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BPK326 > Unit 2: The Thorax > Flashcards

Unit 2: The Thorax Flashcards

1
Q

what are the muscles of the posterior thorax?

A
  • splenius muscles
  • trapezius
  • latissimus dorsi
  • rhomboids
  • levator scapulae
  • serratus posterior
  • erector spinae
  • multifidus
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2
Q

what are the regions of the splenius muscles?

A
  • capitis
  • cervicis
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3
Q

what are the OIAIs of the splenius capitis?

A
  • origin: nuchal ligament, spinous processes of C7-T3
  • insertion: mastoid process (temporal bone), lateral third of superior nuchal line
  • action: bilaterally - extends the neck; unilaterally - rotates and laterally flexes the neck
  • innervation: posterior/dorsal rami C2-C3
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4
Q

what are the OIAIs of the splenius cervicis?

A
  • origin: spinous processes of T3-T6
  • insertion: transverse processes of C1-C2
  • action: bilaterally - extends the neck; unilaterally - rotates and laterally flexes the neck
  • innervation: posterior/dorsal rami C4-T1
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5
Q

what are the relative location of the splenius muscles?

A

capitis is superficial and superior to cervicis

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6
Q

what are the regions of the trapezius?

A
  • superior (descending) part
  • middle (transverse) part
  • inferior (ascending) part
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7
Q

where is the trapezius and what is it innervated by?

A
  • most superficial muscle
  • spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)
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8
Q

what are the OIAs of the superior trapezius?

A
  • origin: superior nuchal line, external occipital protuberance
  • insertion: lateral third of the clavicle
  • action: elevate and retract the scapula
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9
Q

what are the OIAs of the middle trapezius?

A
  • origin: spinous processes of T1-T4
  • insertion: spine and acromion of scapula
  • action: retract scapula
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10
Q

what are the OIAs of the inferior trapezius?

A
  • origin: spinous processes of T5-T12
  • insertion: spine of the scapula
  • action: depresses and retracts scapula
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11
Q

what are the regions of the latissimus dorsi?

A
  • vertebral part
  • iliacal part
  • costal part
  • scapular part
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12
Q

what is the origin of the vertebral part of the latissimus dorsi?

A

spinous processes T7-T12 and the thoracolumbar fascia

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13
Q

what is the origin of the iliacal part of the latissimus dorsi?

A

iliac crest

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14
Q

what is the origin of the costal part of the latissimus dorsi?

A

body of ribs 9-12

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15
Q

what is the origin of the scapular part of the latissimus dorsi?

A

inferior angle of the scapula

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16
Q

what are the IAIs of the latissimus dorsi?

A
  • insertion: medial side of the floor of the intertubercular (bicipital) groove of the humerus
  • action: adducts and medial rotates the arm at the glenohumeral joint (GHJ); extends humerus at the GHJ; elevates the trunk (pull up) and moves the truck anteriorly (cross-country skiiing)
  • thoracodorsal nerve of the brachial plexus (C6-C8)
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17
Q

what are the OIAIs of the rhomboid major?

A
  • origin: spinous processes T2-T5
  • insertion: medial border of the scapula, inferior to the spine
  • action: retract and elevate the medial border of the scapula
  • innervation: dorsal scapular nerve (C4-C5)
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18
Q

what are the OIAIs of the rhomboid minor?

A
  • origin: spinous processes C6-C7
  • insertion: medial border of the scapula, superior to the spine
  • action: retract and elevate the medial border of the scapula
  • innervation: dorsal scapular nerve (C4-C5)
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19
Q

where are the splenius muscles relative to the rhomboids?

A

deep

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20
Q

what are the OIAIs of the levator scapula?

A
  • origin: transverse processes C1-C4
  • insertion: medial border of the scapula, superior to the spine
  • action: elevates medial border of the scapula; if scapula is fixed, flexes the neck laterally
  • innervation: dorsal scapular nerve (C4-C5)
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21
Q

where is the levator scapula relative to the splenius muscles?

A

deep

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22
Q

what are the regions of the serratus posterior and where do they lie relative to surrounding muscles?

A
  • superior; lies deep to rhomboids and levator scapula and superficial to splenius muscles
  • inferior; deep to latissimus dorsi
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23
Q

what are the OIAIs of the serratus posterior superior?

