymis
  • vas deferens
  • ejaculatory duct
  • penis
90
Q

what are male accessory glandular structures?

A
  • seminal gland
  • prostate
  • bulbo-urethral gland
91
Q

semen is a mix of secretions from what structures?

A
  • testis
  • seminal gland
  • prostate
  • bulbo-urethral gland
92
Q

what is the function of the testis?

A

produce sperm + androgens (testosterone) which are responsible for sex drive, fertility, and development of bone and muscle mass

93
Q

what is the function of the epididymis?

A

where sperm goes after production to mature
- head
- body
- tail

94
Q

what is the function of the head of the epididymis?

A

above testis, acts as a reservoir until sperm are ready to undergo maturation

95
Q

what is the function of the body of the epididymis?

A

long tube, site of maturation of sperm

96
Q

how long does it take for sperm to mature?

A

~ 7 days

97
Q

what is the function of the tail of the epididymis?

A

connects to vas deferens where sperm travels to the ejaculatory duct

98
Q

what is the function of the vas deferens?

A

begins at the tail of epididymis, ascends to eventually join the duct of the seminal gland to collectively form the ejaculatory duct

99
Q

what is the function of the seminal gland?

A

resides between fundus of bladder and the rectum, secretes fluid rich in fructose and a coagulating agent

100
Q

what is the ejaculatory duct?

A

the combination of the vas deferens and the duct of the seminal gland; joins with urethra to create its distal continuation

101
Q

what is the function of the prostate gland?

A

produces prostate fluid that helps sperm survive

102
Q

what is the corpus cavernosa?

A

dorsal; facilitation of penile erection (fills with blood)
- does most of the work

103
Q

what is the corpus spongiosum?

A

ventral; spongy tissue surrounding urethra, closes urethra to make it a channel for ejaculation
- continuous with the glans

104
Q

what is the function of the bulbo-urethral (Cowper’s) gland?

A

secretes a mucus-like secretion during sexual stimulation

105
Q

what are the female genital organs?

A
  • ovaries
  • fallopian tubes
  • uterus
  • vagina
106
Q

what is the function of the uterus?

A

womb; facilitates development of embryo and fetus

107
Q

what is the function of the round ligament?

A

connects anterior uterus (lateral horns) to labia majora (true ligament)

108
Q

what is the cervix?

A

inferior portion of the uterus, between urinary bladder and rectum
- dilates during labour to admit the passage of the baby into the birth canal
- checked routinely for changes indicative of cervical cancer via pap smear

109
Q

what are the functions of the ovaries?

A

location of female gamete development
- development of oocytes (female germ cells)
- endocrine function - produce estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone (for maintenance of reproductive organs, bone development, and fertility)

110
Q

what is the function of the fallopian tubes?

A

facilitate fertilization between male sperm and female egg
- when fertilization is successful, tube transfers egg to uterus for transplantation

111
Q

what is the function of the ovarian ligament?

A

tethers uterus to ovary

112
Q

what is the function of the vagina?

A

projects from vaginal part of cervix to vaginal orifice; posterior to urinary bladder and urethra, anterior to rectum

113
Q

what is the broad ligament?

A

a sheet-like fold of peritoneum
- extends from the sides of the uterus to the lateral wall and floor of the pelvis, holding the uterus in position

114
Q

at what vertebral level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteries?

A

L4

115
Q

at what vertebral level do the common iliac veins converge to form the IVC?

A

L5

116
Q

what are the layers of the abdominal wall, from superficial to deep?

A
  • skin
  • Camper fascia
  • Scarpa fascia
  • superficial investing fascia
  • external oblique
  • intermediate investing fascia
  • internal oblique
  • deep investing fascia
  • transverse abdominus
  • endoabdominal fascia
  • extraperitoneal fat
  • parietal peritoneum
117
Q

what is the rectus sheath formed by?

A

aponeuroses that are medial extensions of fascia covering the lateral abdominal muscles
- first layer after skin
- contains rectus abdominus

118
Q

what is the linea alba?

A

band of connective tissue running from sternum to pubic bone
- midline

119
Q

what is the arcuate line of the abdomen and its significance?

A

clinical landmark approx. halfway between umbilicus and pubic crest
- arrangement of fascia of rectus sheath changes at this line

120
Q

how is the rectus sheath organized above the arcuate line?

A
  • EO fascia runs anterior to RA
  • IO fascia splits; half runs anterior to RA, half posterior
  • TA fascia runs posterior to RA
121
Q

how is the rectus sheath organized below the arcuate line?

A
  • EO fascia runs anterior to RA
  • IO fascia doesn’t split; runs anterior to RA
  • TA fascia runs anterior to RA
122
Q

what is the function of the inguinal ligament?