A
  • origin: spinous processes C7-T3
  • insertion: upper border of ribs 2-5
  • action: elevates ribs (contributes to inhalation)
  • innervation: intercostal nerves
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24
Q

what are the OIAIs of the serratus posterior inferior?

A
  • origin: spinous processes T11-L2
  • insertion: inferior border of ribs 9-12
  • action: depresses ribs (contributes to exhalation
  • innervation: intercostal nerves
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25
Q

what are the regions of the erector spinae (intermediate muscles) and their collective action?

A
  • spinalis (medial)
  • longissimus (middle)
  • iliocostalis (lateral)
  • action: extends and laterally flexes spine
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26
Q

what are the OIIs of the spinalis?

A
  • origin: spinous process T11-L2
  • insertion: spinous process T1-T8
  • innervation: posterior/dorsal ramus
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27
Q

what are the OIIs of the longissimus?

A
  • origin: thoracolumbar fascia, sacrum, and transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae
  • insertion: transverse processes of cervical and thoracic vertebrae + lower ribs 3-12
  • innervation: posterior/dorsal ramus
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28
Q

what are the OIIs of the iliocostalis?

A
  • origin: iliac crest, sacrum, and the erector spinae aponeurosis
  • insertion: angle of the ribs and the transverse processes of C4-C6
  • innervation: posterior/dorsal ramus
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29
Q

what are the OIAIs of the multifidis?

A
  • origin: sacrum and transverse processes
  • insertion: spinous processes 2-3 vertebrae above
  • action: extends and laterally flexes the spine; active in rotation and proprioceptive feedback
  • innervation: posterior/dorsal ramus
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30
Q

where is the multifidis relative to the erector spinae?

A

deep

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31
Q

what is the triangle of auscultation?

A

thin layer of muscle lying between the skin and the inferior lobe of the lung

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32
Q

what is the clinical purpose of the triangle of auscultation?

A

makes respiratory sounds easily heard through a stethoscope

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33
Q

what makes up the lateral border of the triangle of ausculation?

A

medial border of the scapula

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34
Q

what makes up the inferior border of the triangle of auscultation?

A

latissimus dorsi

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35
Q

what makes up the superiomedial border of the triangle of auscultation?

A

inferior trapezius

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36
Q

what are the regions of the pectoralis major?

A
  • clavicular part
  • sternocostal part
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37
Q

what are the OIAIs of the clavicular part of the pectoralis major?

A
  • origin: medial half of the clavicle
  • insertion: lateral part of the intertubercular (bicipital) groove of the humerus
  • action: flexes arm at GHJ
  • innervation: lateral pectoral nerve of the brachial plexus
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38
Q

what are the OIAIs of the sternocostal part of the pectoralis major?

A
  • origin: sternum and costal cartilages of rib 2-7 + aponeurosis of the external oblique
  • insertion: lateral part of the intertubercular (bicipital) groove of the humerus
  • action: extends arm at the GHJ
  • innervation: medial pectoral nerve of the brachial plexus
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39
Q

what is the collective movement of the pectoralis major?

A

medial rotation and adduction of the arm at the GHJ

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40
Q

what are the OIAIs of the pectoralis minor?

A
  • origin: body of ribs 3-5
  • insertion: coracoid process of scapula
  • action: depresses and protracts the scapula (against thoracic cage)
  • innervation: lateral and medial pectoral nerve
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41
Q

what are the order of muscles of the anterior thorax from superficial to deep?

A
  • pec major
  • pec minor
  • serratus anterior
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42
Q

what are the muscles of the anterior thorax?

A
  • pectoralis major
  • pectoralis minor
  • serratus anterior
  • subclavius
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43
Q

what are the OIAIs of the serratus anterior?

A
  • origin: body of ribs 1-9
  • insertion: medial border of scapula
  • action: laterally rotates the scapula (in abduction of the upper limb); stabilizes the scapula (boxer muscle)
  • innervation: long thoracic nerve of the brachial plexus
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44
Q

what are the OIAIs of the subclavius?

A
  • origin: junction of 1st rib and costal cartilage
  • insertion: middle third of clavicle
  • action: anchors and depresses clavicle
  • innervation: C5 and C6 (nerve to subclavius)
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45
Q

where are the subclavian vessels?

A

run over the first rib; vein anterior to artery

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46
Q

when do the subclavian vessels become the axillary vessels?

A

lateral border of 1st rib

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47
Q

what are the distribution of vertebrae?

A
  • 7 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 4 coccygeal
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48
Q

what are the atypical vertebrae of the cervical vertebrae?

A
  • C1 (atlas)
  • C2 (axis)
  • C7 (vertebra prominens)
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49
Q

why is C1 (atlas) atypical?

A
  • lacks a spinous process and a body
  • compromised of anterior and posterior arches
  • non-bifid
  • supports the skull
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50
Q

what parts of the vertebrae do not have intervertebral discs?

A
  • between C1 and C2
  • between sacral and coccygeal vertebrae (fused)
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51
Q

what kind of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint and what is it formed by?

A
  • superior articular facets of C1 and occipital condyles
  • synovial joint
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52
Q

what movement does the atlanto-occipital joint facilitate?

A

flexion and extension of the head (ex. nodding head)

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53
Q

why is C2 (axis) atypical?

A

has a superiorly-pointing odontoid process (dens)

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54
Q

what forms the atlanto-axial joint and what kind of joint is it?

A
  • between C1 and C2 (dens is held into the facet of the atlas)
  • synovial joint
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55
Q

what ligament holds the dens into the facet of the atlas?

A

transverse ligament of the atlas

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56
Q

what movement does the atlanto-axial joint facilitate?

A

rotation of the head (ex. shaking head no)

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57
Q

what makes C7 (vertebra prominens) atypical?

A

long, palpable, non-bifid spinous process

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58
Q

where do variations in vertebrae most commonly occur?

A

between adjacent groups

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59
Q

what is sacralization?

A

a lumber vertebra becoming a sacral vertebra

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60
Q

what is lumbarization?

A

a sacral vertebra becoming a lumbar vertebra

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61
Q

what forms the vertebral canal and what does it enclose?

A
  • articulations between the vertebral foramina
  • spinal cord
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62
Q

what are the landmarks of C1?

A
  • anterior arch
  • anterior tubercle
  • posterior arch
  • posterior tubercle
  • transverse process
  • transverse foramen
  • superior articular facet
  • inferior articular facet
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63
Q

what are the landmarks of C2?

A
  • body
  • dens (odontoid process)
  • spinous process
  • transverse process
  • transverse foramen
  • superior articular facet
  • inferior articular facet
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64
Q

what are the distinct features of the cervical vertebrae?

A
  • small, saddle-shaped vertebral bodies
  • large and triangular vertebral foramina
  • transverse foramina
  • superior articular facets pointing supero-posteriorly
  • inferior articular facets pointing infero-posteriorly
  • short, bifid spinous processes
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65
Q

what goes through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae?

A

vertebral arteries and veins

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66
Q

what vertebrae permit the most movement?

A

cervical is the most mobile and specialized for movement

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67
Q

what are the distinct features of the thoracic vertebrae?

A
  • costal facets (demi-facets) located superiorly and inferiorly on each side of body
  • costal facet of the transverse process
  • long, sloping spinous process that overlies lower vertebra
  • smaller circular vertebral foramen
  • nearly vertical superior (posterior-pointing) and inferior (anterior-pointing) articular facets (limited movement)
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68
Q

what are the lumbar vertebrae specialized for?

A

support

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69
Q

what are the distinct features of the lumbar vertebrae?

A
  • large vertebral bodies for extra support
  • sagittally oriented articular facets for flexion, extension, and lateral flexion of spine
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70
Q

what is the curvature of each portion of the vertebrae?

A
  • cervical: concave posteriorly
  • thoracic: concave anteriorly
  • lumbar: concave posteriorly
  • sacrum: concave anteriorly
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71
Q

what are intervertebral discs?

A
  • fibrocartilaginous discs that act to absorb shock and support the weight of rostral segments
  • provide cushioning
  • allow slight movement
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72
Q

how many intervertebral discs are in the human body?

A

23

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73
Q

what are the 2 major components of intervertebral discs?

A
  • nucleus pulposes
  • annulus fibrosus
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74
Q

what is the nucleus pulposes of an intervertebral disc?

A

gelatinous (jelly-like) filling of the disc

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75
Q

what is the annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc?

A

ring of fibrocartilage which encircles the intervertebral disc

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76
Q

what is a herniated disc?