A

acts as a retinaculum for neurovascular structures passing into the lower limb
- forms floor of inguinal canal (site for vulnerability of an inguinal hernia - loop of SI can get stuck in there)

123
Q

how are abdominal muscles innervated?

A

segmentally by branches of spinal nerves
- anterior rami branches into cutaneous nerve (sensory innervating dermatomes) and muscular nerve (motor innervating myotomes)

124
Q

do muscles contain sensory receptors?

A

yes

125
Q

what are the abdominopelvic regions?

A
  • right hypochondriac region
  • epigastric region
  • left hypochondriac region
  • right lumbar region
  • umbilical region
  • left lumbar region
  • right iliac region
  • hypogastric region
  • left iliac region
126
Q

what organs are in the right upper quadrant?

A
  • liver (right lobe)
  • gall bladder
  • stomach (pylorus)
  • duodenum
  • pancreas (head)
  • right adrenal gland
  • right kidney
  • right colic (hepatic) flexure
  • ascending colon (superior part)
  • right half of transverse colon
127
Q

what organs are in the left upper quadrant?

A
  • liver (left lobe)
  • spleen
  • stomach
  • jejunum and proximal ileum
  • pancreas (body + tail)
  • left adrenal gland
  • left kidney
  • left colic (splenic) flexure
  • left half of transverse colon
  • descending colon (superior part)
128
Q

what organs are in the right lower quadrant?

A
  • cecum
  • appendix
  • most of ileum
  • ascending colon (inferior part)
  • right ovary
  • right fallopian tube
  • right ureter
  • right spermatic cord
  • uterus (if enlarged)
  • bladder (if very full)
129
Q

what organs are in the left lower quadrant?

A
  • sigmoid colon
  • descending colon (inferior part)
  • left ovary
  • left fallopian tube
  • left ureter
  • left spermatic cord
  • uterus (if enlarged)
  • bladder (if very full)
130
Q

is the spleen a digestive organ?

A

NO

131
Q

what are gastric rugae?

A

internal smooth muscle used for mechanical digestion (churning)

132
Q

what forms the pyloric part of the stomach (pylorus)?

A
  • proximally: pyloric antrum
  • distally: pyloric canal
133
Q

what is the hepatoduodenal ligament?

A

portion of the lesser omentum extending from the liver to the duodenum

134
Q

what is the hepatogastric ligament?

A

portion of the lesser omentum extending from the lesser curvature of the stomach to the liver

135
Q

how does the stomach lie in leaner individuals?

A

greater curvature of the stomach descends in an upright position

136
Q

what is the omentum and its functions?

A

fold of peritoneum with protective functions:
- facilitates migration of immune cells into the peritoneal cavity
- physically walls off areas of inflammation by forming adhesions (walls off injury to prevent spreading)
- used as a source of tissue for wound repair

137
Q

what is the greater omentum?

A

extends from the greater curvature of the stomach
- hangs in a fold, covering the SI
- doubles back and attaches to the transverse colon

138
Q

what is the lesser omentum?

A

extends from the lesser curvature of the stomach
- attaches to liver and duodenum

139
Q

what is the mesentery?

A

attaches to jejunum and ileum, it supplies them with nerves and vessels
- specialized peritoneum

140
Q

what are haustra?

A

segmented pouches of bowel formed by contraction of the circular smooth-muscle layer
- bumps of LI

141
Q

what are diverticula and their clinical importance?

A

tiny pouches that form in the colon with age
- can become inflamed = diverticulitis

142
Q

what makes up the portal triad and what do they go through?

A
  • hepatic artery
  • hepatic portal vein
  • common bile duct
    go through the lesser omentum
143
Q

how does bile enter the digestive tract when produced on demand?

A

liver -> left and right hepatic ducts -> common hepatic duct -> common bile duct -> hepatopancreatic ampulla -> major duodenal papilla -> duodenum

144
Q

how does bile enter the gall bladder when it is produced by not required?

A

sphincter is closed at duodenum common bile duct -> cystic duct -> gall bladder

145
Q

what is the path of portal blood supply?

A

celiac trunk -> common hepatic artery -> hepatic artery proper -> left and right hepatic arteries (going to their respective lobes)

146
Q

why is their an accessory pancreatic duct and what structure does it pass through to enter the duodenum?

A
  • only has pancreatic secretions for when fat is not being digested and bile is not required
  • goes through the minor duodenal papilla
147
Q

what is cholelithiasis?

A

gallstones
- hard deposits in the gall bladder

148
Q

what are the functions of the spleen?