A

structural failure of the annulus leading to bulging of the nucleus pulposes

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77
Q

what is the most common injury associated with herniated discs?

A

compression of spinal nerve

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78
Q

what is the most common cause associated with spinal cord injury?

A

fracture of vertebrae, spill of disc contents

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79
Q

what are the distinctive features of the sacrum?

A
  • ala
  • sacral promontory
  • auricular surface
  • superior articular facet
  • anterior sacral foramina
  • posterior sacral foramina
  • sacral canal
  • sacral hiatus
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80
Q

what forms the pelvic spine?

A

sacrum and coccyx

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81
Q

what forms the sacroiliac joint?

A

sacrum and hip bones (os coxae)

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82
Q

what is the function of the sacrum?

A

provides stability and strength in the pelvic region

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83
Q

what is the function of the sacral canal?

A
  • caudal continuation of the spinal canal
  • permits passage of the cauda equina
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84
Q

what is the cauda equina?

A

bundle of spinal nerve roots that stem caudally from the end of the spinal cord (L1-L2)

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85
Q

what is the clinical importance of the sacral hiatus?

A

caudal epidural injections

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86
Q

what are true ribs?

A
  • attach directly to the sternum via their own costal cartilage
  • ribs 1-7
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87
Q

what are false ribs?

A
  • attach indirectly to the sternum via the cartilage of the rib above
  • ribs 8-10
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88
Q

what are floating ribs?

A
  • do not attach to the sternum
  • ribs 11-12
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89
Q

what are the distinctive features of the first rib?

A
  • groove for subclavian vein
  • groove for subclavian artery
  • scalene tubercle (anterior scalene insertion)
  • only 1 articular facet (connected to T1 only)
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90
Q

what are the distinctive features of the second rib?

A

serratus anterior tuberosity

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91
Q

how does a rib articulate with the vertebral column?

A
  • inferior facet articulates with the numerically corresponding vertebra’s superior facet
  • superior facet articulates with inferior facet of the numerically superior vertebra
  • tubercle articulates with numerically corresponding transverse facet
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92
Q

how is the male sacrum shaped compared to the female sacrum?

A

longer and narrower

93
Q

what is the function of the costal groove of a rib?

A

provides protection and yields passage of the intercostal nerve, vein, and artery

94
Q

what are the features of the floating ribs?

A

short and have no neck or tubercle

95
Q

what are the distinctive features of the sternum?

A
  • manubrium
  • suprasternal/jugular notch (T2-T3)
  • clavicular notch
  • costal notches
  • body
  • xiphoid process (T10)
96
Q

what forms the sternal angle?

A

junction between body and manubrium
- T4-T5

97
Q

what forms the sternoclavicular joint?

A

sternal end of clavicle + clavicular notches

98
Q

where does the xiphoid process lie approximately and what is its function?

A
  • T10
  • attachment point for diaphragm
99
Q

what forms the xiphisternal joint?

A

body + xiphoid process (T9)

100
Q

what is the pericardium?

A

connective tissue sac that encompasses the heart and proximal portions of the great vessels

101
Q

what are the portions of the pericardium, from superficial to deep?

A
  • fibrous pericardium (continuous with central tendon of diaphragm)
  • serous pericardium
  • cardiac muscle
102
Q

what composes the serous pericardium, from superficial to deep?

A
  • parietal pericardium
  • visceral pericardium
103
Q

what is pericarditis and its possible deficits?

A

inflammation of serous pericardium
- reduced capacity for smooth heart movement

104
Q

what is the thymus?

A

site of T cell maturation, covers the atria

105
Q

what are the great vessels?

A

aorta, superior and inferior vena cava, and the pulmonary arteries and veins

106
Q

what is the hilum and where is it located?

A
  • the point of attachment and entry of pulmonary arteries and veins + primary bronchi
  • located on medial surface of both lungs
107
Q

what are the structures of the right lung?

A
  • superior lobe
  • middle lobe
  • inferior lobe
  • horizontal fissure
  • oblique fissure
  • hilum
  • base
  • apex
  • costal surface
  • posterior (vertebral) border
  • anterior border
  • inferior border
108
Q

what is the mediastinum?

A

houses the heart, trachea, esophagus, and great vessels

109
Q

what divides the superior and inferior mediastinum?

A
  • T4
  • transverse thoracic plane
  • sternal angle
110
Q

what is in the superior mediastinum?

A
  • thymus
  • portions of the great vessels
  • nerves
  • trachea
  • esophagus
111
Q

what is in the inferior mediastinum?

A
  • heart
  • pericardium
112
Q

what is the trachea?

A

airpipe; terminates at the carina and bifurcates into left and right primary bronchi

113
Q

what is the esophagus and where is it located?

A

food pipe; posterior and slightly left of the trachea, posterior to the hilum of the left lung

114
Q

what are differences in the left and right lung?

A
  • right lung has 3 lobes (left lung only has 2 w/ oblique fissure separating them)
  • left lung has cardiac notch (and lingua)
115
Q

what separates the superior lobe and middle lobe of the right lung?

A

horizontal fissure

116
Q

what separates the middle lobe and inferior lobe of the right lung?

A

oblique fissure

117
Q

what is the diaphragm?

A

domed muscle that separates thoracic and abdominal cavities

118
Q

what is the action of the diaphragm?

A

increases the volume of the thoracic cavity and inflates the lungs (flattens during inhalation)

119
Q

where do the fibres of the diaphragm converge/insert?

A

central tendon

120
Q

what is the diaphragm innervated by?

A

each hemidiaphragm innervated by a phrenic nerve (C3-C5, bilateral innervation)

121
Q

what happens if the phrenic nerve is damaged?

A

paradoxical movement: during inhalation, diaphragm will move superiorly on injured side while undamaged side moves inferiorly

122
Q

where is the caval hiatus/opening located relative to the other openings?

A
  • T8
  • superior and anterior
123
Q

where is the esophageal hiatus located relative to the other openings?

A
  • T10
  • inferior and posterior to caval hiatus
  • superior and anterior to aortic hiatus
124
Q

where is the aortic hiatus located relative to the other openings?

A
  • T12
  • inferior and posterior
125
Q

what is the larynx?

A

general area superior to trachea; innervated by laryngeal nerve (branch of vagus nerve)

126
Q

what are auricles/atrial appendages?

A

flap-like extensions of atria with unknown functions

127
Q

what is the clinical relevance of the left atrial appendage?

A

major site of thrombus (clot) formation in patients with non-valvar atrial fibrillation

128
Q

what separates the atria?

A

interatrial septum

129
Q

what separates the ventricles?

A

interventricular septum

130
Q

what separates the right atria and ventricle?

A

right AV (tricuspid) valve
- 3 leaflets

131
Q

what separates the left atria and ventricle?

A

left AV (bicuspid/mitral) valve
- 3 leaflets

132
Q

what separates the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk?

A

pulmonary semilunar valve

133
Q

what separates the left ventricle and aorta?

A

aortic semilunar valve

134
Q

what are the function of papillary muscles?

A

control the leaflets of the AV valves, located in the ventricular walls
- initiate contraction prior to ventricular systole (contraction closes valves)

135
Q

what are the chordae tendinae?

A

connects leaflets of AV valves and papillary muscles

136
Q

what lines the ventricular walls?

A

trabeculae carnae

137
Q

what lines the atrial walls?

A

pectinate muscles

138
Q

what are the most proximal branches of the aorta?

A

coronary arteries, running on either side of the pulmonary trunk

139
Q

what does the right coronary artery branch into?

A
  • posterior interventricular artery (lies in posterior interventricular groove)
  • marginal artery
140
Q

what does the right coronary artery supply?

A

most of the right side of the heart

141
Q

what does the left coronary artery supply?

A

left heart, part of the right ventricle, and most of the conducting system of the heart

141
Q

what does the left coronary artery branch into?

A
  • circumflex artery (lies in coronary (AV) sulcus)
  • anterior interventricular artery (lies in anterior interventricular groove)
142
Q

what do the coronary veins drain into?

A

coronary sinus (lies in coronary sulcus)

143
Q

what are the coronary veins?

A
  • great cardiac vein (lies in anterior interventricular groove)
  • middle cardiac vein (lies in the posterior interventricular groove)
144
Q

what composes the thoracic cage and what is its function?

A

ribs, sternum, thoracic vertebrae (strong, domed shape)
- encloses the organs of the thoracic cavity and moves to facilitate ventilation

145
Q

how are intercostal spaces named?