A

largest immunological organ
- contains a large reservoir for leukocytes
- retrieves and slowly filters blood, both to extract old/dysfunctional erythrocytes from circulation and perform immune surveillance
- highly variable in size and morphology

149
Q

why is the spleen vulnerable to trauma?

A

superficial, right against the ribs (slightly lateral to left costal margin)
- commonly caused by blunt trauma

150
Q

how does the abdominal aorta run relative to the IVC?

A

anterior and to the left

151
Q

where do kidney stones form?

A
  • calyces
  • renal pelvis
  • ureter
152
Q

what are the most common muscles injured during vaginal delivery?

A

puborectalis and pubococcygeus, causing incontinence (loss of bladder control) and sexual dysfunction

153
Q

what is the difference in risk of pelvic floor dysfunction of C-section vs vaginal delivery?

A

vaginal delivery is associated with 2 fold increase in risk of pelvic floor dysfunction

154
Q

what connects the fundus of the uterus to the ovaries?

A

fallopian tubes

155
Q

what connects the uterus to the vagina?

A

cervix

156
Q

what are some complications of pregnancy due to compression of nearby organs caused by an enlarged uterus?

A
  • shortness of breath
  • heart burn
  • reduced stomach capacity
  • impaired intestinal transit and constipation
157
Q

what is round ligament pain?

A

sharp pain in the pelvic floor due to pressure of uterus tugging on round ligament

158
Q

what is a uterus prolapse?

A

the uterus collapses into the vagina (and in severe cases, outside of the vagina)
- when ligaments and/or pelvic floor muscles are damaged

159
Q

what are the named portions of the fallopian tubes, from proximal to distal?

A
  • intramural
  • isthmus
  • ampulla
  • infundibulum
160
Q

what is the most common form of ectopic pregnancy and its prevalence?

A

tubal pregnancy: once egg is fertilized and on its way to uterus, implants in fallopian tube
- 1/250 births

161
Q

what can a tubal pregnancy be misdiagnosed as?

A

appendicitis
- appendix lies very close to the right ovary and right uterine tube

162
Q

what is a tubal ligation?

A

surgical method of birth control (tubes tied)
- cut and cauterized
- placing clips on tubes
ova that are released degenerate and are absorbed

163
Q

what is the cervical os?

A

small opening for women who have never given birth

164
Q

what is the vulva?

A

collective term for external female genitalia

165
Q

what is infibulation?

A

sewing up the vulva with some space left for urination and menstruation

166
Q

what is tumescence?

A

erection

167
Q

what part of the penis fills up with the most blood during an erection?

A

corpus cavernosum

168
Q

what is the glans?

A

tip of penis

169
Q

what are the divisions of the root of the penis?

A
  • 2 crura (lateral)
  • 1 bulb (medial)
170
Q

what is the precpuce?

A

foreskin
- covers majority of glans
- attaches to fascia overlying body of penis

171
Q

what are the potential benefits of male circumcision?

A

reduced risk of UTI, penile cancer, and STI (including HIV)

172
Q

what are the risks of male circumcision?

A

infection, permanent disfiguration, impaired sexual pleasure of function

173
Q

what is the urethra (males)?

A

extends from internal urethral orifice (bladder) to external urethral orifice (glans)

174
Q

what are the 4 divisions of the urethra in males, from proximal to distal?

A
  • preprostatic (intramural) urethra: surrounded by the internal urethral sphincter
  • prostatic urethra
  • membraneous urethra: surrounded by the external urethral sphincter
  • spongy (penile) urethra
175
Q

why is the prostatic urethra important?

A
  • contains the urethral crest, where prostatic ducts open bilaterally
  • contains the seminal colliculus, where the ejaculatory ducts open bilaterally
  • affected by benign prostatic hyperplasia
176
Q

what is benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

a non-cancerous increase in prostate size
- waking up in the night to urinate
- urinary hesitancy
- intermittent urine flow

177
Q

what runs alongside the spongy urethra?

A

cowper’s glands

178
Q

what 2 openings increase the size of the urethra?

A
  • ampulla (proximal)
  • navicular fossa (distal, in the glans)
179
Q

what is vas deferens ligation?

A

vasectomy
- cutting and ligating vas deferens in scrotum as a form of birth control

180
Q

what organs are intraperitoneal?

A

SALTD SPRSS
- stomach
- appendix
- liver
- transverse colon
- duodenum (1st part only)
- small intestine (jejunum and ileum)
- pancreas (tail)
- rectum (upper 3rd)
- spleen
- sigmoid colon

181
Q

what organs are retroperitoneal?

A
  • adrenal glands
  • aorta (IVC)
  • duodenum (2nd and 3rd part)
  • pancreas (except tail)
  • ureters
  • ascending and descending colon
  • kidneys
  • esophagus
  • rectum (remaining)