A

for superior rib

146
Q

what is the general offset of the vertebral bodies and spinous processes?

A

spinous processes generally lower

147
Q

why is the xiphoid process vulnerable to fracture and dislocation?

A

CPR

148
Q

what is the midclavicular line?

A

line that descends inferiorly form the midpoint of the clavicle

149
Q

what is the axillary line?

A

demarcates the axillary fossa (armpit)

150
Q

what is the anterior axillary line?

A

lateral border of pec major

151
Q

what is the posterior axillary line?

A

lateral border of latissimus dorsi

152
Q

what is the scapular line?

A

pass through inferior angle of the scapula

153
Q

what is a supernumerary nipple?

A

additional nipple commonly located on midclavicular line

154
Q

where is breast tissue relative to pec major?

A

superficial

155
Q

where is a subglandular breast implant placed?

A

anterior to pec major and pec minor
- recapsulates original anatomy

156
Q

where is a submuscular breast implant placed?

A

between pec major and pec minor
- more common

157
Q

where is the jugular notch relative to the origin of the internal jugular veins?

A

slightly caudal and medial

158
Q

what kind of joint is the 1st sternocostal joint?

A

synarthrosis and a synchondrosis (permits least amount of movement)
- hyaline cartilage directly united with sternum

159
Q

what kind of joints are the 2nd-7th sternocostal joints and the sternoclavicular joint?

A

synovial plane joints (relatively mobile)

160
Q

what kind of joints are the manubriosternal joint and xiphisternal joint?

A

symphyses (ossify in adulthood)

161
Q

how many joints permit rotation of the head and what is the pivot point?

A
  • 3 joints
  • dens
162
Q

what is the hangman’s fracture?

A

dens fracture - occurs due to hyperextension of neck causes by being hung

163
Q

what is the function of the auricular surface of the sacrum?

A

articulates with ilium of hip bone to form the sacroiliac joint

164
Q

what is the costotransverse joint?

A

joint between facet of transverse process of vertebra and tubercle facet of rib

165
Q

what is the costovertebral/costocorporeal joint?

A

joint between head of rib and superior + inferior articular facets of vertebrae

166
Q

what kind of joints are the costovertebral joints?

A

synovial
- vulnerable to injury (sprain), causing pain and immobility

167
Q

what shape is the articular surface of the tubercle of ribs 1-6?

A

convex

168
Q

what movement is permitted at ribs 1-6?

A

rotation permitting elevation and depression of the sternal end of the ribs in the sagittal plane (pump-handle movement)

169
Q

what does “pump-handle movement” mean?

A

upper portion of the rib cage expands anteriorly

170
Q

what shape is the articular surface of the tubercle of ribs 7-10?

A

flat

171
Q

what movement is permitted at ribs 7-10

A

gliding permitting elevation and depression of the lateral ribs in the transverse plane (bucket-handle movement)

172
Q

what movement facilitates forced expiration?

A

combination of anterior and lateral expansion of the rib cage (pump-handle + bucket-handle)

173
Q

what is flail chest?

A

extreme case of rib fracture
- flail segment moves paradoxically in respiration

174
Q

where are the most common herniated discs?

A

L4-L5 and L5-S1
- bearing the most load

175
Q

what is the pattern of the spinal nerves?

A
  • C1-C7 above vertebra, C8 onwards below vertebra
176
Q

how do the ventral (anterior) rami travel from the spinal nerve?

A

transversely

177
Q

what innervates the deep muscles of the back?

A

posterior (dorsal) ramus

178
Q

where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1-L2

179
Q

what does the cervical dermatome sense?

A

head, neck, upper limb

180
Q

what does the thoracic dermatome sense?

A

anterior and posterior thorax

181
Q

what does the lumbar dermatome sense?

A

anterior lower limb + lateral portions of posterior lower limb + medial portions of feet

182
Q

what does the sacral dermatome sense?

A

genitals + medial portions of posterior lower limb + lateral portions of feet

183
Q

what does spinal cord injury result in?

A

causes loss of sensory and motor function from that point below

184
Q

what does spinal nerve injury result in?

A

causes loss of sensory and motor function in a single dermatome/myotome

185
Q

C2 myotome

A

back of head + superior neck

186
Q

C3 myotome

A

inferior neck

187
Q

C4 myotome

A

clavicle area

188
Q

C5 myotome

A

elbow flexors

189
Q

C6 myotome

A

wrist extensors

190
Q

C7 myotome

A

elbow extensors

191
Q

C8 myotome

A

finger flexors

192
Q

T1 myotome

A

finger abductors

193
Q

L2 myotome

A

hip flexors

194
Q

L3 myotome

A

knee extensors

195
Q

L4 myotome

A

ankle dorsiflexors

196
Q

L5 myotome

A

long toe extensors

197
Q

S1 myotome

A

ankle plantar flexors

198
Q

where does the phrenic nerve originate?

A

anterior (ventral) rami of C3-C5

199
Q

what are the bony articulations (synovial joints) of the shoulder complex?

A

sternoclavicular joint, acromioclavicular joint, and glenohumeral joint

200
Q

what is the physiological coupling that couples the scapula to the thoracic cage?

A

scapula-thoracic joint

201
Q

what muscles are involved in elevation of the scapula?

A
  • upper trapezius
  • levator scapula
202
Q

what muscles are involved in depression of the scapula?

A
  • serratus anterior
  • pectoralis minor
203
Q

what muscles are involved in retraction of the scapula?

A
  • trapezius
  • rhomboids
204
Q

what muscles are involved in protraction of the scapula?

A
  • serratus anterior
  • pectoralis minor
205
Q

what is the origin of the diaphragm?

A
  • lumbar vertebrae
  • ribs 7-12
  • xiphoid process
206
Q

how are the intercostal spaces named?

A

for rib above

207
Q

where do intercostal nerves originate?

A

ventral (anterior) rami

208
Q

what composes the intercostal space?

A

intercostal muscles, veins, arteries, and nerves

209
Q

what is the order of vessels/nerves in the intercostal space, rostral to caudal, in the costal groove of a rib?

A

VAN
- veins
- arteries
- nerves

210
Q

how do the intercostal veins drain into the IVC?

A

azygos vein

211
Q

where are the VANs located?

A

costal groove of a rib, sandwiched between innermost intercostals and internal intercostals

212
Q

how are the external intercostals organized?

A

originate on inferior border of rib, insert on superior border immediately below

213
Q

what muscles are used during inspiration?

A
  • external intercostals
  • intercartilaginous portions of internal intercostals
  • both act to enlarge rib cage
214
Q

what are the actions of the external intercostals and the intercartilaginous portions of the internal intercostals?

A

pulls inferior rib to superior rib, enlarging rib cage

215
Q

what muscles are used during forced exhalation?

A

internal intercostal muscles (excluding intercarilaginous portions)

216
Q

how are the internal intercostals organized?

A

originate on superior border of rib, insert on inferior border of rib immediately above

217
Q

what is the action of the internal intercostals?

A

pulls superior rib to inferior rib, shrinking rib cage

218
Q

what do the pulmonary cavities consist of?

A

lungs, bronchial tree, pleural membrane, and pulmonary vessels

219
Q

what creates the pleural cavity?

A

visceral and parietal pleura

220
Q

what is a pneumothorax?

A

collapsed lung
- pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds pressure in the lung, causing visceral pleura to shrink (loses continuity with parietal pleura)
- treated by evacuating air in pleura to re-inflate lung

221
Q

what is a hemothorax?

A

blood in the pleural cavity

222
Q

what is a hydrothorax?

A

fluid in the pleural cavity

223
Q

what is a thoracentesis?

A

insertion of a chest tube through intercostal space
- used to remove air, pus, blood, fluid from intrapleural space (pleural cavity)

224
Q

what are recesses?

A

space between the lungs and the parietal pleura present in normal, quiet breathing
- shrink during forceful breathing

225
Q

how many lobar (secondary) bronchi does each lung have?

A

lobar bronchi supply the lobes of the lung, so:
- right lung has 3 lobar bronchi
- left lung has 2 lobar bronchi

226
Q

what is a bronchoscopy?

A

passage of a camera into the proximal tracheobronchial tree
- diagnostic and used to remove things

227
Q

how does the mediastinum shift with posture?

A
  • supine: aortic arch superior to transverse thoracic plane
  • standing: aortic arch transected by transverse thoracic plane

BPK326 (5 decks)

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